Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

advanced practice registered nurse

A

a nurse educated at the master’s or doctoral level, with advanced education in pathophysiology, pharmacology, and health assessment and expertise in a specialized area of practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

case management

A

a collaborative process of assessment, planning, facilitation, care coordination, evaluation, and advocacy for options and services to meet an individual’s and family’s comprehensive health needs through communication and available resources to promote quality, cost-effective outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

telehealth nursing

A

the delivery of health care and information through telecommunication technologies, including high-speed Internet, wireless, satellite, and video communications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

critical thinking

A

your ability to focus your thinking to get the results you need in various situations, has been described as knowing how to learn, be creative, generate ideas, make decisions, and solve problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

clinical reasoning

A

using critical thinking to examine and analyze patient care issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

interprofessional team

A

made up of providers from various disciplines, working together and sharing their expertise to provide customized care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

clinical pathways

A

interprofessional care plans that outline the care and desired outcomes for a specific time period for patients with a specific diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

delegation

A

allows a care provider to perform specific nursing activity, skill, or procedure that is beyond their usual role

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

serious reportable event (SRE)

A

to describe serious, largely preventable, and harmful clinical events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

electronic health record (EHR)

A

a computerized record of patient information
not interoperable
single-time use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

evidence-based practice (EBP)

A

a problem-solving approach to clinical decision making

uses the best available evidence combined with the nurse’s expertise to make the best decisions for the client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

determinants of health

A

influence the health of individuals and groups
help explain why some people experience poorer health than others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

health status

A

a holistic concept that is more than the presence or absence of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

health disparities

A

differences in the incidence, prevalence, mortality rate, and burden of diseases that exist among specific population groups

a time period, location, quantification on a topic that has a gap, need, concern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

health equity

A

when every person has the opportunity to attain his or her health potential, and no one is disadvantaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

culture

A

a way of life for a group of people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

values

A

the set of rules by which persons, families, groups, and communities live

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

acculturation

A

the lifelong process of incorporating cultural aspects of the contexts in which a person grows, lives, works, and ages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

stereotyping

A

an overgeneralized viewpoint that members of a specific culture, race, or ethnic group are alike and share the same values and beliefs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ethnocentrism

A

the belief that one’s own culture and worldview are superior to those of others from different cultural, ethnic, or racial backgrounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

transcultural nursing

A

a specialty that focuses on the comparative study and analysis of cultures and subcultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

cultural competence

A

the ability to understand, appreciate, and work with people from cultures other than your own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

culture-bound syndromes

A

illnesses or afflictions that are recognized only within a cultural group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

teaching plan

A

assessment of the patient’s ability and readiness to learn

identification of teaching needs

development of learning goals with the patient

implementation of the teaching

evaluation of the patient’s learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

teaching

A

a complex process intended to facilitate learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

learning

A

the act of a person acquiring knowledge, skills, or attitudes that may result in a permanent change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

motivational interviewing

A

nonconfrontational interpersonal communication techniques to motivate patients to change behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

self-efficacy

A

the belief that one can succeed in a given situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

caregivers

A

people who care for those who cannot care for themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

health literacy

A

the degree to which a person can obtain and understand basic health information needed to make appropriate decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

learning needs

A

the new knowledge and skills that a person must have to meet a goal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how does a nurse help?

A

physical
psychological
support, safety, situational awareness, sex
spirituality, specialty
encourage
health history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

nursing process

A

assessment
diagnose
plan
intervention
evaluate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

SBAR

A

situation
background
assessment
recommendation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what do we do for culturally competent care?

A

know culture norms
ask about cultural values
same gender preference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what do we not do for culturally competent care?

A

stereotype
ethnocentrism
cultural imposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are some national patient safety goals

A

identify patients correctly

get important test results to the right staff person on time

use medicines safely

prevent infection with handwashing

prevent mistakes in surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what does the joint commission do?

A

monitor hospitals to make sure they are performing patient safety goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is part of the nursing assessment?

A

patient’s health history
physical examination
identify patient’s current and past health status
provide baseline for further evaluation
formulate nursing priority problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is subjective data?

A

important health information
health history
medications
allergies
surgery or other treatments
functional health patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are the functional health patterns needed for the assessment?

A

health perception-health management
nutritional-metabolic
elimination
activity-exercise
sleep-rest
cognitive-perceptual
self-perception–self-concept
role-relationship
sexuality-reproductive
coping-stress
value-belief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what do you collect for patient-reported symptoms?

A

pain
quality
radiation
severity
time
unilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is objective data?

A

general survey
physical examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the proper sequence for physical examination?

A

inspection
palpation
percussion
auscultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are the types of assessments?

A

emergency
comprehensive
focused
learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

surgery

A

the art and science of treating diseases, injuries, and deformities by operation and instrumentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

malignant hyperthermia (MH)

A

rare disorder characterized by hyperthermia with skeletal muscle rigidity

life-threatening complication that occurs during general anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

airway obstruction

A

the patient’s tongue blocking the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

atelectasis

A

alveolar collapse
may be the result of bronchial obstruction caused by retained secretions, decreased respiratory excursion, or general anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

emergence delirium

A

a short-term neurologic change manifested by behaviors such as restlessness, agitation, disorientation, thrashing, and shouting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

delayed emergence

A

problem after surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)

A

allows the self-administration of predetermined doses of analgesia and maintain an acceptable level of pain control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

postoperative ileus (POI)

A

the temporary impairment of gastric and bowel motility after surgery

characterized by bowel distention, lack of bowel sounds, accumulation of GI gas and fluid, and delayed passage of flatus and stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is surgery used for?

A

diagnosis
cure
palliation
prevention
cosmetic
exploration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what are the surgical settings?

A

elective
emergency
inpatient
ambulatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

elective surgery

A

planned, cosmetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

emergency surgery

A

not planned, cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

ambulatory surgery

A

same day, outpatient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is the nurse’s role in preop

A

have knowledge of the nature of the disorder requiring surgery and co-morbidities

identify the individual patient’s response to the stress of surgery

have knowledge of the results of preoperative diagnostic tests

identify potential risks and complications associated with surgery

speak with patient regarding feelings of surgery “tell me more…”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what kind of diagnostic tests do you perform for preop?

A

any change is significant, you want baseline information

type and screen
urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what can patient anxiety do?

A

impair cognition, decision making, and coping abilities
influence vital signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

where does patient anxiety come from?

A

lack of knowledge
unrealistic expectations
conflict with interventions and religious/cultural beliefs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what are patient’s fears?

A

death/disability
pain and discomfort
mutilation/alteration in body image
disruption of life functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is the purpose of the patient interview?

A

obtain health information, including drug and food allergies

provide and clarify information about the surgery and anesthesia

assess emotional state and readiness

determine expectations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what are the nursing assessment goals?

A

establish baseline data to compare

determine psychologic status to reinforce coping strategies

determine physiologic factors of procedure contributing to risks

identify and document surgical site

identify drugs, OTC, medications, and herbs taken that may affect surgical outcome

review results of preoperative diagnostic studies

identify cultural and ethnic factors that may affect surgical experience

determine if patient received adequate information from surgeon to sign informed consent; if not, RN notifies surgeon

determine that consent form is signed and witnessed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

why do we need to know drugs taken?

A

can affect postoperative care

vitamin E, saw palmetto, ginko biloba, and blood thinners affect clotting time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

why do we perform a nursing assessment?

A

to communicate all concerns to surgical team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is the psychosocial assessment?

A

excessive stress response can be magnified and affect recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what are the influencing factors of the psychosocial assessment?

A

age
past experiences
current health
socioeconomic status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is included in the past health history of the nursing assessment in preop?

A

diagnosed medical conditions
previous surgeries and problems
menstrual/obstetric history
familial diseases
reactions/problems to anesthesia (patient and family)
addictions
allergies

WE NEED TO KNOW EVERYTHING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what kind of medications do we need to know about in the preop?

A

prescription
OTC
herbs
dietary supplements/vitamins
antiplatelets/NSAIDs
recreational
drug intolerances and allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

why do we need to review the body systems?

A

confirms the presence or absence of diseases

alerts to area to closely examine

provide essential data to determine specific preoperative tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

cardiovascular system assessment

A

note cardiac problems, so they can be monitored

use of cardiac drugs

presence of pacemaker or ICD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what are some cardiac problems a patient might have?

A

hypertension
angina
dysrhythmias
heart failure
myocardial infraction
hypovolemic
deep vein thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

why do we need to know if they have a pacemaker?

A

need to know how it works

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

respiratory system assessment

A

inquire about recent or chronic respiratory disease

respiratory infections

history of dyspnea, coughing, or hemoptysis reported to operative team

COPD or asthma

encourage smokers to stop smoking at least 6 weeks before surgery

sleep apnea, obesity, and airway deformities affect respiratory function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

why do we need to know if the patient has COPD or asthma?

A

they are high risk for atelectasis and hypoxemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

nervous system assessment

A

evaluation of neurologic functioning

vision or hearing loss
cognitive deficits can affect informed consent and cause adverse outcomes during and after surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

genitourinary system assessment

A

history of renal and urinary tract diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what is renal dysfunction is associated with?

A

fluid and electrolyte imbalances
increased risk of infection
impaired wound healing
altered response to drugs and their elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

hepatic system assessment

A

liver detoxifies many anesthetics and adjunctive drugs

hepatic dysfunction may increase risk of perioperative complications (alcoholics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

why is the liver so important?

A

it is a filter system
impaired liver=impaired clearances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

musculoskeletal system assessment

A

identify joints affected with arthritis

mobility restrictions may affect positioning and ambulation

report problems affecting neck or lumbar spine to ACP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

why is the supine and left lateral position good?

A

can affect airway management and anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

integumentary system assessment

A

history of pressure injuries
body art such as tattoos, piercing (remove)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

why is the history of pressure injuries important to know in the integumentary system assessment?

A

may need extra padding procedure during procedures
affects postoperative healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

immune system assessment

A

compromised immune system or use of immunosuppressive drugs can have
delayed wound healing and increased risk for infection

immunosuppressive drugs may need to be tapered before surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

endocrine system assessment

A

patient with diabetes
patient with thyroid dysfunction
patients with Addison’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

fluid and electrolyte status assessment

A

vomiting, diarrhea, or preoperative bowel preps can cause imbalances

identify drugs that change F and E status, such as diuretics

evaluate serum electrolyte levels

NPO status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

why do we add place an NPO status?

A

used to prevent vomiting and potential sx complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

nutritional status assessment

A

deficits include undernutrition and overnutrition
obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

why is it important to know if the patient under nourished in the nutritional assessment?

A

need to provide extra padding to underweight patients to prevent pressure ulcers

may be protein and vitamin deficient

identify dietary habits that may affect recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

why is it important to know if the patient is obese in the nutritional assessment?

A

stresses cardiac and pulmonary systems

increased risk of wound dehiscence, evisceration, infection, and incisional hernia

slower recovery from anesthesia

slower wound healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Why do we have to do an examination as part of the nursing assessment?

A

the joint commission (TJC) requires a history and physical

findings enable ACP to rate patient for anesthesia administration
indicator of perioperative risk and overall outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what do you do for the exam in the nursing assessment?

A

complete a physical examination

document relevant findings and share with the perioperative team

obtain and evaluate results of laboratory tests

monitor blood glucose for patients with diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what is the preoperative teaching for post-op information?

A

deep breathing, coughing

incentive spirometer

SCDs

inform if tubes, drains, monitoring devices, or special equipment will be used postoperatively

early ambulation as appropriate

diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what are SCDs?

A

compression sleeves to promote circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

what is ambulatory surgery information?

A

basic information before arrival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what is the basic information before arrival in the OR?

A

NPO after midnight
time and place
what to wear and bring
responsible adult needed
ride home
fluid and food restrictions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what is the legal preparation you have prepare in nursing management in preop?

A

check that all required forms are signed and in chart

legally appointed representative of family may consent if patient is minor, unconscious, or mentally incompetent

emancipated minor is younger than legal age but able to provide legal consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what are the required signed forms you need in preop?

A

informed consent
blood transfusions
advance directives
power of attorney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what must you have before you enter to OR?

A

consent
preop checklist
IV antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what must be included for informed consent?

A

adequate disclosure (diagnosis, purpose, risk, consequences, probability of outcome, benefits, prognosis if not done)

clear understanding by patient

voluntarily given consent

permission may be withdrawn at any time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are the roles involved in the consent process?

A

surgeon is ultimately responsible for obtaining consent

nurse can witness signature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what is done day of surgery preparation?

A

final preoperative teaching
assessment and communication of pertinent findings
verification of signed consent/forms
laboratory and diagnostic results
consultations done
baseline vitals
valuables are returned to family member or locked up
dentures, contact, glasses, prostheses are removed
proper skin preparation
nursing notes
surgical site identification
hospital gown
identification and allergy bands on wrist
void before surgery
patient should not wear any cosmetics
observation of skin color is important
remove nail polish for pulse oximeter
preop checklist completed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

how do people’s blood type change?

A

radiation
bone marrow transparent
major amount of blood transfusion done

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what are some preoperative medications (that are sometimes ordered)?

A

benzodiazepines
anticholinergics
opioids
antiemetics
antibiotics
beta blockers
insulin
eyedrops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

how do you transport to the OR?

A

via stretcher or wheel chair
caregivers directed to holding areas with patient initially then waiting room

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

hand-off communication

A

SBAR!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what are some special concerns in the preop phase?

A

culturally competent care
geriatric considerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what are some culturally competent care concerns in the preop stage?

A

patient’s expression of pain
family expectations
ability to verbally express needs
decision-making

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

what is special about a patient being in Jehovah’s Witness?

A

no blood transfusions
ask open ended questions to get answers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what is intraoperative care?

A

historically took place in the OR

many done as ambulatory surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

what is considered minimally invasive surgery (MIS)?

A

endoscopes
robotics
other advanced technology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what are the physical environments of intraoperative care?

A

surgical suite
holding area
operating room

116
Q

what is the surgical suite?

A

controlled environment
designed to minimize spread of pathogens
allows smooth flow of patients, staff, and equipment to give safe surgical patient care

117
Q

what are the three zones in the surgical suite?

A

unrestricted
semi restricted
restricted

118
Q

what are the unrestricted areas in intraoperative care?

A

holding area
locker room
nurses station

119
Q

what are the semi restricted areas in preoperative care?

A

support area
corridor
surgical staff

120
Q

what are restricted areas in intraoperative care?

A

masks worn
minimal traffic
includes OR

121
Q

what is the holding area in intraoperative care?

A

unrestricted zone
final identification and assessment
friends/family allowed
when patient is taken to OR, family/friends will be asked to wait in the waiting room and the surgeon will be out when done to update on patient status

122
Q

what is the admission, observation, and discharge area in intraoperative?

A

early morning admissions
- outpatient surgery
- same-day admission
- inpatient holding

123
Q

what is the operating room?

A

restricted zone
- geographically, environmentally, and aseptically controlled
preferred location is next to PACU and surgical ICU

124
Q

what is a preoperative nurse?

A

registered nurse

125
Q

what are the 3 domains of the perioperative nurse?

A

pre-op RN
OR RN
PACU RN

126
Q

what are the goals of periop RN?

A

patient advocacy

safety, dignity, confidentiality
communication with patient, team, and other HCP
nursing care

127
Q

what does the circulating nurse do?

A

nonsterile
prepares room
supplies and equipment available and checked
monitors hcp practices
conducts pre-procedure verification (TIME OUT)
assesses patient
confirms and implements facility and safety protocols
records intraoperative care
coordinates activites
sponge count (2 RNs needed)
report to PACU RN
“runner”
calls family
gets blankets

128
Q

what does scrub nurse do?

A

sterile
prepares room
maintains sterility during procedure
prepares instruments and equipment for surgery
conducts pre-procedure verification (TIME OUT)
assists surgeon during procedure
accepts, verifies and reports drugs used during procedure
sponge count (2 RNS needed)

129
Q

what does nursing management look like in intraoperative care?

A

initial greeting
proper identification
human contact and warmth
reassessment
last-minute question
final questioning about valuables, prostheses, last intake of food/fluid
confirm correct preoperative drugs given
cover patient’s hair
keep patient warm

130
Q

what does nursing management look like in intraoperative care? PART 2

A

accessibility of operative site
administering and monitoring of anesthetic agents
maintaining patient airway
provide correct musculoskeletal alignment
prevent pressure on nerves, skin over bony prominences, earlobes, eyes
provide for adequate thoracic excursion
prevent occlusion of arteries and veins
provide modesty in exposure
recognize and respect needs such as pain or deformities

131
Q

what does nursing management look like after surgery (still in intraoperative care)?

A

ACP anticipates end of procedure

132
Q

what does ACP want at end of procedure in intraoperative care?

A

gives proper types and doses of anesthetic agents so that effects will be minimal at end of surgery

ACP goes with patient to PACU

133
Q

what is in the hand-off report after surgery?

A

patient’s status
procedure done
medications
fluids given

134
Q

what are the safety considerations of intraoperative care?

A

communication
surgical care improvement project (SCIP)
time out

135
Q

what is the surgical care improvement project? (SCIP)

A

prophylactic ATP started within 30-60 minutes of Sx

warm blanket to prevent hypothermia

intermittent pneumatic compression device to minimize risk for VTE

136
Q

what is time out?

A

verification
consent
documentation

137
Q

what is general anesthesia?

A

loss of sensation with loss of consciousness

hypnosis, analgesia, amnesia
skeletal muscled relation
requires an advanced airway

138
Q

what is local anesthesia?

A

loss of sensation to one specific area without loss consciousness

139
Q

what is regional anesthesia?

A

loss of sensation to a region of the body
no loss of consciousness

involves blocking a specific nerve group

140
Q

what is the postoperative period?

A

begins immediately after surgery
initial recovery period in PACU

141
Q

where is the postoperative period taken place?

A

PACU
right next to OR, limited transportation
gives ready access to anesthesia and OR staff

142
Q

what is the nursing care focus in the postoperative period?

A

maintain patient safety
identify actual and potential patient problems
frequent assessment and monitoring is required
ECG and more intense monitoring required

143
Q

what is in the PACU admission report?

A

general information
patient history
intraoperative management (anesthesia, meds, blood loss, fluids, urine)
intraoperative course (unexpected events during procedure, VS trend, lab tests during procedure)

144
Q

What is the “A” of the ABC of the postoperative assessment?

A

airway

oxygenation and ventilation can be affected by residual neuromuscular blockade, use of opioids, and patient characteristics such as sleep-disordered breathing (e.g. central or obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), abnormal airway anatomy)
patency
artificial airway

145
Q

what is the “B” in the postoperative assessment?

A

breathing

RR and quality
breath sounds
supplemental oxygen
pulse oximetry and capnography

146
Q

what is the “C” in the postoperative assessment?

A

circulation

ECG monitoring
vital signs
peripheral pulses
capillary refill
skin color and temperature

147
Q

what is part of the neurologic postop assessment?

A

LOC/glasglow coma scale
orientation
sensory and motor status
pupil size, equality and reaction

148
Q

what is the glasglow coma scale?

A

3 is dead
15 is fine

149
Q

why do we assess the sensory and motor status in post op?

A

hearing is the first sense to return, so be sure to explain all activities to the patient

150
Q

what is part of the genitourinary postop assessment?

A

intake
output
estimated blood loss

151
Q

what is part of the gastrointestinal postop assessment?

A

bowel sounds (check prior to eating)
NG– verify placement to suction or clamped
nausea

152
Q

what is part of the surgical postop assessment?

A

dressing… check for drainage or swelling under the badge

153
Q

what is part of the pain postop assessment?

A

incisional
see if patient can use PCA

154
Q

what is part of the lab and diagnostic postop assessment?

A

review results of ordered exam

155
Q

what are some respiratory postop complications and how do you check them?

A

airway obstruction (check airway)
hypoxemia
aspiration (listen for cough when swallowing)
bronchospasm (assess lungs)
hypoventilation (check pulse ox or capnography)

156
Q

what could cause hypoxemia and how do you check for it?

A

atelectasis (incentive spirometer, cough, deep breath)
pulmonary edema (assess lungs)

157
Q

what are some nursing interventions to prevent respiratory complications in postop?

A

proper patient positioning (lateral to supine)
oxygen therapy
coughing and deep breathing
incentive spirometer
sustained maximal inspirations
change patient position every 1-2 hours
early mobilization
pain management
adequate hydration
chest physical therapy

158
Q

what are some fluid and electrolyte postop complications?

A

fluid overload
fluid deficit
electrolyte imbalances
acid-base imbalances

159
Q

what would hypokalemia affect?

A

contractility of the heart
decreased cardiac output
tissue perfussion

160
Q

when would acid-base imbalances be seen?

A

patients who have irregular breathing patterns or respiratory depression

161
Q

what are some cardiovascular postop complications and what causes them?

A

hypotension (hypoperfusion to vital organs; unreplaced fluid and blood loss)

hypertension (pain, anxiety, bladder distention, respiratory distress, hypothermia)

dysrhythmias (hypoxemia, hypercapnia, electrolyte and acid-base imbalances, circulatory instability, hypothermia, pain, surgical stress, many anesthetics, and preexisting heart disease)

VTE (inactivity, body position, and pressure)

syncope (decreased cardiac output, fluid deficits, or defects in cerebral perfusion)

162
Q

what are some vital signs you can look for to prevent cardiovascular complications in postop?

A

Q15
compare

163
Q

what do you do if a patient has hypotension in postop cardiovascular complications?

A

continued observation if everything is normal

immediate treatment is pulse is weak/rapid, pale skin

assess surgical site for excessive loss of bleeding

164
Q

what can you do for BP in cardiovascular complications in postop?

A

IV fluid boluses
pain medication
BP meds
monitor orthos as you increase mobility

165
Q

what are some nursing interventions to prevent postop cardiovascular complications?

A

continuous ECG monitoring
adequate fluid replacement
assess surgical site for bleeding
intake and output
monitor laboratory results
VTE prophylaxis
slow changes in the body
early ambulation

166
Q

what are some neurologic/psychologic postop complications?

A

emergence delirium
delayed emergence
postop cognitive dysfunction
anxiety/depression
alcohol withdrawal delirium

167
Q

emergence delirium

A

restlessness
disorientation
thrashing
agitation

168
Q

delayed emergence

A

failure to regain consciousness 30-60 minutes after surgery

169
Q

postop cognitive dysfunction

A

memory loss
inability to concentrate for weeks and months

170
Q

anxiety/depression

A

grieving for a lost body part or function
increased likelihood of complications

171
Q

alcohol withdrawal delirium

A

restlessness
insomnia
nightmare
irritability
auditory/visual hallucinations

172
Q

what are some nursing interventions to prevent neuropsychologic complications?

A

monitor O2 levels with pulse ox
oxygen therapy
pain management
reversal agents (phase I)
assess for anxiety and depression
alcohol protocols
safety
fluid/electrolyte balance
nutrition
sleep
listening

173
Q

what are some postoperative complications involving temperature?

A

hypothermia
shivering
fever
malignant hyperthermia

174
Q

hypothermia

A

less than 96.8F
contributing factors: skin exposure during the surgical procedure, use of cold irritants, d skin preparations, un-warmed inhaled gases

175
Q

shivering

A

can increase resting energy expenditure and oxygen consumption, CO2 production

176
Q

fever

A

infection?
what kind?

177
Q

why would there by a fever within 12 hours postop?

A

hypothermia r/t anesthesia
body heat loss

178
Q

why would there be a fever in the first 48 hours postop?

A

hyperthermia r/t inflammation response to surgical stress
lung congestion
dehydration

179
Q

why would there be a fever after 48 hours postop?

A

hyperthermia r/t infection

180
Q

what are come nursing interventions to prevent hypothermia and fever?

A

passive warming
active warming
oxygen therapy
opioids
meticulous asepsis
airway clearance… coughing/deep breathing
dantrolene (dantrium) for MH

181
Q

what are some gastrointestinal postop complications?

A

absent bowel sounds
nausea/vomiting postop (PONV)
constipation
postoperative ileus
hiccups

182
Q

constipation risk factors

A

use of opioids/meds
change in diet and fluid intake
immobility

183
Q

hiccups

A

phrenic nerve irritated after sx by gastric distention or intestinal obstruction

184
Q

what are some nursing interventions to prevent GI complications?

A

PONV
adequate hydration
assess bowel sounds
check for flatulence
early mobilization

185
Q

PONV

A

NPO, IV fluids, clear liquids
anti emetics
prokinetics
alternative therapy

186
Q

what are some urinary postop complications?

A

retention
oliguria
anuria
catheter-associated UTI (CAUTI)

187
Q

retention measurement

A

800-1500 mL in 24 hours

188
Q

oliguria measurement

A

<400 mL in 24 hours

189
Q

anuria measurement

A

<100 mL in 24 hours

190
Q

average urine output

A

0.5 mg/kg/hour

191
Q

what are some nursing interventions to prevent urinary complications?

A

monitor urine output
adequate hydration
normal positioning for elimination
no void? palpate bladder
bladder scan/straight cath per orders
remove urinary catheter when no longer indicated

192
Q

surgical site infection (SSI)

A

contamination of the wound from the following:

exogenous flora (environment and skin)
oral flora (usu to lungs)
intestinal flora

193
Q

who is at high risk for SSIs?

A

immunosuppressed, malnourished, older traumatic injury, bowel sx, accumulation of fluid in the wound, diabetes, colitis, alcoholism

194
Q

what are the signs of SSIs?

A

local redness, swelling, and increase in pain
systemic fever and leukocytosis

195
Q

wound descence

A

surgical incision reopens either internally or externally

it tends to happen most often within 2 weeks of surgery and following abdominal or cardiothoracic procedures

notify surgeon

196
Q

wound evisceration

A

surgical incision opens (dehiscence) and the abdominal organs then protruded or come out of the incision (evisceration)

cover the wound with a saline soaked gauze and notify surgeon

197
Q

what is discharge like from PACU?

A

patient awake (or neurologically at baseline)
vital signs at baseline or stable
no excess bleeding or drainage (>50 mL/15 minutes)
no respiratory depression
oxygen saturation >92%
pain managed
nausea and vomiting controlled
patient safe to discharge
SBAR report give to nurse or instructions given to patient if discharged

when back on hospital unit, encourage c, db, is, ambulate, medicate before getting OOB for the first time, check bowel sounds before eating or drinking

198
Q

what is the ambulatory surgery discharge criteria?

A

all PACU discharge criteria met
no IV opioids in past 30 minutes
able to tolerate fluids
voided
able to ambulate, if not contraindicated
responsible adult present to drive patient home
written discharge instructions given and understood

199
Q

what is the ambulatory surgery discharge teaching?

A

provided patient and caregiver
specific to type of surgery and anesthesia used
care of incision(s) and dressings
actions and side effects of any medications
activities allowed and prohibited
dietary restrictions and modifications
symptoms that should be reported
where and when to return for follow-up care
reasons to seek after discharge
answers to questions

200
Q

what are the common reasons to seek help after discharge in postop?

A

unrelieved pain
questions about medications
wound damage and/or bleeding
increased drainage from a drainage device
fever >100F

201
Q

what are some gerontologic considerations in the postop patient?

A

decreased respiratory function
altered vascular function
drug toxicity… slows elimination of drugs
mental status changes… anesthesia concerns
pain control

202
Q

sprain

A

an injury to the ligaments surrounding a joint

203
Q

strain

A

an excessive stretching of a muscle and its fascial sheath, often involving the tendon

204
Q

dislocation

A

the complete displacement or separation of the articular surfaces of the joint

205
Q

subluxation

A

a partial or incomplete displacement of the joint surface

206
Q

repetitive strain injury (RSI)

A

injuries resulting from prolonged force or repetitive movements and awkward postures

207
Q

carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)

A

caused by compression of the median nerve, which enters the hand at the wrist through the narrow carpel tunnel

208
Q

phantom limb sensation

A

amputated limb may feel like it is still present after surgery

209
Q

synovectomy

A

removal of synovial membrane

210
Q

osteomy

A

removing a wedge or slice of a bone to restore alignment (joint and vertebral) and to shift weight bearing, thus relieving pain

211
Q

debridement

A

the removal of debris, such as pieces of bone or cartilage (loose bodies) or osteophytes, from a joint using a fiberoptic arthroscope

212
Q

arthroplasty

A

the reconstruction or replacement of a joint to relieve pain, improve or maintain ROM, and correct deformity

213
Q

osteomyelitis

A

a severe infection of the bone, bone marrow, and surrounding soft tissue

214
Q

osteochondroma

A

the most common primary benign bone tumor

215
Q

sarcoma

A

a malignant tumor that develops in bone, muscle, fat, nerve, or cartilage

216
Q

osteosarcoma

A

an extremely aggressive primary bone cancer that rapidly spreads to distant sites

217
Q

what is the structure of musculoskeletal system?

A

voluntary muscle
connective tissue

218
Q

what are the different types of connective tissue in the musculoskeletal system?

A

bone
cartilage
ligaments
tendons
fascia
bursae

219
Q

what are the purposes of the musculoskeletal system?

A

protect body organs
provide support and stability
store minerals
allow coordinated movement

220
Q

what is the microscopic structure of the musculoskeletal system?

A

cortical bone
cancellous bone

221
Q

what are the components of cortical bone?

A

compact and dense
osteons
lamellae
canaliculi

222
Q

what are the component of the cancellous bone?

A

spongy
red or yellow bone marrow

223
Q

what are the three types of cells found in bones?

A

osteoblasts
osteocytes
osteoclasts

224
Q

osteoblasts

A

bone-forming cells

225
Q

osteocytes

A

mature bone cells

226
Q

osteoclasts

A

breakdown bone tissue

227
Q

what is the bone remodeling process?

A

removal of old bone by osteoclasts
deposit of new bone by osteoblasts

228
Q

what is the anatomy of a long bone?

A

epiphysis
diaphysis
metaphysis
epiphyseal plate
periosteum

229
Q

what are the different bone types?

A

long
short
flat
irregular

230
Q

what is the joint?

A

ends of 2 bones are close in proximity and move in relation to each other

231
Q

what is the capsule

A

encloses joint in fibrous connective tissue (synovial membrane and fluid)

232
Q

what is diarthrodial?

A

most common

233
Q

what are the different types of cartilage?

A

hyaline
elastic
fibrous

234
Q

what are the functions of cartilage?

A

support
articulation
protection
growth

235
Q

what are the layers of muscle?

A

epimysium
perimysium
endomysium

236
Q

what is the neuromuscular junction?

A

motor endplate

myoneural or neuromuscular junction

presynaptic neurons release acetylcholine

sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium which triggers contraction of myofibrils

tetany can occur in low calcium

237
Q

what is the energy source of muscles?

238
Q

tendons

A

attach muscles to bones

239
Q

ligaments

A

attach bones to bones

240
Q

fascia

A

layers of connective tissue that provide strength to muscles

241
Q

bursae

A

small sacs of connective tissue found at bony prominences or joints to relieve pressure and decrease friction

242
Q

bursitis

A

inflammation of bursa sac

243
Q

what are the gerontologic considerations effects of aging on MS system?

A

functional problems
decreased bone density
decreased muscle mass and strength
decreased flexibility
increased risk for osteoarthritis
risk for falls

244
Q

what is the subjective data of the musculoskeletal assessment?

A

past health history
medications
surgery or other treatments
functional health patterns

245
Q

what is the objective data of the musculoskeletal assessment?

A

physical examination
motion
use of assistive devices
posture and gait
straight-leg raises

246
Q

what is the normal physical assessment of the musculoskeletal system?

A

normal spinal curvatures
no muscle atrophy or asymmetry
no joint swelling, deformity, or crepitation
no tenderness on palpation of spine, joints, or muscles
full ROM of all joints without pain or laxity
muscle strength of 5/5

247
Q

serologic studies of musculoskeletal system

A

aldolase
alkaline phosphatase
anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP)
anti-DNA antibody
antinuclear antibody (ANA)
calcium
C-reactive protein
creatine kinase
human leukocyte antigen
potassium
phosphorus
rheumatoid factor

248
Q

diagnostic studies of musculoskeletal system

A

standard x-ray
bone scan
computed tomography (CT) scan
diskogram
dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)
electromyogram (EMG)
MRI
myelogram with or without CT
somatosensory evoked potential (SSEP)
thermography
quantitative ultrasound (QUS)

249
Q

interventional studies

A

arthrocentesis
arthroscopy

250
Q

pathophysiology of osteomyelitis

A

most common microorganism is s. aureus

251
Q

what is the process of osteomyelitis

A

healthy intact bone is resistant to infection

the bone becomes susceptible to disease with the introduction of a large inoculum of bacteria, from trauma, ischemia, or the presence of foreign bodies because bone sites to which microorganisms can bind are exposed

252
Q

what are the risk factors of osteomyelitis?

A

older age
debilitation
hemodialysis
sickle cell disease
IV drug use

253
Q

where are the direct entry sites for osteomyelitis?

A

open wound
foreign body presence
diabetic or vascular ulcers or pressure injuries
generally multiple organisms

254
Q

what is the process of osteomyelitis?

A

microorganisms enter blood
increase pressure in bone
infection spreads
dead bone leaves
new bone is formed

255
Q

sequestrum

A

WBCs and antibiotics can’t reach through the blood

becomes a reservoir for microorganisms that can spread to other sits

if not resolved or surgically debrided, a nus tract may develop with chronic, purulent cutaneous drainage

256
Q

acute osteomyelitis

A

initial infection or infection <1 month in duration

257
Q

what are the local manifestations of acute myelitis?

A

constant pain that worsens with activity
unrelieved by rest

swelling
warmth
restricted movement

258
Q

what are the systemic manifestations of acute osteomyelitis?

A

fever
night sweats
chills
restlessness
nausea
malaise
drainage (late)

259
Q

chronic osteomyelitis

A

infection lasting longer than 1 month or has failed to respond to initial antibiotic treatment

continuous and persistent or process of exacerbations and remissions

systemic manifestations reduced

260
Q

what are the local signs of infection with chronic osteomyelitis?

A

pain
swelling
warmth

granulation tissue turns to avascular scar tissue which is an ideal site for microorganism growth because it cannot be penetrated by antibiotics

261
Q

what are the complications of chronic osteomyelitis?

A

septicemia
septic arthritis
pathologic fractures

262
Q

what are the priority problems with osteomyelitis?

A

acute pain
impaired mobility
lack of knowledge

263
Q

what are the overall goals of osteomyelitis?

A

have satisfactory pain and fever management
no complications associated osteomyelitis
adhere to treatment plan
maintain a positive outlook on outcome of disease

264
Q

diagnostic studies of osteomyelitis

A

bone or soft tissue biopsy
blood/wound cultures
WBC count
erythrocyte sedimentation rate (coagulants)
c reactive protein
x-rays/MR/CT scans
bone scans
radionuclide WBC scan

265
Q

interprofessional care with acute osteomyelitis

A

aggressive, prolonged IV antibiotic therapy
cultures or bone biopsy before antibiotics
surgical debridement and drainage of abscess or ulcer
IV antibiotics via CVAD
IV antibiotics 4-6 weeks or longer
variety of antibiotics depending on microorganism and resistance

266
Q

interprofessional care with chronic osteomyelitis

A

surgical removal
extended use of (oral) antibiotics
acrylic bead chains containing antibiotics to assist with deep infections
intermittent or constant antibiotic irrigation of bone to assist with deep infections

267
Q

other osteomyelitis interprofessional care

A

casts/braces
negative-pressure wound therapy
hyperbaric oxygen therapy
removal of prosthetic devices
muscle flaps, skin grafts, bone grafts
amputation to improve quality of life

268
Q

what are some nursing implementations of acute care with osteomyelitis?

A

immobilization and careful handling of affected limb to decrease pain and risk of injury

assess and treat pain and muscle spasms

dressing care: use sterile technique

proper positioning/support of extremity

prevent complications of immobility

patient teaching adverse and toxic reactions to antibiotic therapy

monitor peak and trough levels

lengthy antibiotic therapy can cause an overgrowth of candida albicans and c. diff

patient and family are often anxious and discouraged

continued psychologic and emotional support

269
Q

what are some nursing implementations of health promotion with osteomyelitis?

A

control other current infections
persons at risk
patient/caregiver education
encourage to casl HCP for systemic or local signs of infection

270
Q

what are some nursing implementations of ambulatory care with osteomyelitis?

A

patient/caregiver teaching regarding IV antibiotic administration and management of CVAD at home and follow-up testing

complete entire antibiotic prescription

wound care/dressing changes

physical and psychologic support

271
Q

what will the patient do for the osteomyelitis evaluation?

A

have satisfactory pain management
adhere to recommended treatment plan
show a consistent increase in mobility and ROM

272
Q

first degree sprain

A

few fiber tears
mild tenderness and swelling

mild or slightly pulled

273
Q

second degree sprain

A

partial disruption of tissue
increased swelling and tenderness

moderately torn muscle

274
Q

third degree sprain

A

complete tear with moderate to severe swelling

severely torn or ruptured muscle

275
Q

strain and sprain manifestations

A

pain
edema
decreased function
bruising

276
Q

assessment of neurovascular sprains and strains

A

bruising
decreased sensation

277
Q

assessment of musculoskeletal sprains and strains

A

decreased movement

278
Q

assessment of peripheral vascular strains and sprains

A

decreased pulse
cool extremity
pallor
edema
capillary refill > 2 seconds

279
Q

sprains and strain complications

A

avulsion fracture
subluxation
dislocation
hemarthrosis

280
Q

how do you diagnose sprains and strains?

281
Q

how do you treat sprains and strains?

A

RICE
pain med
surgical repair

282
Q

how can nurses implement strains and sprains

A

teach health promotion
acute care
analgesia

283
Q

treatment of repetitive strain injury

A

identify precipitating activity
modify equipment or activity
pain management
rest
physical therapy
lifestyle changes

284
Q

manifestations of carpal tunnel syndrome

A

impaired sensation
pain
numbness
weakness
clumsiness
tinel’s sign
phalen’s sign

285
Q

late stages of carpal tunnel syndromes

A

atrophy
recurrent pain
dysfunction of hand

286
Q

priority problems of strains and sprains

A

impaired mobility
risk for infection
acute pain