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EMS 101 > Exam 2 Del Greco > Flashcards

Exam 2 Del Greco Flashcards

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1
Q 
Twelve pairs of ribs attach to which section of the spinal column?
A)  Sacral
B)  Lumbar
C)  Thoracic
D)  Coccyx
A

C) Thoracic

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2
Q 
The bones of the forearm are called the:
A)  radius and ulna.
B)  tibia and radius.
C)  humerus and ulna.
D)  radius and humerus.
A

A) radius and ulna

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3
Q 
The bones that constitute the fingers and toes are called:
A)  carpals.
B)  metacarpals.
C)  phalanges.
D)  metatarsals
A

C) phalanges

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4
Q 
Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the:
A)  tibia.
B)  patella.
C)  femur.
D)  calcaneus
A

B) patella

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5
Q 
Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called:
A)  osmosis.
B)  breathing.
C)  diffusion.
D)  ventilation.
A

C) diffusion

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6
Q 
Signs of adequate breathing in the adult include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) a reduction in tidal volume. 
B) respirations of 18 breaths/min.
C) bilaterally clear breath sounds.
D) rhythmic inhalation and exhalation.
A

A) a reduction in tidal volume

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7
Q 
The muscle tissue of the heart is called the:
A)  epicardium.
B)  myocardium.
C)  pericardium.
D)  endocardium.
A

B) myocardium

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8
Q 
The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the:
A) pulmonary veins. 
B) pulmonary arteries.
C) inferior venae cavae.
D) superior venae cavae.
A

A) pulmonary veins

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9
Q 
Worn-out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the:
A)  liver.
B)  spleen.
C)  kidney.
D)  pancreas.
A

B) spleen

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10
Q 
What is the function of platelets?
A) Initial formation of a blood clot 
B) Transport of oxygen and nutrients
C) Defense against invading organisms
D) Transport of cellular waste materials
A

A) Initial formation of a blood clot

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11
Q 
The largest portion of the brain is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which is commonly referred to as the “gray 
matter.”
A)  cerebrum
B)  cerebellum
C)  brain stem
D) diencephalon
A

A) cerebrum

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12
Q 
Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the:
A)  kidneys.
B)  pancreas.
C)  stomach.
D)  gallbladder
A

D) gallbladder

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13
Q

In an otherwise healthy adult, blood loss would cause:
A) vascular dilation and bradycardia.
B) vascular constriction and bradycardia.
C) vascular dilation and tachycardia.
D) vascular constriction and tachycardia.

A

D) vascular constriction and tachycardia

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14
Q 
A normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is between:
A) 60 and 120 mm Hg. 
B) 70 and 140 mm Hg. 
C) 80 and 120 mm Hg.
D) 90 and 140 mm Hg.
A

D) 90 and 140 mm Hg

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15
Q

Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant?
A) Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up
B) Knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance
C) Responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently
D) Walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions

A

A) Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up

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16
Q 
The areas of the infant's skull that have not yet fused together are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A)  ventricles
B)  cranial valleys
C)  sutures
D)  fontanelles
A

D) fontanelles

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17
Q

The respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in an infant is ________.
A) normal B) too fast C) too slow D) too shallow

A

A) Normal

18
Q 
Atherosclerosis is defined as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) constriction of the blood vessels 
B) the blockage of a coronary artery
C) the buildup of plaque inside blood vessels
D) dilation of the arteries
A

B) the blockage of a coronary artery

19
Q 
What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult?
A)  12–20 breaths/min
B)  15–30 breaths/min
C)  25–50 breaths/min
D)  40–60 breaths/min
A

A) 12–20 breaths/min

20
Q

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A) a loss of respiratory muscle mass.
B) increased stiffness of the thoracic cage.
C) decreased residual volume.
D) increased surface area available for air exchange.

A

D) increased surface area available for air exchange.

21
Q

When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid:
A) flexing your body at the knees.
B) the use of more than two EMTs.
C) using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.
D) the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher.

A

C) using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.

22
Q

You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious
in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner
notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of the following should be your MOST
appropriate action?
A) Perform a rapid assessment and then move the patients from their residence.
B) Request another ambulance to assist with lifting and moving the patients.
C) Quickly exit the residence and request the fire department to move the patients.
D) Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.

A

D) Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.

23
Q

An EMT may injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the:
A) back is bent forward at the hips.
B) hands are held close to the legs.
C) shoulder is aligned over the pelvis.
D) force is exerted straight down the spine.

A

A) back is bent forward at the hips

24
Q

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:
A) flex at the waist instead of the hips.
B) avoid the use of log rolls or body drags.
C) use a direct carry whenever possible.
D) keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

A

D) keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

25
Q 
The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is:
A) unnecessarily wasting time. 
B) injury to you or your patient
C) causing patient anxiety or fear.
D) confusion among team members.
A

B) injury to you or your patient

26
Q 
It is essential that you \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.
A)  throw out
B)  decontaminate
C)  incinerate
D)  properly store
A

B) decontaminate

27
Q

Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms?
A) A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness
B) A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears
C) A 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea
D) A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

A

D) A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

28
Q 
Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should:
A) remove all bystanders. 
B) request another ambulance. 
C) move the patient to safety.
D) ensure that you are safe.
A

D) ensure that you are safe.

29
Q 
A patient who does not respond to your questions, but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius 
muscle is pinched, is said to be:
A) conscious and alert. 
B) completely unresponsive. 
C) responsive to verbal stimuli.
D) responsive to painful stimuli
A

D) responsive to painful stimuli

30
Q

After performing a head tilt–chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient who
has a pulse, you should:
A) place him or her in the recovery position.
B) provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance.
C) assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity.
D) suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.

A

D) suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.

31
Q

When a patient’s respirations are shallow:
A) chest rise will be easily noticeable.
B) tidal volume is markedly reduced.
C) oxygenation occurs more efficiently.
D) carbon dioxide elimination is increased.

A

B) tidal volume is markedly reduced.

32
Q

Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse?
A) Avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure.
B) Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point.
C) Use your thumb to increase the surface area that you are palpating.
D) Apply firm pressure to the artery with your ring and little fingers.

A

B) Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point.

33
Q 
Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be:
A) pink, warm, and dry. 
B) pale, cool, and moist. 
C) pink, warm, and moist.
D) flushed, cool, and dry.
A

A) pink, warm, and dry.

34
Q

As time progresses following a significant injury:
A) the patient’s blood pressure elevates significantly.
B) the patient’s injuries will most likely be irreparable.
C) most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding.
D) the body’s ability to compensate for shock decreases.

A

D) the body’s ability to compensate for shock decreases.

35
Q

Which of the following patient responses would establish the “E” in the SAMPLE history?
A) “I was in the hospital a week ago.”
B) “I am not having any difficulty breathing.”
C) “The chest pain started about 45 minutes ago.”
D) “I was mowing the lawn when the pain began.”

A

D) “I was mowing the lawn when the pain began.”

36
Q 
Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be:
A)  radiating.
B)  referred.
C)  palliating.
D)  provoking
A

A) radiating

37
Q

The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to:
A) detect and treat all non–life-threatening injuries.
B) assess only the parts of the body that are injured.
C) definitively rule out significant internal injuries.
D) locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.

A

D) locate injuries not found in the primary assessment

38
Q 
The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the:
A)  blood pressure.
B)  systolic pressure.
C)  diastolic pressure.
D)  pulse pressure.
A

B) systolic pressure

39
Q 
When assessing motor function in a conscious patient's lower extremities, you should expect the 
patient to:
A) wiggle his or her toes on command.
B) feel you touching the extremity. 
C) note any changes in temperature.
D) identify different types of stimuli.
A

A) wiggle his or her toes on command.

40
Q 
Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is:
A) in a supine position.
B) in a prone position.
C) in a recumbent position.
D) sitting up at a 45° angle.
A

D) sitting up at a 45° angle.

EMS 101 (8 decks)

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