Exam 1 Del Grego Flashcards

1
Q

The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient’s privacy according to _____________.
A) DCAP B) APGAR C) HIPAA D) CQI

A

C) HIPAA

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2
Q

National guidelines for EMS care are intended to __________.
A) reduce expenses at the local and state levels
B) facilitate a national EMS labor group
C) unify EMS providers under a single medical director
D) provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States

A

D) provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States

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3
Q
Which of the following interventions is used by all levels of EMS providers?
A) Multilumen airways
B) Needle decompression 
C) Automatic transport ventilators
D) Automated external defibrillator
A

D) Automated external defibrillator

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4
Q

What should an EMT do to limit errors in the field?
A) Carry an EMT text for reference at all times.
B) Deviate from established standards when necessary.
C) Follow the agency’s written protocols.
D) Contact medical direction before initiating any treatments.

A

C) Follow the agency’s written protocols.

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5
Q

Online medical control requires __________.
A) written protocols approved by medical control
B) phone or radio contact with the medical director
C) the presence of an advanced-level provider
D) a physician’s presence on the scene of the call

A

B) phone or radio contact with the medical director

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6
Q

The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-
consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on:
A) EMS research.
B) local protocols.
C) the lead EMT’s decision.
D) regional trauma guidelines.

A

A) EMS research.

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7
Q
The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the:
A) state office of EMS
B) Regional trauma center
C) American Heart Association
D) National Registry of EMTs
A

A) state office of EMS

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8
Q
Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the:
A) individual EMT.
B) State Bureau of EMS
C) EMS training officer
D) EMS medical director
A

A) individual EMT.

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9
Q

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:
A) continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
B) demand that the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport.
C) ignore the patient’s feelings and focus on their medical complaint.
D) reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be.

A

A) continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.

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10
Q

If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to:
A) wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital.
B) immediately dry your hands with a paper towel.
C) wait at least 5 minutes before touching another patient.
D) avoid donning another pair of gloves for at least 10 minutes.

A

A) wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital.

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11
Q

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct?
A) HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B.
B) HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field.
C) HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood.
D) There is no vaccine against HIV infection.

A

D) There is no vaccine against HIV infection.

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12
Q

The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is:
A) punitive action and the loss of a job.
B) low morale and frequently missed shifts. C) tension among coworkers and supervisors.
D) substandard or inappropriate patient care.

A

D) substandard or inappropriate patient care.

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13
Q
Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects 
EMS personnel?
A) Controlling insurance costs 
B) Protecting patient privacy 
C) Preventing insurance fraud
D) Ensuring access to insurance
A

B) Protecting patient privacy

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14
Q

Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct?
A) A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.
B) Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment.
C) Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member.
D) All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport.

A

A) A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.

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15
Q

Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe
headache asks you to take her to the hospital?
A) Formal
B) Implied
C) Informed
D) Expressed

A

D) Expressed

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16
Q

When is forcible restraint permitted?
A) Anytime that the EMT feels threatened
B) Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member
C) When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others
D) Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior

A

C) When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others

17
Q

Putrefaction is defined as:
A) decomposition of the body’s tissues.
B) profound cyanosis to the trunk and face.
C) blood settling to the lowest point of the body.
D) separation of the torso from the rest of the body.

A

A) decomposition of the body’s tissues.

18
Q
The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the:
A)  medical director.
B)  state EMS office.
C)  EMS supervisor.
D)  local health district.
A

A) medical director.

19
Q

When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to:
A) consistently exceed the standard of care.
B) contact medical control on every EMS call.
C) function above his or her scope of practice.
D) exercise reasonable care and act prudently

A

D) exercise reasonable care and act prudently

20
Q

Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence?
A) Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation
B) Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation
C) Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation
D) Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation

A

C) Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation

21
Q

To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should:
A) always transport patients to the hospital of their choice.
B) provide competent care that meets current standards.
C) use universal precautions with every patient encounter.
D) utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient.

A

B) provide competent care that meets current standards.

22
Q
Which of the following types of questions allow for the most detailed response?
A) Yes or no questions
B) Closed-ended questions
C) Open-ended questions
D) Multiple questions asked at once
A

C) Open-ended questions

23
Q

During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when
his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should:
A) repeat your question because he probably did not hear you.
B) allow him time to think about the question and respond to it.
C) ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea.
D) tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions.

A

B) allow him time to think about the question and respond to it.

24
Q

Which of the following will help improve radio communications?
A) Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking.
B) Hold the radio at least 6 inches from your mouth.
C) Use codes to speed communication.
D) Answer questions with “yes” or “no.”

A

A) Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking.

25
Q
patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be:
A) an informed refusal.
B) authorized by a judge.
C) reported to the police.
D) witnessed by a notary.
A

A) an informed refusal

26
Q
Which of the following has the weakest transmission signal and, as a result, is LEAST likely to be 
heard by the party being called?
A) Multiplex base station 
B) Land-base repeater station
C) Mobile repeater station
D) Hand-held portable radio
A

D) Hand-held portable radio

27
Q

During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher’s responsibilities include
all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives.
B) selecting and notifying the correct EMS response units and personnel.
C) screening and assigning a priority to each call based on local protocols.
D) coordinating responding EMS units with other public safety personnel.

A

A) discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives.

28
Q

You and your partner are attempting to resuscitate a middle-aged female in cardiac arrest. Because of
the remote geographic location, you are unable to contact medical control. What should you do?
A) Perform CPR only and initiate immediate transport.
B) Make continuous attempts to contact medical control.
C) Ask the husband if he wants to continue resuscitation.
D) Follow locally established protocols or standing orders.

A

D) Follow locally established protocols or standing orders

29
Q
The suffix “-pathy” means:
A)  enlargement.
B)  study of.
C)  specialist.
D)  disease.
A

D) disease

30
Q
Gastro" in the word “gastroenteritis” means:
A)  intestine.
B)  tongue.
C)  stomach.
D)  bowel.
A

C) stomach

31
Q
In relation to the chest, the back is:
A)  ventral.
B)  inferior.
C)  anterior.
D)  posterior.
A

D) posterior.

32
Q
A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being:
A)  medial.
B)  proximal.
C)  bilateral.
D)  unilateral.
A

C) bilateral.

33
Q

EMTs should have a strong working knowledge of medical terminology in order to:
A) perform and document more accurate patient assessments.
B) more clearly explain to patients the nature of their condition.
C) communicate effectively with other members of the health care team.
D) determine and document more accurate patient diagnoses.

A

C) communicate effectively with other members of the health care team.

34
Q
In relation to the wrist, the elbow is:
A)  distal.
B)  medial.
C)  lateral.
D)  proximal.
A

D) proximal

35
Q
Your patient has been involved in an MVA. The term MVA stands for:
A) motor vehicle accident.
B) motor vehicle crash.
C) multiple vascular accidents.
D) mitral valve accumulation.
A

A) motor vehicle accident