Exam 2 (Ch 5,6,8,9) Flashcards
1
Q
How many vertebrae are in the spine
A
33
2
Q
How many regions of the spine are there
A
5
3
Q
number of cervical vertebrae
A
7
4
Q
number of thoracic vertbrae
A
12
5
Q
number of lumbar vertebrae
A
5
6
Q
number of sacrum vertebrae
A
5 fused
7
Q
number of vertebrae in the coccyx
A
4 fused
8
Q
vertebral size ____ from cervical to lumbar
A
increase
9
Q
_____ joints limit the ROM in different regions of the spine
A
facet
10
Q
____ joints assist in load bearing, particularly when the spine is in hyperextension
A
facet
11
Q
facet joints sustain up to ____% of the compressive load of the spine
A
30
12
Q
joints on the anterior part of the spine
A
symphysis joints
13
Q
intervertebral discs are _____ structures
A
fibrocartilaginous
14
Q
Center region of intervertebral discs
A
nucleus pulposus ( colloidal gel with a high fluid content)
15
Q
exterior of intervertebral discs
A
annulus fibrosus ( thick fibrocartilaginous ring
16
Q
Curvature present from birth
A
Primary
17
Q
Primary curvatures concave ___
A
anteriorly
18
Q
Thoracic and Sacral curvatures are present
A
primarily
19
Q
Curvature the develops after learning to sit/stand
A
secondary
20
Q
secondary curvature concaves ____
A
posteriorly
21
Q
Cervical and Lumbar curves are ____
A
Secondary
22
Q
Exaggerated Lumbar Curve
A
Lordosis
23
Q
Exaggerate Thoracic Curve
A
Kyphosis
24
Q
Lateral Spinal Curvature
A
Scoliosis
25
Abnormal spinal curves associated with obesity and pregnancy
lordosis
26
congenital spinal curve abnormality
kyphosis
27
abnormal spinal curve from epiphyseal plate behavior
kyphosis
28
How many planes does the movement of the spine allow
3 planes and circumduction (like a ball and socket joint)
29
In normal standing position, body weight acts ____ on the spine
anteriorly
30
body weight acting vertically has components of both ___ and ____ force at most motion segments
compression, shear
31
lumbar hyperextension can create a bending load in the ____ direction
posterior
32
the load on the ____ lumbar disc during standing is reduced in the supine position only
3rd
33
lumbar hyperextension produces ____ loads at the ____ joints
compressive/facet
34
spinal rotation generates ____ stress in the ______ _____
shear/ intervertebral discs
35
What type of joint is the hip?
ball and socket
36
weakest component of the hip joint
femoral head
37
what makes the hip joint more stable
deeper socket and strong ligament
38
the hip is strengthened by ligaments arranged by _____ the joint
crossing the joint
39
What makes up the pelvic girdle?
two ilia and the sacrum
40
what ways can the pelvic girdle be rotated
forward, back ward, and laterally
41
What is the femoral movement of a posterior pelvic tilt
flexion
42
what is the femoral movement of a anterior pelvic tilt
extension
43
what is the femoral movement of a lateral pelvic tilt
abduction
44
The gluteus maximus, bicep femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus make up what muscle group
extensor muscles
45
iliacus and psoas major make up what muscle group
flexor muscles
46
the major abductor muscle at the hip is
gluteus medius, assisted by gluteus minimus
47
the major adductor muscles at the hip are
adductor magnus, adductor longus, and adductor brevis
48
the major medial rotator muscle of the femur is
gluteus minimus, assisted by the tensor fascia latae, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, and gluteus medius
49
the ____ is never fully unloaded during daily activities
hip
50
as gait speed increases, the load on the hip___
increases
51
the risk of death for elderly increase by 5-8x during the first ____ months following the fracture
3 months
52
___% of femoral neck factures can be attributed to osteoporosis
50
53
The knee has how many joints
2
54
what are the 2 knee joints
tibiofemoral and patellofemoral
55
What is the largest hinge joint
tibiofemoral
56
what joint is behind the close packed position of full knee extension
tibiofemoral
57
cartilaginous disc located between the tibial and femoral condyles
menisci
58
what knee structure helps to absorb shock and distribute load over a large surface
menisci
59
force/contact area=
stress
60
What major ligaments cross the knee
collateral and cruciate
61
where does the collateral ligaments cross the knee
medially and laterally
62
where does the cruciate ligaments cross each other
cross each other in connecting anterior and posterior aspects of the knee
63
thickened band of the tensor fascia lata crossing the lateral portion of the knee
iliotibial band (IT)
64
articular capsule of the knee encompasses what joints?
tibiofemoral and patellofemoral
65
what is the largest bursa in the body
suprapatellar
66
where is the suprapatellar bursa positioned
between the femur and teh quad femoris tendon
67
what is the purpose of burse
prevents friction
68
how many bursae are of the knee
4, one in the articular capsule and 3 out
69
where does the patellofemoral joint lie
between the patella and femur
70
the patella improves the mechanical advantage of the knee extensors by as much as ____%
50 %
71
What are the movements of the knee
flexion/extension, internal/external rotation, and adduction/abduction
72
what "unlocks" the fully extended knee
popliteus
73
what muscles contribute to flexion at the knee
hamstrings, assisted by gracili, sartorius, popliteus, gastrocnemius
74
what muscles contribute to knee extension
rectus femoris, vastuc lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius
75
compression is greatest in the tibiofemoral joint with an _____ knee
extended
76
compression force of the patellofemoral joint ____ during flexion
increases
77
4 knee ligaments
ACL,PCL, MCL, LCL
78
ACL
Anterior Cruciate Ligament
79
PCL
Posterior Cruciate Ligamnet
80
MCL
Medial Collateral Ligament
81
LCL
Lateral Collateral Ligament
82
Closed Packed Position
Full extension of the knee (standing, locked knees) , bone congruence
83
Loose Packed Position
25 degree knee flexion, minimal bony congruence, knee up and bent
84
relationship of the distal segment RELATIVE to the midline of the proximal segment
adduction/abduction
85
Contralateral pelvic drop
adduction
86
contralateral pelvic elevation
abduction
87
inward deviation in alignment from the PROXIMAL to the DISTAL end of the body segment
Varus
88
outward deviation in alignment from the PROXIMAL to the DISTAL end of a body segment
Valgus
89
describe alignment
varus/valgus
90
describe a motion or position
ad/abduction
91
bow legged knee alignment
varus
92
knock kneed alignment
valgus
93
the femur is slightly ___ in normal knee alignment
varus (about 2-3 degree)
94
women have a ___ knee alignment than men
wider
95
Ankle joint
tibiotalar joint
96
hinge joint where the talus articulates with the surface of the distal tibia
tibiotalar joint
97
a syndesmosis where dense, fibrous tissue binds the distal tibia and fibula together
distal tibiofibular joint
98
what are the plantar arches
medial and longitudinal arches from heal to toe, and the transverse arch across
99
thick bands of ligament the cover the bottom portion of the foot
plantar fascia
100
thick bands of ligaments
fascia
101
dorsiflexion
toe up
102
plantar flexion
toe down
103
inversion
foot in
104
eversion
foot out
105
pronation/supination of the foot occur in what planes
all 3, frontal, sagittal, and horizontal
106
How many muscles are in the body
434
107
how many muscle pairs are responsible for body movement
75
108
ability to be stretched or to increase in length
extensibility
109
ability to return to normal resting length following a stretch
elasticity
110
passive elasticity derived from muscle membranes
parallel elastic component
111
elasticity component that supplies resistance when a muscle is passively stretched
parallel elastic component
112
passive elasticity derived from tendons when a tensed muscle is stretched
series elastic component
113
elasticity component that acts like a spring to store and release elastic energy
Series elastic component
114
muscle is actively stretched during ___ contraction
eccentric
115
eccentric contraction followed immediately by concentric contraction
stretch-shortening cycle
116
ability to respond to a stimulus
irritability
117
the contractile component of muscle function
ability to develop tension
118
the 4 behavioral properties of the musculotendinous unit
extensibility, elasticity, irritability, and the ability to develop tension
119
single muscle cell surrounded by the sarcolemma and containing sarcoplasm
muscle fiber
120
outer membrane of the muscle fiber
sarcolemma
121
inner cytoplasm of a muscle fiber
sarcoplasm
122
_____ muscle fibers grow in both length and diameter from birth through adulthood
skeletal
123
resistance training can increase fiber ___
diameter
124
basic structural unit of the muscle fiber
sarcomere
125
____ bands of a sarcomere contain thick rough myosin filaments, surrounded by __ smooth actin filaments
A, 6
126
A bands are made of thick rough ____ filaments and are surrounded by thin ___ filaments
myosin, actin
127
___ bands contain only thin actin filaments
I bands
128
I bands are made from thin __ filaments only
actin
129
single motor neuron and all the fibers it innervates
motor unit
130
the functional unity of the neuromuscular system
motor unit
131
___ twitch fibers reach peak tension and relax more quickly than __ twitch fibers
Fast, slow
132
fiber arrangement where the fibers are parallel to the longitudinal axis of the muscle
parallel fiber arrangement
133
fiber arrangement where short fibers attach to one or more tendons within the muscle
pennate fiber attachment
134
the angle of pennation ____ as tension progressively increases in the muscle fibers
increases
135
___ fibers are recruited first
slow twitch
136
increasing speed, force, or duration of movements involves increasing motor units with _____ activation thresholds
higher
137
___ fibers are easier to activate than ___ fibers
ST, FT
138
shortening muscle contraction
concentric
139
lengthening muscle contraction
eccentric
140
no change in muscle contraction
isometric
141
muscle acting to cause a movement
agonist
142
muscle acting to slow or stop a movement
antagonist
143
muscle acting to stabilize a body part against some other force
stabilizer
144
muscle acting to eliminate an unwanted action produced by an agonist
neutralizer
145
failure to produce force when slack describes
active insufficiency
146
restriction of joint range of motion when fully stretched describes
passive insufficiency
147
decreased ability to form a fist with the wrist in flexion
active insufficiency
148
Max velocity= ___ force
zero
149
Max force= ___ velocity
zero
150
low resistance= ___ contraction velocity
high
151
as the load ____, concentric contraction velocity slows to ___ at isometric maximum
increase, zero
152
active tension is provided by the ___
muscle fibers
153
passive tension is provided by the _____ and ____
tendons and membranes
154
tension present = _____ + _____
active tension , passive tension
155
time between arrival of a neural stimulus and tension development by the muscles
electromechanical delay
156
the amount of torque a muscle group can generate at a joint is the measure
muscular strength
157
tension generating capability of the muscle tissue is affected by
training state of the muscle, and the muscle cross-sectional area
158
muscular strength is affected by
mechanical advantage, angle of muscle to bone attachment, and the distance between muscle attachment to bone and joint center
159
muscle force x muscle moment arm =
torque produced by a muscle at the joint center
160
the product of muscular force and the velocity of muscle shortening
muscular power
161
the rate of torque production at a joint
muscular power
162
the product of net torque and angular velocity at a joint
muscular power
163
the ability of muscle to exert tension over a period of time
muscular endurance
164
the opposite of muscle fatigue
muscular endurance
165
the speed of nerve and muscle function increase after
warm up
166
a warmup causes a shift to the __ in the force velocity curve
right
167
overstretching muscle tissue
Strain
168
muscle bruises caused by compressive force
contusion
169
electrolyte imbalance and neuromuscular fatigue can cause
cramps
170
DOMS
delayed onset muscle soreness
171
24-48 hours port workout muscle soreness
DOMS
172
hemmorrhage or edema within a muscle compart
compartment syndrome
173
sensory receptors the inhibit tension in muscle and initiate tension development in antagonists
golgi tendon organs
174
sensory receptors that provoke reflex contraction in stretched muscle and inhibit tension in antagonists
muscle spindles
175
where are GTO located
within tendons near muscle tendon junction in series with muscle fibers
176
what is the stimulus of GTO
increase in muscle tension
177
what is the response of the GTO
1. inhibit tension development in stretched muscle 2. initiate tension development in antagonist muscle
178
what promotes relaxation in muscle developing tension
GTO
179
where are muscles spindles located
interspersed among muscle fibers in parallel with the fibers
180
what stimulates muscle spindles
increase in muscle length
181
what is the response of muscle spindles
1. initiate rapid contraction of stretched muscles 2. inhibit tension development in antagonist muscles
182
what inhibits stretch in muscle being stretched
muscle spindles
183
muscle contraction in response to stretching within the muscle
myotatic stretch reflex
184
what is the purpose of the myotatic stretch reflex
maintains the muscle at a constant length
185
relaxation of muscle on one side of the joint to accommodate the muscle contraction on the other side of the joint
reciprocal inhibition
186
stretch produced by active development of contraction in antagonist muscles
active stretching
187
stretching produced by a force rather than stretching in the antagonist muscles (uses gravity or a partner, goes beyond standard ROM)
passive stretching (passive=partner)
188
a series of quick bouncing type stretches
ballistic stretching
189
stretch maintaining a slow, sustained stretch over time (usually about 30 seconds)
static stretching
190
stretch containing a series of active movements, controlled, not bouncing
dynamic stretching
191
group of stretching procedures involving alternating contraction and relaxation of the muscles being stretched
PNF- Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation
192
Stretch technique with the highest injury risk
ballistic
193
abnormal displacement or twistin that result in stretching or tearing ligaments, tendons, connective tissue
sprains
194
displacement of the articulating bones
dislocations
195
overuse injury causing frictional irritation or inflammation of the bursae
bursitis
196
joint inflammation common with aging
arthritis
197
most debilitating and painful form of arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
198
autoimmune disorder that attacks healthy tissue
RA- rheumatoid arthirtis
199
common degenerative disease of joint structures
osteoarthritis
200
progressive degradation of biomechanical properties of articular cartilage
Osteoarthritis
201
70% of ___ years old have some form of OA
65+
202
immovable joint
synarthroses
203
skull suture, tibiofibular joint (sundesmoses)
synarthroses
204
slightly moveable joints
amphiarthroses
205
sternocostals and vertebral joints
amphiarthroses
206
synchondroses and symphyses
anphiarthroses
207
diarthroses
synovial
208
freely movable
synovial
209
articular cartilage, articular capsule, synovial fluid, and associated bursae make up what kind of joints
synovial
210
functions of articular cartilage
spreads loads over a wide area, allows movement that reduces friction and mechanical wear at the joint
211
articular cartilage reduces contact stress by ___% or more
50
212
cartilage increase in volume as children grow in
height (not weight)
213
limited ability for articular cartilage to heal as it is ___-
avascular
214
soft- tissue discs of menisci that intervene between articulating bones
articular fibrocartilage
215
what limits the translation/slip between articulating bones
articular fibrocartilage
216
what lubricates the joint and absorbs shock
articular fibrocartilage
217
what connects muscle to bone
tendons
218
what connects bone to bone
ligaments
219
stability is maximal when bones are in __ packed position
close
220
description of the ROM allowed at a joint in different directions
joint flexibility
221
the angle through which a joint moves from anatomical position to the extreme limit of segment motion in a particular direction
range of motion (ROM)
222
range of motion is measured directionally from ______ position
anatomical (zero)
223
what factors influence joint flexibility
1. intervening muscle tissue or fat at the end of the ROM 2. tightness/laxity in the muscle and collagen tissue crossing a joint 3 .muscle fatigue
224
severely limited or excessive joint flexibility ___ injury risk
increases
225
elbow is an example of what kind of jointq
hinge
226
joint type between the first metacarpal and the trapezium
saddle joint
227
joint type between the metacarpal and phalanx
condyloid joint
228
joint type between the carpals
gliding joint
229
joint type of the hip
ball and socket
230
joint type of the atlas and axis
pivot joint
231
the ability of the joint to resist abnormal displacement of the articulating bone
joint stability
232
during support phase of walking, compression force at the hip reaches a magnitude of ____ times body weight
3-4
233
as gait speed increase the load on the hip ___
increase
234
the weight supported at each hip when standing in an upright balanced position is ___ the weight of the body segments above the hip
1/2 (1/3 the total body weight)
235
women are 3.5x more likely to sustain a noncontact ___ injury than men
ACL
236
most common knee injury
meniscus
237
Patellofemoral Pain syndrome causes a wider _ Angle
Q
238
individuals with a flat arch has a ___load on forefoot
reduced
239
individuals that have a high arch have ___ loads on the forefoot
increased
