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Biomechanics > Exam 2 (Ch 5,6,8,9) > Flashcards

Exam 2 (Ch 5,6,8,9) Flashcards

1
Q

How many vertebrae are in the spine

A

33

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2
Q

How many regions of the spine are there

A

5

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3
Q

number of cervical vertebrae

A

7

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4
Q

number of thoracic vertbrae

A

12

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5
Q

number of lumbar vertebrae

A

5

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6
Q

number of sacrum vertebrae

A

5 fused

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7
Q

number of vertebrae in the coccyx

A

4 fused

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8
Q

vertebral size ____ from cervical to lumbar

A

increase

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9
Q

_____ joints limit the ROM in different regions of the spine

A

facet

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10
Q

____ joints assist in load bearing, particularly when the spine is in hyperextension

A

facet

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11
Q

facet joints sustain up to ____% of the compressive load of the spine

A

30

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12
Q

joints on the anterior part of the spine

A

symphysis joints

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13
Q

intervertebral discs are _____ structures

A

fibrocartilaginous

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14
Q

Center region of intervertebral discs

A

nucleus pulposus ( colloidal gel with a high fluid content)

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15
Q

exterior of intervertebral discs

A

annulus fibrosus ( thick fibrocartilaginous ring

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16
Q

Curvature present from birth

A

Primary

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17
Q

Primary curvatures concave ___

A

anteriorly

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18
Q

Thoracic and Sacral curvatures are present

A

primarily

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19
Q

Curvature the develops after learning to sit/stand

A

secondary

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20
Q

secondary curvature concaves ____

A

posteriorly

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21
Q

Cervical and Lumbar curves are ____

A

Secondary

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22
Q

Exaggerated Lumbar Curve

A

Lordosis

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23
Q

Exaggerate Thoracic Curve

A

Kyphosis

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24
Q

Lateral Spinal Curvature

A

Scoliosis

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25
Q

Abnormal spinal curves associated with obesity and pregnancy

A

lordosis

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26
Q

congenital spinal curve abnormality

A

kyphosis

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27
Q

abnormal spinal curve from epiphyseal plate behavior

A

kyphosis

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28
Q

How many planes does the movement of the spine allow

A

3 planes and circumduction (like a ball and socket joint)

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29
Q

In normal standing position, body weight acts ____ on the spine

A

anteriorly

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30
Q

body weight acting vertically has components of both ___ and ____ force at most motion segments

A

compression, shear

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31
Q

lumbar hyperextension can create a bending load in the ____ direction

A

posterior

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32
Q

the load on the ____ lumbar disc during standing is reduced in the supine position only

A

3rd

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33
Q

lumbar hyperextension produces ____ loads at the ____ joints

A

compressive/facet

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34
Q

spinal rotation generates ____ stress in the ______ _____

A

shear/ intervertebral discs

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35
Q

What type of joint is the hip?

A

ball and socket

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36
Q

weakest component of the hip joint

A

femoral head

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37
Q

what makes the hip joint more stable

A

deeper socket and strong ligament

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38
Q

the hip is strengthened by ligaments arranged by _____ the joint

A

crossing the joint

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39
Q

What makes up the pelvic girdle?

A

two ilia and the sacrum

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40
Q

what ways can the pelvic girdle be rotated

A

forward, back ward, and laterally

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41
Q

What is the femoral movement of a posterior pelvic tilt

A

flexion

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42
Q

what is the femoral movement of a anterior pelvic tilt

A

extension

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43
Q

what is the femoral movement of a lateral pelvic tilt

A

abduction

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44
Q

The gluteus maximus, bicep femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus make up what muscle group

A

extensor muscles

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45
Q

iliacus and psoas major make up what muscle group

A

flexor muscles

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46
Q

the major abductor muscle at the hip is

A

gluteus medius, assisted by gluteus minimus

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47
Q

the major adductor muscles at the hip are

A

adductor magnus, adductor longus, and adductor brevis

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48
Q

the major medial rotator muscle of the femur is

A

gluteus minimus, assisted by the tensor fascia latae, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, and gluteus medius

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49
Q

the ____ is never fully unloaded during daily activities

A

hip

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50
Q

as gait speed increases, the load on the hip___

A

increases

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51
Q

the risk of death for elderly increase by 5-8x during the first ____ months following the fracture

A

3 months

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52
Q

___% of femoral neck factures can be attributed to osteoporosis

A

50

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53
Q

The knee has how many joints

A

2

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54
Q

what are the 2 knee joints

A

tibiofemoral and patellofemoral

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55
Q

What is the largest hinge joint

A

tibiofemoral

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56
Q

what joint is behind the close packed position of full knee extension

A

tibiofemoral

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57
Q

cartilaginous disc located between the tibial and femoral condyles

A

menisci

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58
Q

what knee structure helps to absorb shock and distribute load over a large surface

A

menisci

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59
Q

force/contact area=

A

stress

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60
Q

What major ligaments cross the knee

A

collateral and cruciate

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61
Q

where does the collateral ligaments cross the knee

A

medially and laterally

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62
Q

where does the cruciate ligaments cross each other

A

cross each other in connecting anterior and posterior aspects of the knee

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63
Q

thickened band of the tensor fascia lata crossing the lateral portion of the knee

A

iliotibial band (IT)

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64
Q

articular capsule of the knee encompasses what joints?

A

tibiofemoral and patellofemoral

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65
Q

what is the largest bursa in the body

A

suprapatellar

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66
Q

where is the suprapatellar bursa positioned

A

between the femur and teh quad femoris tendon

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67
Q

what is the purpose of burse

A

prevents friction

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68
Q

how many bursae are of the knee

A

4, one in the articular capsule and 3 out

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69
Q

where does the patellofemoral joint lie

A

between the patella and femur

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70
Q

the patella improves the mechanical advantage of the knee extensors by as much as ____%

A

50 %

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71
Q

What are the movements of the knee

A

flexion/extension, internal/external rotation, and adduction/abduction

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72
Q

what “unlocks” the fully extended knee

A

popliteus

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73
Q

what muscles contribute to flexion at the knee

A

hamstrings, assisted by gracili, sartorius, popliteus, gastrocnemius

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74
Q

what muscles contribute to knee extension

A

rectus femoris, vastuc lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius

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75
Q

compression is greatest in the tibiofemoral joint with an _____ knee

A

extended

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76
Q

compression force of the patellofemoral joint ____ during flexion

A

increases

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77
Q

4 knee ligaments

A

ACL,PCL, MCL, LCL

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78
Q

ACL

A

Anterior Cruciate Ligament

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79
Q

PCL

A

Posterior Cruciate Ligamnet

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80
Q

MCL

A

Medial Collateral Ligament

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81
Q

LCL

A

Lateral Collateral Ligament

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82
Q

Closed Packed Position

A

Full extension of the knee (standing, locked knees) , bone congruence

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83
Q

Loose Packed Position

A

25 degree knee flexion, minimal bony congruence, knee up and bent

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84
Q

relationship of the distal segment RELATIVE to the midline of the proximal segment

A

adduction/abduction

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85
Q

Contralateral pelvic drop

A

adduction

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86
Q

contralateral pelvic elevation

A

abduction

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87
Q

inward deviation in alignment from the PROXIMAL to the DISTAL end of the body segment

A

Varus

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88
Q

outward deviation in alignment from the PROXIMAL to the DISTAL end of a body segment

A

Valgus

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89
Q

describe alignment

A

varus/valgus

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90
Q

describe a motion or position

A

ad/abduction

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91
Q

bow legged knee alignment

A

varus

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92
Q

knock kneed alignment

A

valgus

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93
Q

the femur is slightly ___ in normal knee alignment

A

varus (about 2-3 degree)

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94
Q

women have a ___ knee alignment than men

A

wider

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95
Q

Ankle joint

A

tibiotalar joint

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96
Q

hinge joint where the talus articulates with the surface of the distal tibia

A

tibiotalar joint

97
Q

a syndesmosis where dense, fibrous tissue binds the distal tibia and fibula together

A

distal tibiofibular joint

98
Q

what are the plantar arches

A

medial and longitudinal arches from heal to toe, and the transverse arch across

99
Q

thick bands of ligament the cover the bottom portion of the foot

A

plantar fascia

100
Q

thick bands of ligaments

A

fascia

101
Q

dorsiflexion

A

toe up

102
Q

plantar flexion

A

toe down

103
Q

inversion

A

foot in

104
Q

eversion

A

foot out

105
Q

pronation/supination of the foot occur in what planes

A

all 3, frontal, sagittal, and horizontal

106
Q

How many muscles are in the body

A

434

107
Q

how many muscle pairs are responsible for body movement

A

75

108
Q

ability to be stretched or to increase in length

A

extensibility

109
Q

ability to return to normal resting length following a stretch

A

elasticity

110
Q

passive elasticity derived from muscle membranes

A

parallel elastic component

111
Q

elasticity component that supplies resistance when a muscle is passively stretched

A

parallel elastic component

112
Q

passive elasticity derived from tendons when a tensed muscle is stretched

A

series elastic component

113
Q

elasticity component that acts like a spring to store and release elastic energy

A

Series elastic component

114
Q

muscle is actively stretched during ___ contraction

A

eccentric

115
Q

eccentric contraction followed immediately by concentric contraction

A

stretch-shortening cycle

116
Q

ability to respond to a stimulus

A

irritability

117
Q

the contractile component of muscle function

A

ability to develop tension

118
Q

the 4 behavioral properties of the musculotendinous unit

A

extensibility, elasticity, irritability, and the ability to develop tension

119
Q

single muscle cell surrounded by the sarcolemma and containing sarcoplasm

A

muscle fiber

120
Q

outer membrane of the muscle fiber

A

sarcolemma

121
Q

inner cytoplasm of a muscle fiber

A

sarcoplasm

122
Q

_____ muscle fibers grow in both length and diameter from birth through adulthood

A

skeletal

123
Q

resistance training can increase fiber ___

A

diameter

124
Q

basic structural unit of the muscle fiber

A

sarcomere

125
Q

____ bands of a sarcomere contain thick rough myosin filaments, surrounded by __ smooth actin filaments

A

A, 6

126
Q

A bands are made of thick rough ____ filaments and are surrounded by thin ___ filaments

A

myosin, actin

127
Q

___ bands contain only thin actin filaments

A

I bands

128
Q

I bands are made from thin __ filaments only

A

actin

129
Q

single motor neuron and all the fibers it innervates

A

motor unit

130
Q

the functional unity of the neuromuscular system

A

motor unit

131
Q

___ twitch fibers reach peak tension and relax more quickly than __ twitch fibers

A

Fast, slow

132
Q

fiber arrangement where the fibers are parallel to the longitudinal axis of the muscle

A

parallel fiber arrangement

133
Q

fiber arrangement where short fibers attach to one or more tendons within the muscle

A

pennate fiber attachment

134
Q

the angle of pennation ____ as tension progressively increases in the muscle fibers

A

increases

135
Q

___ fibers are recruited first

A

slow twitch

136
Q

increasing speed, force, or duration of movements involves increasing motor units with _____ activation thresholds

A

higher

137
Q

___ fibers are easier to activate than ___ fibers

A

ST, FT

138
Q

shortening muscle contraction

A

concentric

139
Q

lengthening muscle contraction

A

eccentric

140
Q

no change in muscle contraction

A

isometric

141
Q

muscle acting to cause a movement

A

agonist

142
Q

muscle acting to slow or stop a movement

A

antagonist

143
Q

muscle acting to stabilize a body part against some other force

A

stabilizer

144
Q

muscle acting to eliminate an unwanted action produced by an agonist

A

neutralizer

145
Q

failure to produce force when slack describes

A

active insufficiency

146
Q

restriction of joint range of motion when fully stretched describes

A

passive insufficiency

147
Q

decreased ability to form a fist with the wrist in flexion

A

active insufficiency

148
Q

Max velocity= ___ force

A

zero

149
Q

Max force= ___ velocity

A

zero

150
Q

low resistance= ___ contraction velocity

A

high

151
Q

as the load ____, concentric contraction velocity slows to ___ at isometric maximum

A

increase, zero

152
Q

active tension is provided by the ___

A

muscle fibers

153
Q

passive tension is provided by the _____ and ____

A

tendons and membranes

154
Q

tension present = _____ + _____

A

active tension , passive tension

155
Q

time between arrival of a neural stimulus and tension development by the muscles

A

electromechanical delay

156
Q

the amount of torque a muscle group can generate at a joint is the measure

A

muscular strength

157
Q

tension generating capability of the muscle tissue is affected by

A

training state of the muscle, and the muscle cross-sectional area

158
Q

muscular strength is affected by

A

mechanical advantage, angle of muscle to bone attachment, and the distance between muscle attachment to bone and joint center

159
Q

muscle force x muscle moment arm =

A

torque produced by a muscle at the joint center

160
Q

the product of muscular force and the velocity of muscle shortening

A

muscular power

161
Q

the rate of torque production at a joint

A

muscular power

162
Q

the product of net torque and angular velocity at a joint

A

muscular power

163
Q

the ability of muscle to exert tension over a period of time

A

muscular endurance

164
Q

the opposite of muscle fatigue

A

muscular endurance

165
Q

the speed of nerve and muscle function increase after

A

warm up

166
Q

a warmup causes a shift to the __ in the force velocity curve

A

right

167
Q

overstretching muscle tissue

A

Strain

168
Q

muscle bruises caused by compressive force

A

contusion

169
Q

electrolyte imbalance and neuromuscular fatigue can cause

A

cramps

170
Q

DOMS

A

delayed onset muscle soreness

171
Q

24-48 hours port workout muscle soreness

A

DOMS

172
Q

hemmorrhage or edema within a muscle compart

A

compartment syndrome

173
Q

sensory receptors the inhibit tension in muscle and initiate tension development in antagonists

A

golgi tendon organs

174
Q

sensory receptors that provoke reflex contraction in stretched muscle and inhibit tension in antagonists

A

muscle spindles

175
Q

where are GTO located

A

within tendons near muscle tendon junction in series with muscle fibers

176
Q

what is the stimulus of GTO

A

increase in muscle tension

177
Q

what is the response of the GTO

A
  1. inhibit tension development in stretched muscle 2. initiate tension development in antagonist muscle
178
Q

what promotes relaxation in muscle developing tension

A

GTO

179
Q

where are muscles spindles located

A

interspersed among muscle fibers in parallel with the fibers

180
Q

what stimulates muscle spindles

A

increase in muscle length

181
Q

what is the response of muscle spindles

A
  1. initiate rapid contraction of stretched muscles 2. inhibit tension development in antagonist muscles
182
Q

what inhibits stretch in muscle being stretched

A

muscle spindles

183
Q

muscle contraction in response to stretching within the muscle

A

myotatic stretch reflex

184
Q

what is the purpose of the myotatic stretch reflex

A

maintains the muscle at a constant length

185
Q

relaxation of muscle on one side of the joint to accommodate the muscle contraction on the other side of the joint

A

reciprocal inhibition

186
Q

stretch produced by active development of contraction in antagonist muscles

A

active stretching

187
Q

stretching produced by a force rather than stretching in the antagonist muscles (uses gravity or a partner, goes beyond standard ROM)

A

passive stretching (passive=partner)

188
Q

a series of quick bouncing type stretches

A

ballistic stretching

189
Q

stretch maintaining a slow, sustained stretch over time (usually about 30 seconds)

A

static stretching

190
Q

stretch containing a series of active movements, controlled, not bouncing

A

dynamic stretching

191
Q

group of stretching procedures involving alternating contraction and relaxation of the muscles being stretched

A

PNF- Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation

192
Q

Stretch technique with the highest injury risk

A

ballistic

193
Q

abnormal displacement or twistin that result in stretching or tearing ligaments, tendons, connective tissue

A

sprains

194
Q

displacement of the articulating bones

A

dislocations

195
Q

overuse injury causing frictional irritation or inflammation of the bursae

A

bursitis

196
Q

joint inflammation common with aging

A

arthritis

197
Q

most debilitating and painful form of arthritis

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

198
Q

autoimmune disorder that attacks healthy tissue

A

RA- rheumatoid arthirtis

199
Q

common degenerative disease of joint structures

A

osteoarthritis

200
Q

progressive degradation of biomechanical properties of articular cartilage

A

Osteoarthritis

201
Q

70% of ___ years old have some form of OA

A

65+

202
Q

immovable joint

A

synarthroses

203
Q

skull suture, tibiofibular joint (sundesmoses)

A

synarthroses

204
Q

slightly moveable joints

A

amphiarthroses

205
Q

sternocostals and vertebral joints

A

amphiarthroses

206
Q

synchondroses and symphyses

A

anphiarthroses

207
Q

diarthroses

A

synovial

208
Q

freely movable

A

synovial

209
Q

articular cartilage, articular capsule, synovial fluid, and associated bursae make up what kind of joints

A

synovial

210
Q

functions of articular cartilage

A

spreads loads over a wide area, allows movement that reduces friction and mechanical wear at the joint

211
Q

articular cartilage reduces contact stress by ___% or more

A

50

212
Q

cartilage increase in volume as children grow in

A

height (not weight)

213
Q

limited ability for articular cartilage to heal as it is ___-

A

avascular

214
Q

soft- tissue discs of menisci that intervene between articulating bones

A

articular fibrocartilage

215
Q

what limits the translation/slip between articulating bones

A

articular fibrocartilage

216
Q

what lubricates the joint and absorbs shock

A

articular fibrocartilage

217
Q

what connects muscle to bone

A

tendons

218
Q

what connects bone to bone

A

ligaments

219
Q

stability is maximal when bones are in __ packed position

A

close

220
Q

description of the ROM allowed at a joint in different directions

A

joint flexibility

221
Q

the angle through which a joint moves from anatomical position to the extreme limit of segment motion in a particular direction

A

range of motion (ROM)

222
Q

range of motion is measured directionally from ______ position

A

anatomical (zero)

223
Q

what factors influence joint flexibility

A
  1. intervening muscle tissue or fat at the end of the ROM 2. tightness/laxity in the muscle and collagen tissue crossing a joint 3 .muscle fatigue
224
Q

severely limited or excessive joint flexibility ___ injury risk

A

increases

225
Q

elbow is an example of what kind of jointq

A

hinge

226
Q

joint type between the first metacarpal and the trapezium

A

saddle joint

227
Q

joint type between the metacarpal and phalanx

A

condyloid joint

228
Q

joint type between the carpals

A

gliding joint

229
Q

joint type of the hip

A

ball and socket

230
Q

joint type of the atlas and axis

A

pivot joint

231
Q

the ability of the joint to resist abnormal displacement of the articulating bone

A

joint stability

232
Q

during support phase of walking, compression force at the hip reaches a magnitude of ____ times body weight

A

3-4

233
Q

as gait speed increase the load on the hip ___

A

increase

234
Q

the weight supported at each hip when standing in an upright balanced position is ___ the weight of the body segments above the hip

A

1/2 (1/3 the total body weight)

235
Q

women are 3.5x more likely to sustain a noncontact ___ injury than men

A

ACL

236
Q

most common knee injury

A

meniscus

237
Q

Patellofemoral Pain syndrome causes a wider _ Angle

A

Q

238
Q

individuals with a flat arch has a ___load on forefoot

A

reduced

239
Q

individuals that have a high arch have ___ loads on the forefoot

A

increased

Biomechanics (4 decks)

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