Exam 2 - Anti-anginal & other vasodilators Flashcards

1
Q

Nitroglycerin and Isosorbide dinitrate belong to what class of drugs?

A

Nitrates/Nitrites

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2
Q

What is the MOA for Nitrates/Nitrates?

A

Stimulates NO production which will produce cGMP and ultimately lead to vasodilation

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3
Q

What is the DOC for ACUTE anginal attacks?

A

Nitrates/Nitrites (Nitroglycerin, Isosorbide dinitrate)

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4
Q

What is the predominant mechanism of Nitrates/Nitrites that allow them to provide anginal relief?

A

They decrease myocardial O2 requirement

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5
Q

Why is the sublingual administration of Nitrates/Nitrites preferred?

A
  • Avoid hepatic destruction
  • Rapid absorption
  • Immediate anginal relief within 1-3 minutes
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6
Q

What are some adverse effects of Nitrates/Nitrites?

A

Pronounced vasodilation can lead to:

  • Throbbing HA
  • Orthostatic hypotension
  • Reflex tachycardia

Frequent exposure can lead to tolerance or marked reduction of most effects (not suitable for long-term treatment)

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7
Q

What are CCBs good for in regards to angina?

A

Good for CHRONIC angina treatment and not for immediate relief

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8
Q

Why is slow release nifedipine (a CCB) only indicated in HTN and not angina?

A

May provoke angina pectoris due to possible reflex tachycardia

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9
Q

B-blockers have CV effects at what 3 organs?

A
  • Heart: Decrease CO
  • Kidneys: Decrease renin
  • CNS: Decrease SNS tone
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10
Q

How to B-blockers provide anginal relief?

A

Decrease oxygen demand

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11
Q

Why are B-blockers not used for variant angina?

A

B-blockers are ineffective in producing coronary vasodilation/will not dilate spastic vessels

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12
Q

What are adverse effects of B-blockers?

A
  • Bronchoconstriction (do not use in asthmatics)
  • Increase plasma triglycerides
  • Decrease insulin and hypoglycemic response (do not use in diabetics)
  • CNS side-effects
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13
Q

What is the MOA for Ranolazine?

A
  • Partial fatty-acid oxidation inhibitor and decreases O2 consumption in ischemic tissue
  • Inhibits late inward sodium current, decreasing contractility
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14
Q

What are uses for Ranolazine?

A
  • Angina
  • Reduces left ventricular wall stiffness and increases coronary circulation

***Last choice drug and only used when other meds have not worked

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15
Q

What is the preferred treatment for variant or angiospastic angina?

A

Nitrates or CCBs

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16
Q

What is the most effective drug combination for treatment of angina pectoris?

A

B-blockers and a vasodilator (nitrate/CCB)

17
Q

What class of drug is Sildenafil (Viagra)?

A

PDE-5 Inhibitor

18
Q

What is the MOA for Sildenafil (Viagra)?

A

Inhibits PDE-5 from degrading cGMP into GMP, allowing accumulation of cGMP and vasodilation

19
Q

What is Sildenafil (Viagra) used for?

A
  • ED

- Pulmonary HTN

20
Q

When is the max concentration of Sildenafil (Viagra) reached?

A

Within 30-120 minutes

21
Q

What is Sildenafil (Viagra) metabolized by?

A

Primarily by CYP3A4

22
Q

What are some adverse effects of Sildenafil (Viagra)?

A
  • Headache, flushing, nasal congestion (due to vasodilation)

- Visual impairment (can also partially inhibit PDE6 in the retina)

23
Q

What are contraindications to using Sildenafil (Viagra)?

A
  • Inhibitors of CYP3A4 and 2C9 (will reduce its clearance, leading to build up and increased adverse effects)
  • Concurrent treatment with nitrates/nitrates (will have too much vasodilation)
  • Concurrent use with alpha blockers (symptomatic hypotension)
  • Use in pregnant or lactating women, infants, children
24
Q

It is contraindicated to use Sildenafil (Viagra) with inhibitors of CYP3A4 and 2C9 isoenzymes. What are some examples of these enzymes?

A
  • Ritonavir
  • “azoles”
  • Cimetidine (OTC antiacid and grapefruit juice)
  • Erythromycin
  • Quinidine
25
What makes Vardenafil (Levitra) and Tadalafil (Cialis) different from Sildenafil in regards to their MOA?
They are more selective for PDE5 than PDE6, causing less visual disturbances
26
Which PDE5 Inhibitor has the fastest onset of action?
Vardenafil
27
Which PDE5 Inhibitor has the longest duration of action?
Tadalafil Up to 24-36 hours, so can be taken the day before and allows for spontaneity