Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Oral Histology > Exam #2 > Flashcards

Exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three mechanisms of cranioskeletal growth in early development?

A
  1. Secondary growth cartilages: allows for growth prenatal/postnatal
  2. Sutural growth: Postnatal growth
  3. Displacement growth (transposition): Postnatal growth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Types of secondary growth cartilages:

A
  • Coronoid: Incorporated before birth
  • Angular: Disappears before birth
  • Malar: Disappears before birth
  • Symphyseal: present until 1 year
  • Condylar: Present until 20 years
  • Articular eminence: Present until 20 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Secondary growth cartilages are associated with:

A

Bones formed by intramembranous ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Growth cartilages develop after:

A

Intramembranous ossification has been initiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

secondary growth cartilages will undergo:

A

Endochondral ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are secondary growth carriages comprised of?

A

Fibrocartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Adult structures in the skull are classified as:

A 
Synarthroses joints
(Immovable joints)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Synostoses are:

A

Fused bone; term used to describe the adult remnant of an ossified structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the primary growth sites for membranous viscerocranium and neurocranium?

A

Sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are sutures?

A

Regions of CT between bony articulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What regulates suture closure?

A

Epithelial-Mesenchymal signaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Synchondroses?

A

Term used to describe suture composed of hyaline cartilage formed between bones that ossify by endochondral ossification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Syndesmoses?

A

Term used to describe a suture composed of fibrous connective tissue; Bones ossify by intramembranous ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 3 types of syndesmoses?

A
  1. Simple: Flat edge b/w bone
  2. Serrated: interdigitating edges b/w bone fronts
  3. Squamosal: overlap of bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the resting zone in synchondroses?

A

New cartilage cells in center of suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe what happens after the resting zone in synchondroses?

A

Cells move laterally passing through proliferation and into a maturate stage of hypertrophy.

Cartilage matrix surrounding chondrocytes in hypertrophy will calcification and cell dies.

The matrix of a synchondrosis will ossify by endochondral ossification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the histological features of Syndesmoses?

A
  • Band of fibrous connective tissues lie between osteoprogenitor cells of periosteum
  • CT of a syndesmosis will ossify by intramembranous ossification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the three sutural growth sites in the cranioskeleton?

A
  1. Cartilaginous Neurocranium
  2. Membranous neurocranium
  3. Membranous viscerocranium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where do sites of sutural growth occur?

A

Synchondroses or syndesmoses joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What direction does sutural growth occur?

A

Perpendicular to position of the suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Sutural closure depends on signaling b/w:

A

CT suture and ectoderm; brain; dura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The longer the cells remain in a proliferative state the longer the suture:

A

Remains open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Craniosynostosis?

A

Premature closure of the sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Premature sutural closure will lead to:

A

Compensatory growth of the other patent (open) sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 6 synchondroses joints in the cranial base?

A
  1. Spheno-ethmoidal (4 yrs)
  2. Sphene-Occipital (12-14 years)
  3. Spheno-petrosal (10-12)
  4. Petro-occipitla (10-12)
  5. Interoccipital (ant/post) 1-3 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the Frontal (metopic) suture

A
  • Frontal and Frontal

- Postnatal closure tiem is 2-4 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the Coronal suture:

A
  • Frontal nad Parietal

- Postnatal closure tiem is 40 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe the sagittal suture:

A

Parietal and Parietal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe the lambdoid suture:

A

Parietal and and occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the Calvaria?

A

The calvaria is the top part of the skull. It is the upper part of the neurocranium and covers the cranial cavity containing the brain. It forms the main component of the skull roof. The calvaria is made up of the superior portions of the frontal bone, occipital bone, and parietal bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Frontanelles are present in:

A

Calvaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Failure to express signaling molecules alters sutural closure and will cause what two outcomes?

A

Sutures may fail to fuse

Sutures may fuse prematurely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the Anterior fontanelle?

A

intersection b/w 2 frontal and 2 parietal

Adult structure: Bregma

Age postnatal closure: 9-18 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the Sphenoid fontanelle:

A

Intersection b/w sphenoid, temporal, frontal; parietal

Adult structure: Pterion

Age postnatal closure: 3-6 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the posterior fontanelle?

A

Intersection b/w 2 parietal and occipital

Adult structure: Lambda

Age postnatal closure: 3-6 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the Mastoid fontanelle:

A

Intersection b/w temporal, parietal, occipital

Adult structure: Astern

Age postnatal closure: 24 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the location of syndesmoses joints in facial skeleton?

A
  1. Frontomaxillary
  2. Frontozygomatic
  3. Zygomaticotemporal
  4. Zygomaticomaxillary
  5. Pterygopalatine
  6. Palatal
  7. Nasofrontal
  8. Internasal
  9. Intermaxillary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is displacement growth?

A

Movement of the whole bone either due to growth of the bone itself r growth of neighboring bone.

Growth of maxilla by displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is primary displacement?

A

As bone enlarges due bone deposition, the bone moves to a new location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is secondary displacement?

A

Enlargement of neighboring bones moves another bone to a new location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the outcome of primary and secondary displacement?

A

Downward and forward movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Describe the growth of the Mandible:

A

Secondary growth cartilages: Condylar growth up’ back and out; symphyseal allows for increased inter-condylar distance; angular carriages allows for increased length

Growth of alveolar process

Modeling/remodeling- deposition on posterior surface; resorption anterior

Displacement growth: growth of cranial base and condylar cartilage move mandible downward and forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Describe the growth of the maxilla:

A
  • Secondary growth cartilages: appositional
  • Sutural growth: apposition growth
  • Growth of maxillary sinus: Pneumatization
  • Modeling/remodeling
  • Displacement growth: Growth of maxilla and cranial base and growth of cartilaginous nasal capsule move the maxilla is downward and forward (inferior/anterior)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Viscerocranium (Facial skeleton) refers to:

A

Ectomesenchyme derived bones of jaw and neck. May be cartilaginous viscerocranium or membranous viscerocranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What structures are from the Cartilaginous Viscerocranium?

A
  • Incus
  • Inferior conchae
  • Malleus
  • Stapes, Styloid process, lesser horn and body of hyoid
  • Greater horn and body of hyoid

All are ectomesenchyme derived and will all undergo endochondral ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Meckel’s Carilage is the cartilage precursors for:

What arch?

A

Malleus

Mandibular process of 1st PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Richert’s cartilage is the cartilaginous precursor for:

Arch?

A

Stapes, Styloid process, lesser horn and body of hyoid

2nd PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The Palatopterygoquadrate is the cartilaginous precursor for:

Arch?

A

Incus

Maxillary process of 1st PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which structure from the Cartilaginous viscerocranium has no named precursor?

A

Incus: It is an outgrowth of the maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which structure from the cartilaginous viscerocranium is 3rd arch precursor from the 3rd PA

A

Greater horn and body of hyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What structures are considered Membraneous viscerocranium?

A
  • Premaxilla
  • Nasal bones
    (medial nasal precursors)
  • Maxilla
  • Lacrimal
  • Zygomatic bone (Zygoma)
  • Palatine bone
  • Squamous portion of temporal
    -Vomer bones
  • Body and ramps of mandible

All are Ectomesenchyme and go through intramembraneous ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What structures of the Membraneous viscerocranium are from the Maxillary 1st arch?

A 
Maxilla
Lacrimal
Zygomatic bone
Palatine bone
Squamous portion of temporal 
Vobmer bones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What structures of the membraneous viscerocranium are from the frontonasal process?

A

Premaxilla and Nasal bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What structures of the membraneous viscerocranium are from the mandibular process of the 1st arch

A

Body and ramps of mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The condyle, coronoid, mental symphysis, articular eminent, malar region all develop from:

A

Secondary growth cartilages that became incorporated into the bone and either degenerated or underwent endochondral ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the Neurocranium?

A
  • Includes cranial base and vault
  • Functions to protect the brain and sensory organs
  • Neurocranium derived from germ layers (GL): ectomesenchyme and paraxial mesoderm
  • GL boundary is coronal and sphenoid-occipital sutures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the structures of the membraneous neurocranium?

A

Frontal bones
Parietal bones
Occipital (interparietal portion (unpaired))

All of the above form through intramembraneous ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the germ layer of the Frontal bones?

A

Ectomesenchyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the germ layer of parietal bones?

A

Paraxial mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the germ layer of the occipital (interparietal portion)

A

paraxial mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the structures of the cartilaginous neurocranium?

A
  • Ethmoid bone/perpendicular plate
  • Sup/Middle conchae
  • Body and wing of sphenoid
  • Petrous portion of temporal bone
  • Mastoid portion of temporal
  • Base of occipital

Will all undergo endochondral ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Precondral cartilage and olfactory/nasal cartilaginous capsule will develop into:

A

Ethmoid/perpendicular plate sup. and middle conchae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Hypophyseal cartilage and pic capsule will develop into:

A

Body/wings of sphenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Parachordal cartilage and periodic capsule will develop into:

A

Petrous portion temporal mastoid of temporal bone and the base of the occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What cartilaginous precursors of the Cartilaginous neruocranium are Ectomesenchyme derived?

A

Prechordal
Hypophyseal
Olfactory/nasal
Optic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What cartilaginous precursors of the Cartilaginous neruocranium are paraxial derived?

A

Periotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What cartilaginous precursors of the Cartilaginous neruocranium are P. Mesoderm derived?

A

Parachordal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the paired midline cartilages?

A

Prechordal
hypophyseal
Parachordal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the paired sensory capsules?

A

Olfactory/nasal
Optic
Periotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Cartilage base develops by fusion of:

A

Sensory cartilage with midline cartilage; Will collectively undergo endochondral ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the 6 principal functions of oral mucosa?

A
  1. Protection against mechanical forces
  2. Physical barrier to microorganisms, toxins, antigens
  3. Provide immunological defense via humoral and cell mediated immune responses
  4. minor salivary glands prevent of desiccation and provided lubrication and buffering capacity
  5. Innervation provides sensory and stereognostic input about environment (GSA and SVA)
  6. Numerous sensory receptors: Nociceptors, Mechanoreceptors, chemoreceptors, thermoreceptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is a way to differentiate Nonkeratinized epithelium compared to others?

A

It has an intermedium layer (upper layer of spinous)

Histological appearance: Nuclei present/ cells frequently appear vaculated flattened cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is a way to differentiate the Parakeratinized epithelium compared to others?

A

It has a thin granulosum (1 layer)

Histological appearance: Pyknotic nuclei; flattened cells lighter color of superficial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is a way to differentiate the (Ortho)keratinized epithelium compared to others:

A

Granulosum is 2-3 layers and has a corner (keratinized) layer

Histological appearance: No nuclei/keratin filaments
Color change of corneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are progenitor keratinocytes?

A

Found in basal layer: Stem cell capable of renewal/mitosis. It binds to basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are maturing keratinocytes?

A

Found in all layers:

  • Synthesize protein in keratohyaline granules
  • synthesize intermediate filament (cytokeratin/ to no filaments) *** type may change in cancer
  • Synthesize growth factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the principal cell type associated with stratified squamous epithelium?

A

Keratoncytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are langerhans cells?

A

Found in spinous layer:

  • APC
  • Moves between the epithelium and local lymph nodes
  • contact hypersensitivity
79
Q

What are melanocytes?

A

Found in basal layer:

  • Number of melanocytes same between individuals
  • synthesize melanin as granules which are transferred to keratinocytes
  • Number, size of melanin granules; turnover of pigment influences pigmentation
  • Clinically: variable melanin pigment in palate; tongue, gingiva, buccal
80
Q

What are Merkel cells?

A

Found in basal layer

- Unencapsulated mechanoreceptors in epithelium: detects light/ fine touch; protects against excessive stretch

81
Q

What two factors are involved in controlling epithelial phenotype and turnover rate?

A
  1. Epithelial: Mesenchyme interactions: Underlying lamina propria (CT) determines the type of epithelium
  2. Turnover rate: Turnover rate varies based on extend of keratinization. Drugs and inflammation affect turnover
82
Q

What is Keratosis?

A

usually asymptomatic with the white color due to excess keratin production

83
Q

What is Necrosis?

A

Usually painful, associated with trauma or infection. The white color is due to accumulation of dead cells, bacteria/ fungus

84
Q

What may cause red lesions in the mouth?

A
  • Loss of epithelium
  • Loss of keratin associated with dysplasia
  • Increase in vascularization and inflammation (erythematosis)
  • Lesions may progress from to erosions of ulceration’s
85
Q

What are the characteristics of oral epithelium in the oral mucosa

A
  • Stratified squamous epithelium
  • Rete ridges: Epithelium projects into the underlying ct and aids in adhesion
  • Dermal papilla: CT interdigitating with rate ridges
86
Q

What are the characteristics of lamina propria in the oral mucosa

A

Underlying connective tissue finds BM to epithelium
- Contains: Ducts of salivary glands, sebaceous glands (possible), capillaries, lymphocytes, leukocytes

  • Papillary layer: superficial layer of CT ( increase in LCT)
  • Reticular layer: deeper layer of CT (increase in DICT)
87
Q

What are the characteristics of the submucosa in the oral mucosa?

A

May be LCT with higher amounts of adipose tissue, or more DICT, with less adipose
- Salivary glands, larger blood vessels are present

88
Q

What is lining mucosa?

A

Usually associated with SSNK epithelium
Shallow rete ridges
Submucosa is usually present
Soft pliable

Located: Labial surface of lip, buccal surface of cheek, alveolar mucosa, soft palate, floor of mouth, ventral tongue

89
Q

What is Masticatory mucosa?

A

Usually parakeratinized or SSK epithelium
Long rete ridges
Submucosa is variable: mucoperiosteum often present
Firm and immobile

Located: Hard palate, attached gingiva; found in regions for compression or shearing forces

90
Q

What is specialized mucosa?

A
  • Associated with SSK and lingual papilla containing taste buds
  • Also associated with the vermillion zone of lip (no taste buds)
  • Longe Rete ridges
  • Submucosa is not distinct, CT of mucosa binds to mucosa

Located: predominately anterior 2/3 dorsal surface of tongue- Vermillion zone of lip

91
Q

What is the Outer Cutaneous region of the lip?

A

It has similar characteristics to thin skin

  • Thin SSK epithelium
  • Hair follicles
  • Sweat glands
  • Sebaceous glands

Vermillion border is the mucocutaneoux junction: is a term used to refer to the transition from skin to mucous membrane

92
Q

What is the Vermillion Zone (red area)?

A

A transition zone is located in the area between the dry skin and wet mucosa membranes.

  • Thick SSK epithelium
  • Salivary and sebaceous glands are absent
  • Increased number of sensory receptors in CT: Meissner’s corpuscles are present
  • Highly vascularized CT- Cause region to appear red
93
Q

What is the Intermediate zone?

A

Transition between vermillion zone and labial mucosa

- Associated with transition of parakeratinized - nonkeratinized epithelium

94
Q

What is the Inner mucosal region: AKA labial surface?

A
  • Thick SSNK epithelium
  • Well vascularized
  • Minor seromucous (mixed) glands, adipose issue in LP/submucosa
95
Q

What are the histological features of the cheek: (Buccal surface)

A

Similar to inner mucosal surface of lip

  • thick SSNK epithelium
  • Well vascularized
  • minor seromucous (mixed) glands, adipose tissue in LP/submucosa
96
Q

What is Fordyce’s spot?

A

Aberrant sebaceous glands which lack hair follicles and open directly onto the epithelial surface may be found on the vermillion and labial mucosa, buccal mucosa or angle of the mouth

97
Q

The hard palate is:

A

The anterior 2/3 and comprised of bone

98
Q

The soft palate is:

A

Posterior 1/3 and comprised of fibro-muscular tissue attached to posterior edge of hard palate

99
Q

What type of epithelium covers the nasal side?

100
Q

What type of epithelium covers the Oral side?

A

Covered with oral ss epithelium (extend of keratinization depends on location)

101
Q

What are the general features of the hard palate (Oral side)?

A
  • Covered with masticatory mucosa
  • Thick SSK -> Parakeratinized epithelium
  • Long rete ridges
  • Submucosa varies based on region
102
Q

What are the Characteristics of the Midline region?

A
  • SSK epithelium
  • Deep rete ridges
  • Mucoperiosteum is visible
103
Q

What are characteristics of the Anterolateral region (Fatty zone)

A
  • Epithelium is folded into rug
  • epithelium SSK -> Parakeratinized
  • Deep rete ridges interdigitate with underlying CT papillae
  • CT contains blood vessels and nerves
  • Submucosa contains adipose and attached to bone
104
Q

What are characteristics of the Posterolateral region (Glandular zone)?

A 
Parakeratinized -> SSNK
Masticatory mucosa present
Submucosa contains mucous glnads
Bone present
Rete ridges become flattened
105
Q

What are the general characteristics of the soft palate (oral side)?

A
  • Covered with lining mucosa
  • Thick SSNK epithelium
  • Shallow rete ridges interdigitating with underlying CT tissue
  • Submucosa is loose
  • Mucosa gland present
  • Skeletal muscle present
  • Bone is absent
106
Q

What are the key features of the minor salivary glands?

A
  • Unencapsulated groups of secretory units
  • Intra-oral location (submucosa)
  • Short; multiple excretory ducts-few interlobular ducts
  • epithelium or skeletal muscle may be in field of veiw
107
Q

What are the key features of major salivary glands?

A
  • Encapsulated by CT- Divided into lobules
  • Extra-oral location (bilateral)
  • Numberous intra and interlobular ducts
  • long excretory ducts which open into oral cavity
108
Q

Salivary glands can be classified based on:

A

Size, Location, amount of saliva produced and type of secretion

109
Q

What type of secretion do salivary glands produce?

110
Q

Constitutive exocytosis occurs in:

A

Minor glands

111
Q

What is regulated exocytosis?

A

Controlled by ANS
- All major glands
ANS modulates flow in mino
- Both parasympathetic and sympathetic of ANS contribute; parasympathetic caused a greater volume response; sympathetic greater protein response than volume

112
Q

Salivary secretion depends on:

A

Reflex activity. Neuronal reflexes control secretions

113
Q

What is an unconditional reflex?

A

Tactile or gustatory (taste) input stimulates secretion; present at birth

114
Q

What is a Gustatory Salivary reflex?

A

stimulation of taste buds; sour highest

115
Q

What is a masticatory salivary reflex?

A

Stimulation of chewing from PDL and mucosa

116
Q

what is an olfactory salivary reflex?

A

Stimulates submandibular and sublingual

117
Q

what is a conditioned reflex?

A

acquired response due to stimulation through special senses; requires processing through her brain centers and may stimulate or inhibit salivation

118
Q

Name the germ layer, epithelium, location and type of secretion for the labial gland:

A

Germ layer: Ectoderm
Epithelium: SSNK
Location: Submucosa of lip (inner mucosal surface)
Secretion: Mixed

119
Q

Name the germ layer, epithelium, location and type of secretion for the Buccal gland:

A

Germ layer: Ectoderm
Epithelium: SSNK
Location: Submucosa of cheek
Secretion: mixed

120
Q

Name the germ layer, epithelium, location and type of secretion for the Palatine gland:

A

Germ layer: Ectoderm
Epithelium: SSPK; SSNK
Location: Submucosa of posterior-lateral of hard palate; Submucosa soft palate
Secretion: Pure mucous

121
Q

Name the germ layer, epithelium, location and type of secretion for the Lingual gland:

A

Germ layer: Endoderm; Ectoderm
Epithelium: SSK; SSNK
Location:
- 1. ANTERIOR: tip of tongue- duct opens ventral surface
- 2. MIDDLE: anterolateral to sulcus terminalis (circumvallate/foliate papilla)- Ectoderm
- 3. POSTERIOR: posterior 1/3 tongue with lingual tonsils - Endoderm
Secretion: 1. Mixed, 2. Pure serous (glands of von ebner) 3. Pure mucous

122
Q

Minor glands contribute to what percentage of total salivary secretion?

123
Q

What percentage of the saliva secreted from minor glands is mucous?

124
Q

How many groups of minor salivary glands are located in submucosa layer of oral mucosa/ associated structures?

125
Q

Name the germ layer, epithelium, location and type of secretion for the Parotid gland:

A 
Location: Anterior to ear
Size: Largest
Type of secretion: Pure serous
Amount secreted: 25-60 %
Germ layer: Ectoderm
126
Q

Name the germ layer, epithelium, location and type of secretion for the Submandibular Gland

A 
Location: Angle of the mandible 
Size: Intermediate
Type of secretion: mixed >60% serous
Amount secreted: 60-25%
Germ layer: Endoderm
127
Q

Name the germ layer, epithelium, location and type of secretion for the Sublingual gland:

A 
Location: Anterior floor of mouth
Size: Smallest
Type of secretion: Mixed > 70% mucous
Amount secreted: 5-8%
Germ layer: Endoderm
128
Q

Major glands produce what percentage of total saliva?

129
Q

During stimulation which gland produces more saliva? The Parotid or the submandibular?

130
Q

Which major glands secretory activity are mainly regulated by exocytosis with some constitutive?

A

Parotid and Submandibular

131
Q

The activity of the sublingual is regulated via:

A

constitutive exocytosis

132
Q

What are the two structural components of the salivary glands?

A
  1. Supprotive (stromal) tissue: Connective tissue
  2. Glandular (parenchymal) tissue:
    • myoepithelial cells
    • secretory acing cells (from acing units- clusters of secretory cells)
    • Dust cells
133
Q

Describe the Stromal support in salivary glands:

A

Connective tissue:

  • CT in major glands forms a capsule that divides tissue into lobes
  • CT supports the glandular epithelium
  • Conveys blod vessels and nerves
  • contains: lymphocytes, macrophages, fibroblasts, plasma cells
134
Q

What cell synthesizes and secretes IgA?

A

Plasma cells

135
Q

What is palatal adenoma:

A

Non-ulcerated swelling

136
Q

What is adenoma?

A

A benign glandular tumor developing form cells of epithelial original and may affect major or minor salivary glands. 80% occur within the parotid gland and 10-20% occurring in minor gland with palatal glands most prevalent

137
Q

What is Carcinoma?

A

Any malignant form of cancer affecting cells of epithelial origin

138
Q

What is Adenocarcinomas?

A

Refers to tumors that develop in silvery glands. These usually appear red and ulcerated over time

139
Q

What are the outcomes from radiation treatment?

A
  • Radiation caries: A rapidly developing and highly destructive form of tooth decay, is a well known dental consequence of radiotherapy of malignant tumors in the head and neck region
  • Radiation caries appears along the gingival margin and can weaken the tooth surface
  • Hypo-Salivation is induced due to scarring of gland/duct and loss of acing cells
140
Q

What are myoepithelial cells?

A

AKA Basket cells– (Part of Parenchymal tissue)
Have connective activity
Location: b/w acing cells and basement membrane
Function: Supportive; facilities secretory discharge of secretory acing cells
Under control of ANS

141
Q

What are secretory (Acing) cells:

A

Serous, Mucous, and mixed cells

142
Q

what cells synthesize glycoproteins and enzymes?

These cells have enzyme rich watery secretion which aids in digestion

A

Serous cells

143
Q

What cells synthesize mucin (mucopolysaccharides)? These cells have carbohydrate rich viscous secretion which aids in protection/bolus formation?

A

Mucous cells

144
Q

What is the function of salivary ducts?

A

Involved in transport and modification of saliva secreted from acing cells

145
Q

Where can a mean excretory duct be found and what is the related name? What does it do?

A

Open into the oral cavity;

  • Parotid = stenson’s duct
  • Submandibular = warton’s duct
  • sublingual = Bartholin’s duct

Note: Epithelium is stratified squamous to stratified columnar/cuboidal

146
Q

What are interlobular ducts?

A

Excretory ducts found in CT between the lobules

Epithelium is stratified cuboidal to pseudo-stratified columnar to simple columnar

147
Q

What are interlobular ducts?

A

Two types of ducts found in the lobule surround by acinar cells:

  1. Striated ducts: receives product from intercalated duct:
    • modifies ion concentration of saliva
    • epithelium is simple columnar to cuboidal
  2. Intercalated duct: Receives secretory products directly from the acing cells; limited modifications of saliva
    • epithelium: is low/flattened cuboidal
148
Q

What secretes lysozyme and lactoferrin?

A

Intercalated ducts

149
Q

What is the longest intercalated duct?

A

Longest is in parotid gland

150
Q

What is involved in a active transport; reabsorption and secretion of electrolytes but no water?

A

Striated ducts

151
Q

Where can the longest striated duct be found?

A

Submandibular

152
Q

What is a mucocele?

A

small soft lesions involving the retention of seromucous secretions in the subepithelial CT due to trauma to minor salivary glands

Cause: Damage to the ducts of the minor salivary glands may result in saliva becoming trapped in the surrounding CT

153
Q

What is a Ranula?

A

A mucocele involving the major salivary glands on the floor of the mouth

Cause: Tramua to a majro excretory duct leads to pooling of saliva within the submucosa CT layer of tissue- Most rankle involve the major excretory ducts of the sublingual or submandibular gland

154
Q

What are the biochemical components of saliva?

A
  • Water
  • Electrolytes
  • Mucopolysacharides (mucin)
  • Salivary proteins (Lacotferrin, cystain, Histatins, acidic proline- rich proteins)
  • Enzymes (amylase, lipase, lysosome)
  • Antibodies (secrete IgA)
  • Other components include: insulin serum albumin, epidermal growth factors
  • small organic molecules: Glucose, amino acids, urea, and cholesterol
155
Q

What are the cellular components of saliva?

A

Desquamated epithelial cells
Lymphocytes
Bacteria

156
Q

Whole saliva includes both:

A

biochemical and cellular components that are secreted from all glands

157
Q

What is Primary saliva?

A

Biochemical components secreted from acing cell/intercalated duct

158
Q

IN Unstimulated/resting flow:

A

There will be higher amounts of mucous; role of saliva is protection of tooth and mucosa via pellicle

159
Q

IN Stimulated flow:

A

There will be a higher amount of enzymes, fluids and electrolytes : Role of saliva is clearance; buffering; remineralization

160
Q

Which active components function is protection and are involved in the clearance of tooth surface, lubrication, and pellicle formation?

A

Water
Mucin
Salivary proteins

161
Q

Which active comments function in buffering capacity and are involved in pH maintenance and neutralization of acids?

A

PO43-, HCO3-

162
Q

What active components are involved in tooth integrity and help with enamel mineralization/maintenance and will inhibit calcium-phosphate precipitation

A

Ca2+, PO43-, Fl-, and salivary proteins

163
Q

What active components function in antimicrobial activity and create a physical barrier, involved in immune surveillance, and are bactericidal

A

Mucins, sIgA, and lysozyme, lactoferrin

164
Q

What active components are involved in digestion and taste and function in bolus formation and carbohydrate and triglyceride digestion?

A

Water, Amylase, lipase

165
Q

Which active components are involved in tissue repair and are involved in wound healing/ epithelial repair?

A

Growth factors

166
Q

Primary saliva production is produced by:

A

Secretory acing cells of gland:

  • Composition: Enzymes, proteins, antibodies, water, electrolytes
  • Tonicity is isotonic
167
Q

Ionic modification of the primary saliva is modified by:

A

Started duct cells and interlobular duct cells.

Mechanism: Ion transport via channels and pumps; no change in water

Result: Tonicity of saliva is hypotonic

168
Q

T/F: Tonicity and ion concentration and pH are alters with change in flow rate

169
Q

Immune-Protective modification of primary saliva is modified by:

A

Acing cells and intercalated ducts modify saliva by transport and secretion of sIgA antibodies into saliva

Mechanism: IgA transported from Ct into acing and duct cells and converted to a secretory form of IgA

Outcome: addition of sIgA of primary saliva provides mucosal defense

170
Q

What are the steps of immune-protective modification of primary saliva?

A
  1. Plasma (B) cells synthesis Ina
  2. Binding of secretory IgA to receptor on acing/duct cells
  3. Receptor mediated endocytosis transports sIgA into acing cell
  4. Transcytosis of secretory component of IgA through cell
  5. Constitutive exocytosis into saliva: Immuno-protection occurs continually including during unstimulated conditions
171
Q

Describe the Neural pathway for the Parotid

A

CN IX
Inferior salivary nucleus -> Preganglionic fibers of lesser petrosal (IX) -> Otic ganglion -> Post ganglionic fibers travel with the auriculotemporal of V3 -> Target tissue

(similar pathway for minor glands: (post ganglionic travel with different branches than V3 auriculotemporal) Bccal (Via V3), lingual post 1/3; anterior to sulcus terminals; and oropharynx (Via br. of IX)

172
Q

Describe the neuronal pathway for minor glands: Palatal

A

Superior salivary nucleus -> preganglionic fibers of greater petrosal (VII) -> pyterygopalatine ganglion postganglionic fibers travel with greater palatine of V

173
Q

What is the Mechanism of control of salivary gland secretion by ANS?

A

Salivary target issue of ANS = parasympathetic and sympathetic act cooperatively on acing cell; ducts; and myopeitheial cells.

Outcome: ANS stimulation causes regulated exocytosis of secretory granules from acing cells
Fluid/electrolyte secretion - open water channels and facilitate electrolyte transport in acing cells
Increased flow rate - (stimulated flow)- increased electrolyte transport in striated ducts -> buffering capacity and tonicity

174
Q

What are 4 factors that can affect rate of flow?

A

Blood loss, Dehydration, drugs, stress

175
Q

What neurotransmitter is released from postganglionic fibers in Parasympathetic?

A

Acetylcholine

176
Q

What is the principal role of the Parasympathetic system?

A

Regulates opening of water and ion channels; some exocytosis acinar proteins

177
Q

What is the receptor that binds acetylcholine?

A

Muscarinic

  • Most fluid secretion of glands is due to muscarinic stimulation
178
Q

What neurotransmitter released from postgangionic fibers in sympathetic?

A

Norepinephrine

179
Q

What is the principal role of the Sympathetic system?

A

Regulates exocytosis of acing proteins

180
Q

What is the receptor that binds Norepinephrine?

A
  1. B-adrenergic: Most protein secretion due to B-adrenic stimulation
  2. A-adrenergic: may modulate activation of water channels
181
Q

Norepinephrine and acetylcholine of ANS binding to receptors on the acing cell lead to:

A

Increased flow rate via increased release of fluid and electrolytes

182
Q

T/F: Water channels are present in duct cells but not acinar cells.

A

False:

Water channels are present in acinar cells but not in duct cells

183
Q

What kind of solution is primary saliva when released from acing cells?

A

Isotonic: Will be further modified in ducts via electrolyte transport

184
Q

Describe saliva in a resting flow rate:

A

Primary Saliva: Rich in proteins; electrolytes (NA+, Cl-, K+, HCO3-) and water: Isotonic

  • Modified as saliva flows through duct:
    • Removal of Na+/Cl (high absorption) * Na-cl absorption greater than HCO3 secretion
    • Secretion HC03- (some secretion)
    • no water absorbed in duct

Slower flow rate: More time to reabsorb
Result: Hypotonic saliva (relative to plasma)
Resting pH: 6.3-6.7

185
Q

What is the outcome of ANS stimulation saliva composition:

A

Increased secretion and flow rate

  • Parasympathetic: Produces thin watery; low viscosity solution
  • Sympathetic: produces viscous enzyme rich; low fluid solution
186
Q

Describe primary saliva in stimulated conditions

A

Increases in electrolytes and water; proteins
- Modified in duct by:
- Removal of Na/Cl- (little absorption)
- Secretion of HCO3 (Higher rate when stimulated via ANS)
- No water removed in duct
Increased Flow rates: High flow rate = less time to reabsorb
Result: Isotonic saliva (relative to plasma)
Stimulated pH is: ????

187
Q

What is hyposalivation:

A

Decrease in volume/rate of salivary secretion disease, nerve damage, pharmacology, physiology reasons

188
Q

What are sialadentitis?

A

Clinical term for a group of inflammatory disorders affecting the salivary glands:
- inflammation may result from, obstruction, trauma, bacterial or viral infections are the most common conditions that affects salivary glands and ducts

189
Q

What is Sialolithiasis:

A

Clinical term for the condition of salivary duct store (sialolith)
Formation- Calcification of salivary proteins which block the excretory duct

190
Q

What is Sjogren syndrome:

A

autoimmune disorders affects lacrimal, and salivary glands

Pharmacological induced: Anticholinergics leads to decreased salivation

191
Q

Hypersalivation:

A

increase in volume/reate of salivary secretion due to neurological disease, stroke, inflammation, pharmacology, psychological reasons

192
Q

What is Sialorrhea:

A

Hypersalivation: associated with drooling

193
Q

What are the outcomes of Xerostomia?

A
  • Buring sensation or oral soreness
  • Taste impairment or dysgeusia
  • Loss/atrophy of papillae (dorm of tongue appear fissured)
  • An increased rate of smooth surface dental caries (primarily affecting cervical regions of mandibular incisors)
  • Plaque and debris retention in the mouth, leading to poor oral hygiene and halitosis
  • Gingival recession with an increased susceptibility to periodontal disease and tooth loss
  • difficulty retaining dentures in mouth
  • Recurrent infections of the major salivary glands
  • Increased risk of recurrent oral infections especially oral candidiasis and angular cheilitisi
  • Difficulty swallowing
  • Dry cough
  • Hoarse voice

Oral Histology (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions