Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Typhoid fever is caused by bacteria of this genius

A

Salmonella

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2
Q

Tapeworms obtain nutrients from a host’s

A

intestines

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3
Q

Heartworm is caused by which organism?

A

Dirofilaria immitis

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4
Q

EMB agar uses lactose and two dyes that allow it to be ____ between the blue-black colonies of E. coli and the pinkish colonies of all other enteric bacteria.

A

differential

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5
Q

Which of the following causes syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

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6
Q

The next day, while most of the family was out shopping, four of the family members were home with blurred vision, dry mouth, and muscle weakness. Mary called the family physician, Dr. Franklin, who told her to take the sick individuals to the emergency room, and he would meet them there. Upon arrival at the ER, Dr. Franklin asked what the family members had eaten for the meals before they developed the symptoms. The common foods that all of them ate were the chicken, the ham, the tomatoes, the green beans, and the spinach salad. The doctor determined that the family was suffering from botulism food poisoning. In the United States, foodborne botulism happens in 15% of cases each year, frequently from foods with a low acidity. He was suspicious of the green beans and tomatoes, even though tomatoes are highly acidic. Dr. Franklin also said that using proper methods of microbial control could have prevented their illness.

Which of the following is an example of microbial control?

A
  • Sue uses bleach to clean the kitchen counters.
  • Mary places leftovers in the refrigerator after the meal.
  • Sue washes off the vegetables before serving them in a meal.
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7
Q

Which genus of bacteria is responsible for more illnesses and diseases than any other group of bacteria?

A

Streptococcus

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8
Q

What was the MOST likely source of the family’s botulism food poisoning?

A

The family consumed botulism toxin in the canned green beans.

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9
Q

A water-soluble blue-green pigment is a characteristic of?

A

Pseudomonas aerigonosa

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10
Q

Plasmodium, the cause of malaria, belongs to the phylum

A

Apicomplexa

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11
Q

Peptic ulcers in humans are commonly caused by members of the genus

A

Helicobacter

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12
Q

The parasite that causes African sleeping sickness is

A

Trypanosoma brucei

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13
Q

Kissing bugs (Triatoma) transmit which disease?

A

Chagas disease

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14
Q

Pathogenic microorganisms that are spread from person to person by unwashed hands contaminated by fecal matter is an example of what mode of transmission?

A

direct transmission

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15
Q

A mutation that affects the genotype of the organism but not the phenotype is called a

A

silent mutation

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16
Q

The diseases tetanus, botulism, and gas gangrene are associated with the genus

A

Clostridium

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17
Q

During elongation, how is the RNA synthesized?

A

5’ to 3’

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18
Q

Oncogenic viruses

A

cause tumors to develop

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19
Q

How does the ribosome know if the entering charged tRNA is correct?

A

The anticodon on the tRNA base pairs to the codon on the mRNA.

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20
Q

An index case

A

refers to the first case of an infectious disease outbreak to be identified

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21
Q

Sampling lake water for microscopic organisms is not as easy as it sounds when you want to both count and identify species. In a given water sample, your bacteria of choice can be rare or difficult to culture, particularly given the mixture of bacteria in a biofilm. Which of the following culture media would be best for growing fecal coliforms when they are relatively less abundant than other bacteria in the lake?

A

enrichment culture medium

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22
Q

An infection acquired in the hospital or other medical facility is called

A

nosocomial

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23
Q

Bartonella henselae causes

A

cat-scratch disease

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24
Q

An example of a latent viral infection is

A

cold sores

25
An agar that uses the dye in crystal violet agar suppresses the growth of Gram-positive bacteria. This agar would be considered
selective
26
Congenital infectious diseases
cross the placenta from infected mother to fetus
27
During infection, *C. diphtheriae* expresses a variety of genes that are used to establish infection and cause disease. One of these genes encodes for diphtheria toxin. Expression of the toxin requires the genetic information contained in DNA be converted into protein. The 1st step in this process is transcription, in which DNA is converted into mRNA. The following is a short piece of the DNA sequence for diphtheria toxin (written 5’ to 3’): TAA GCG TAG AAC TTG. Which of the following sequences represents the mRNA (written 5’ to 3’) that will be generated from this template DNA sequence?
CAA GUU CUA CGC UUA
28
A virus's ability to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the
presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane
29
Bacteria naturally prefer company instead of solitude for growth. Examples of this kind of communal growth pattern can be found everywhere, from surfaces of the teeth and the intestines, to the surface of a slimy rock in the lake, to the thick floc that clogs water pipes. These examples of communal bacterial growth are known by what name?
biofilm
30
Worldwide spread of an infectious disease is called
pandemic
31
During production of a drug, all work area surfaces must be disinfected using sterilized disinfectants. Which of the following statements about disinfectants are true?
* Endospores and viruses can resist disinfectant treatment. * Disinfection can occur by physical or chemical means. * Disinfectants are used to inhibit or destroy pathogens.
32
A viroid is a(n)
infectious piece of RNA without a capsid
33
Botulism food poisoning is a preventable illness if special precautions are taken during food preparation. In this case, what could Sue have done to prevent the outbreak of botulism?
* Sue noticed that the pressure cooker was malfunctioning during the canning process. She should have fixed the instrument, borrowed a properly working one, or purchased a new pressure cooker. * Sue could have boiled the food for at least 10 minutes before serving it to her family members.
34
Diphtheria toxin kills eukaryotic cells by affecting translation. More specifically, the toxin prevents movement of tRNAs from the A site to the P site of the ribosome. Predict what the result(s) of this inhibition would be.
* New tRNAs will not be able to enter the ribosome. * Protein synthesis will be interrupted because the peptide chain is inhibited from growing.
35
What characteristic of DNA allows two connected DNA polymerases to synthesize both the leading and lagging strands?
DNA is flexible.
36
Which DNA strand is synthesized continuously?
leading strand
37
After a period of rapid growth (log phase), bacterial growth rates will slow and enter the stationary phase. The number of viable cells no longer increases, but instead stays constant. In this activity you will indicate the statements that correctly describe what is happening during stationary phase.
The cells are likely running out of nutrients.
38
sterilization
killing or removing all microorganisms on something
39
disinfection
reducing pathogenic microorganisms
40
antisepsis
killing or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms on living tissue
41
degerming
physical removal of microbes by wiping/scrubbing
42
sanitization
reducing pathogenic microbes on utensils and surfaces for public health
43
biocide
a chemical that can kill living organisms
44
germicide
a substance that kills pathogens
45
bacteriostasis
a chemical/material that inhibits microbe growth
46
asepsis
having no pathogenic microbes
47
A disease that breaks out in explosive proportions within a population is called
epidemic
48
An agar that uses a high salt concentration to limit the growth of one type of bacteria over another would be considered
selective
49
A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a
plaque
50
A blood agar plate contains sheep red blood cells and allows for the determination of hemolytic capabilities for all bacteria that grow on the agar. This would make this type of agar
differential
51
Sexually transmitted diseases are most often spread by what mode of transmission?
direct contact
52
An infectious disease in which transmission can occur during the incubation period of disease is considered to be
communicable
53
An infection in which the signs and symptoms are not recognized readily because they are too mild:
subclinical infection
54
What is the basic function of the *lac* operon?
to code for enzymes involved in catabolizing lactose
55
Patients in a hospital setting are typically more susceptible to infections than individuals in the general population and are considered to be
compromised
56
When bacteria are inoculated into a new sterile nutrient broth, their numbers don’t begin to increase immediately. Instead, there is a lag phase that may last for an hour or even several days. Why don’t bacterial numbers increase immediately?
The bacteria must adjust to the nutrient content in the new medium, synthesizing necessary amino acids, growth factors, and enzymes.
57
What kind of bond is formed when two amino acids join together?
peptide bond
58
What is the initial target of RNA polymerase?
the promoter