Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

PT624 Neuro > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

(48 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Neglect

A

Failure to report, respond, or orient to novel or meaningful stimuli presented on the side opposite of the brain lesion, when this failure cannot be attributed to either sensory or motor deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Contralateral pushing

A

Powerful leaning toward the hemiplegic side in sitting, during transfers, standing, and walking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pathophysiology of neglect

A

Lesion in right/non-dominant hemisphere in the superior temporal lobe corresponding with Wernicke’s areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pathophysiology of contralateral pushing

A

Damage in left or right posterolateral thalamus. Distinctly different to parietal lobe, but anatomically close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Differential diagnosis of motor neglect

A

Full neuro exam to determine extent of primary motor deficits
Lesion location
Transcranial magnetic stimulation/diffusion tensor imaging (to determine integrity of CST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Differential diagnosis of sensory neglect

A

Homonymous hemianopsia
Hearing loss
Somatosensory loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Implications of neglect

A 
Poorer functional outcomes
Lower Barthel scores
Longer hospital stay
Less likely to be d/c home
Increased therapy needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Recovery of neglect

A

Spontaneous recovery in 6 weeks in most cases, but usually lingering long-term effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Prognosis with persistent neglect

A

Poor prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Recovery mechanism of neglect

A

Unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Prognosis of contralateral pushing

A

Lower initial function
Take 63% longer to reach same outcome as patients without pushing
R CVA slower recovery than L CVA
Does not negatively affect overall outcome of rehab
Usually resolves within 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Relationship between contralateral pushing and neglect and aphasia

A

Neglect and aphasia are commonly associated with contralateral pushing but not causative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

LE contracture splint uses

A

Prevent equinovarus contracture (PF + inversion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

UE contracture splint uses

A

Prevent wrist and finger flexion contracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Use for hand splints

A

Maintain wrist and hand position to support functional grasp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Use for knee immobilizer

A

Usually used in the acute stages of stroke to give enough stability so the patient can experience weight bearing. Can also be used for pushing syndrome when patients lean to the paretic side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tilt table is very common for those with

A

spinal cord injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mechanical support system for standing frame

A

Stabilizes feet, extend knees and hips, support trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Advantages of standing frame

A

Permits upright functional position
Allows standing w/ hands free
Loads axial skeleton
Supports kidney and urinary systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Disadvantages of standing frame

Study These Flashcards
A

Bulky
Awkward
Expensive

21
Q

Metal orthosis upright component advantages/disadvantages

Study These Flashcards
A

Heavy compared to plastic or carbon fiber

22
Q

Metal orthosis joint advantages/disadvantages

Study These Flashcards
A

None over plastic orthosis

23
Q

Metal orthosis foundation advantages/disadvantages

Study These Flashcards
A

One shoe type

24
Q

Plastic orthosis upright component advantages/disadvantages

Study These Flashcards
A

Contraindicated for fluctuated edema, poor circulation, and inadequate hygiene/skin checks

25
Plastic orthosis joint advantages/disadvantages
None over metal orthosis
26
Plastic orthosis foundation advantages/disadvantages
Versatile for interchangeable shoes
27
Advantages for solid AFOs
Provides the greatest control in the sagittal, frontal, and transverse planes
28
Disadvantages for solid AFOs
Lose ankle, forefoot, and toe rockers | Patient may experience knee instability in loading response
29
Indications for solid AFOs
Severe spasticity, absent proprioception, ankle/foot deformity in varus/valgus
30
Contraindications for solid AFOs
Fluctuating edema (plastic upright), very weak quadriceps (loading response)
31
Indications for floor reaction AFO
Excessive flexion at the knee during weight acceptance and single limb stance
32
Contraindications for floor reaction AFO
Genu recurvatum/hyperextension during single limb stance | Upright: Contraindicated for fluctuated edema, poor circulation, and inadequate hygiene/skin checks
33
Advantages of posterior leaf spring AFO
Lightweight and flexible to allow for heel, ankle, forefoot, and toe rockers
34
Disadvantages of posterior leaf spring AFO
Provides no stability during weight acceptance or single limb stance
35
Indications for posterior leaf spring AFO
Individuals with swing phase impairments only
36
Contraindications for posterior leaf spring AFO
Medial/lateral ankle instability and knee instability (very weak quads and or PF group)
37
What examinations must be done by PT when prescribing orthoses
Static and dynamic examination
38
What should be inspected in static examination?
Orthotic ankle joint should be congruent with anatomical joint Calf band/shell should terminate below the fibular head and not intrude on popliteal fossa Inspect the skin Inspect the motion available in the joint of orthosis
39
What about the diagnosis should the PT consider when prescribing orthoses?
Is there potential for recovery or decline in function?
40
Population at highest risk for brain injury
Adolescents and those over 75
41
BI is the leading cause of death and disability in what population?
Children
42
Majority of those with brain injury are between what ages?
15-24 years
43
Risk factors for brain injury
``` Younger Poor Minority Unmarried Inner-city male risk takers ```
44
Passive tests for structural damage
Skull and C-spine radiographs to rule out fracture | CT and MRI to rule out structural brain damage
45
Active tests for functional damage are done by
Neurophyschologists, PTs, OTs, STs, and RTs
46
2 types of focal injury in TBI
Coup | Contre-coup
47
2 causes of diffuse injury in TBI
Increased intracranial pressure | Diffuse axonal Injury (DAI)
48
What are the 3 types of hematomas?
Epidural hematoma Subdural hematoma Subarachnoid hematoma/intraparenchymal hemorrhage

PT624 Neuro (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions