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Physiology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

8

HR modulation = distributed to all parts of the heart, mainly the ventricles

increases depolarization rate

may increase permeability of fiber membranes to sodium and calcium ions

vagus nerve

sympathetic innervation

A

sympathetic innervation

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2
Q

9

fast heart rate (>100 bpm)

A

tachycardia

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3
Q

9

categorize the ECG

A

atrial fibrillation

caused by enlargement of the atria (due to valve lesions) and inadequate emptying of the ventricles causing blood to back up into the atria

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4
Q

8

depolarization and repolarization of the heart occurs in which directions?

A

from base to apex from outside to inside

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5
Q

9

categorize the ECG

A

paroxysmal tachycardia (atrial; lead I)

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6
Q

8

negative terminal: left arm positive terminal: left leg

looks at heart from upper left to lower left

recording limb lead I

recording limb lead II

recording limb lead III

A

recording limb lead III

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7
Q

pulmonary artery pressure (systolic)

0

8

10

25

35

80

120

A

25

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8
Q

the T wave of an ECG represents

atrial depolarization

atrial repolarization

ventricular depolarization

ventricular repolarization

A

ventricular repolarization

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9
Q

systemic arterial pressure (systolic)

0

8

10

25

35

80

120

A

120

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10
Q

9

categorize the ECG

A

ventricular fibrillation (lead II)

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11
Q

8

ectopic focus (pacemaker) definition

A

action potentials that originate anywhere other than from the SA node

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12
Q

8

abnormal conditions that cause deviation from the mean electrical axis of the heart

A

change in position of the heart

hypertrophy of one ventricle

bundle branch block

fluid in pericardium

pulmonary emphysema

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13
Q

8

repolarization of the atria (atrial t-wave) is almost always masked by the

A

QRS complex

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14
Q

which would have the highest amplitude for the normal QRS wave, and which would explain the high amplitude?

I; because it is more perpendicular to the vector of depolarization

I; because it is more parallel to the vector of depolarization

II; because it is more perpendicular to the vector of depolarization

II; because it is more parallel to the vector of depolarization

A

II; because it is more parallel to the vector of depolarization

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15
Q

8

negative terminal: right arm positive terminal:

left arm looks at heart from right to left

recording limb lead I

recording limb lead II

recording limb lead III

A

recording limb lead I

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16
Q

8

at -40mV, which channels in the SA node become activated?

A

slow sodium-calcium channels

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17
Q

8

length of the Q-T interval in a normal ECG

  1. 16 sec
  2. 24 sec
  3. 35 sec
  4. 42 sec
A

0.35

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18
Q

9

categorize the ECG

A

second degree A-V block

Lead V3

characterized by a dropped beat

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19
Q

8

vector angle for recording limb lead III

0

60

120

A

120

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20
Q

9

categorize the ECG

A

first degree A-V heart block

lead II

characterized by long P-R interval (0.28)

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21
Q

systemic pressure at the termination of the vena cava

0

8

10

25

35

80

120

A

0

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22
Q

9

increased body temp stimulation of heart by sympathetic nerves (loss of blood or state of shock) toxic conditions of the heart

A

causes of tachycardia

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23
Q

9

categorize the ECG

A

paroxysmal tachycardia (ventricular; lead III)

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24
Q

pathologically mediated tachycardia results in an (increase/decrease) of cardiac output? why?

A

decrease HR increases before sympathetic nervous system can compensate; no muscle pump to increase venous return

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25
Q

8

normal QRS length

A

0.06-0.08 secs

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26
Q

systemic arterial pressure (diastolic)

0

8

10

25

35

80

120

A

80

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27
Q

8

HR modulation = distributed to mainly the SA and AV nodes acetylcholine decreases rate of rhythm of the SA node

vagus nerve

sympathetic innervation

A

vagus nerve

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28
Q

8

length of the P-R interval in a normal ECG

  1. 16 sec
  2. 24 sec
  3. 35 sec
  4. 42 sec
A

0.16

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29
Q

8

mean electrical axis of the heart

A

59 degrees

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30
Q

which wave occurs at the beginning of atrial contraction?

T

R

S

P

Q

A

P

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31
Q

8

resting membrane potential of the SA node

  • 55 to -60 mV
  • 40 mV
  • 85 to -90 mV
A

-55 to -60 mV

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32
Q

8

which channels are inactivated when SA node membrane potential is less negative than -55mV (during depolarization)?

A

fast sodium channels

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33
Q

8

negative terminal: right arm positive terminal: left leg

looks at heart from upper right to lower left

recording limb lead I

recording limb lead II

recording limb lead III

A

recording limb lead II

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34
Q

8

which channels open when the slow sodium-calcium channels inactivated? what does this cause?

A

potassium channels repolarization

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35
Q

more than half of the delay from the origin of the signal from the SA node occurs in which of the following areas?

SA node

AV node

SA fibers

Penetrating bundles

A

AV node

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36
Q

8

on an ECG, repolarization of ventricles is represented by the ________

A

T wave

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37
Q

8

occurs at the beginning of the contraction of the ventricles (ventricular depolarization)

A

QRS complex

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38
Q

9

categorize the ECG

A

bradycardia

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39
Q

Which of the following conditions may cause tachycardia?

toxic conditions

increased body temperature

sympathetic nerve innervation

all the above

A

all the above

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40
Q

8

on an ECG represents phase 0 of the action potential spreading through the atrial muscle

A

P wave

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41
Q

endogenously mediated tachycardia results in an (increase/decrease) of cardiac output? why?

A

increase sympathetic stimulation increases contractility and helps to maintain stroke volume

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42
Q

9

categorize the ECG

A

premature contraction

result of ectopic foci (local ischemic areas, calcified plaques, irritation of the conduction system or nodes)

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43
Q

8

occurs at the beginning of the contraction of the atria (atrial depolarization)

A

P wave

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44
Q

8

ventricular fiber resting potential?

  • 55 to -60 mV
  • 40 mV
  • 85 to -90 mV
A

-85 to -90 mV

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45
Q

9

categorize the ECG

tachycardia

bradycardia

SA node block

AV block

A

complete A-V block

no relation between P waves and QRS-T complexes

ventricles establish their own signal

causes patient fainting (stokes-adams syndrome)

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46
Q

8

vector angle for recording limb lead I

0

60

120

A

0

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47
Q

9

athletic heart

vagal stimulation

A

causes of bradycardia

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48
Q

circus movements are the basis of heart fibrillation. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

fib. may occur when the refractory period of the muscle is greatly shortened
fib. may occur when the pathway around the circle is too short
fib. may occur when the conduction velocity slows down
fib. may occur when the heart becomes dilated

A

fib. may occur when the pathway around the circle is too short

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49
Q

systemic capillary pressure

0

8

10

25

35

80

120

A

between 10 and 35

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50
Q

8

an arrow that points in the direction of the electrical potential generated by the current flow, with the arrowhead in the positive direction

A

vector

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51
Q

9

slow HR (<60 bpm)

A

bradycardia

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52
Q

8

vector angle for recording limb lead II

0

60

120

A

60

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53
Q

8

on an ECG represents phase 3 or repolarization of ventricular muscle fibers spreading through the ventricles.

A

T wave

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54
Q

which bipolar lead is connected to the left arm and left leg?

I

II

III

all leads

A

III

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55
Q

9

categorize the ECG

A

partial intraventricular block (electrical alternans)

note change in amplitude of QRS complexes

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56
Q

9

sudden cessation of the P waves

standstill of the atria

ventricles pick up a new rhythm, usually originating in the AV node

rate of QRS is slowed but not otherwise altered

A

SA block

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57
Q

ventricular vector during depolarization is toward the _____ of the heart

base

apex

A

apex

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58
Q

which is generally not seen on an ECG?

atrial depolarization

atrial repolarization

ventricular depolarization

ventricular repolarization

A

atrial repolarization

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59
Q

8

in three lead ECG, which lead should have the greatest amplitude and why?

A

lead II because its vector is closest to the mean electrical axis of the heart

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60
Q

which bipolar lead is connected to the right arm and left leg?

I

II

III

all leads

A

II

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61
Q

the QRS complex represents

atrial depolarization

atrial repolarization

ventricular depolarization

ventricular repolarization

A

ventricular depolarization

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62
Q

on an ECG represents phase 0 of the action potential spreading through the atria

P

Q

R

S

T

A

P

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63
Q

8

on an ECG represents phase 0 of the action potential spreading through the ventricles

A

QRS complex

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64
Q

which bipolar lead is connected to both the left and right arms?

I

II

III

all leads

A

I

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65
Q

pulmonary artery pressure (diastolic)

0

8

10

25

35

80

120

A

8

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66
Q

which of the following conditions may result in tachycardia?

toxic conditions of the heart

increased body temp

sympathetic nerve stimulation

all of the above

A

all of the above

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67
Q

circus movements are the basis of heart fibrillation. which of the following statements is NOT true

fibrillation may occur when the refractory period of the muscle is greatly shortened

”” when the pathway around the circle is too short

”” when the conduction velocity slows down

”” when the heart becomes dilated

A

”” when the pathway around the circle is too short

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68
Q

circus movements are the basis of heart fibrillation. which of the following statements is NOT true

fibrillation may occur when the refractory period of the muscle is greatly lengthened

”” when the pathway around the circle is too long

”” when the conduction velocity slows down

”” when the heart becomes dilated

A

fibrillation may occur when the refractory period of the muscle is greatly lengthened

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69
Q

circus movements are the basis of heart fibrillation. which of the following statements is NOT true

fibrillation may occur when the refractory period of the muscle is greatly shortened

”” when the pathway around the circle is too long

”” when the conduction velocity speeds up

”” when the heart becomes dilated

A

”” when the conduction velocity speeds up

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70
Q

circus movements are the basis of heart fibrillation. which of the following statements is NOT true

fibrillation may occur when the refractory period of the muscle is greatly shortened

”” when the pathway around the circle is too long

”” when the conduction velocity slows down

”” when the heart shrinks

A

”” when the heart shrinks

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71
Q

84% of the blood volume is in the systemic circulation. of this, 64% is in which of the following vessels?

capillaries

systemic arterioles

veins

arterioles

arteries

A

veins

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72
Q

84% of the blood volume is in the systemic circulation. of this, 13% is in which of the following vessels?

capillaries

systemic arterioles

veins

arterioles

arteries

A

arteries

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73
Q

84% of the blood volume is in the systemic circulation. of this, 7% is in which of the following vessels?

capillaries

systemic arterioles

veins

arterioles

arteries

A

arteriouls and capillaries

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74
Q

blood flow resistence is inversely (indirectly) proportional to which of the following?

viscosity

vessel diameter

density

A and C

A

vessel diameter

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75
Q

blood flow resistence is directly proportional to which of the following?

viscosity

vessel diameter

density

A and C

A

A and C

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76
Q

if rate of blood flow through the entire circulatory system (cardiac output) =100 ml/sec AND the pressure difference from the systemic arteries to the systemic veins = 100mmHg, the total peripheral resistance is equal to….?

10 PRU

1 PRU

.01 PRU

100000 PRU

A

1 PRU

Resistance = Pressure / Flow

77
Q

when vessels are strongly constricted, total peripheral resistance may rise to as high as _____ PRU

A

4

78
Q

when vessels are greatly dilated, total peripheral resistance may fall to as low as _____ PRU

A

0.2

79
Q

Reynolds number is a measure of which of the following parameters?

blood pressure

resistance

tendency for turbulence

conductance

A

tendency for turbulence

80
Q

which of the following represents the viscosity of blood with a hematocrit of 38-42?

  1. 5
  2. 0

38

42

A

3.0

81
Q

what is the prime deeterminant of viscosity?

A

hematocrit

82
Q

10

what effect would polycythemia have on viscosity?

A

increase

83
Q

10

what effect would anemia have on blood viscosity?

A

decrease

84
Q

10

how is velocity of blood flow related to cross sectional area of the blood vessel?

A

inversely

85
Q

10

what controls the rate of blood flow to a particular tissue?

A

tissue need (monitored by microvessels)

86
Q

10

cardiac output is mainly controlled by _______

A

the sum of all local tissue flows

87
Q

10

arterial pressure regulation is generally independent of either __________ or __________

A

local blood flow or cardiac output control

88
Q

10

the increased force of heart pumping and the constriction of large venous resevoirs is indicative of

A

response to low arterial pressure

89
Q

10

overall blood flow of an adult at rest?

A

5000 mL/min

5 L/min

90
Q

10

how is blood viscosity related to turbulent flow?

A

inversely

91
Q

10

reynolds number = 450

will turbulent flow be likely to occur in some regions of the vessel?

A

yes

above 200-400 turbulence likely to occur somewhere along the vessel

92
Q

10

reynolds number = 450

will turbulent flow occur in a straight vessel?

A

no

turbulence in a straight vessel occurs at Re > 2000

93
Q

10

how is resistance in a blood vessel measured?

A

R = change in pressure / Flow

(mmHg / (mL/sec))

94
Q

10

variables that determine resistance in blood vessels?

which is most important?

A

diameter of vessel (most important)

blood viscosity

vessel length

95
Q

10

downstream pressure in a blood vessel has decreased. what would cause this?

increase in resistance

decrease in resistance

A

increase

96
Q

10

there is an increase in upstream pressure of a blood vessel. what would case this?

increased resistance

decreased resistance

A

increase

97
Q

10

largest blood pressure drop occurs across ________ because the have the _________ resistance

large arteries; lowest

veins; highest

capillaries; highest

small arteries; lowest

arterioles; highest

arterioles; lowest

A

arterioles; highest

98
Q

10

highest arterial pressure during the cardiac cycle

systole

diastole

A

systole

99
Q

10

lowest arterial pressure during the cardiac cycle

systole

diastole

A

diastole

100
Q

10

define pulse pressure

A

difference between systole and diastole

101
Q

10

how is conductance calculated?

A

change in blood flow / pressure

OR

1 / resistance

102
Q

10

how is conductance related to blood vessel diameter^4?

A

directly proportional

103
Q

10

how is conductance related to resistance?

A

conductance is the reciprocal of resistance

104
Q

10

describe the relationship of between resistance of an entire circuit of blood vessels versus the resistance of the individual blood vessels

A

total resistance will be less than the resistance of any individual blood vessel

105
Q

10

a limb must be amputated. describe the effect this would have on total resistance, conductance, and blood flow of the parallel vessel circuit

A

increased resistance, decreased conductance, and decreased blood flow

106
Q

10

arterial pressure drops to 160 mmHg. will autoregulation occur?

A

yes.

autoregulation range is ~70-~175

107
Q

10

arterial pressure drops to 90 mmHg. will autoregulation occur?

A

yes.

autoregulation range is ~70-~175

108
Q

10

arterial pressure drops to 40 mmHg. will autoregulation occur?

A

no.

autoregulation range is ~70-~175

109
Q

10

arterial pressure rises to 200 mmHg. will autoregulation occur?

A

no.

autoregulation range is ~70-~175

110
Q

11

define distensibility

A

ease of which volume of a vessel can be increased relative to pressure increase

the lower the pressure and greater the change in volume = greater distensibility

111
Q

11

pulmonary arteries are ______ distensible than/as systemic arteries

more

equally

less

A

6 times MORE

112
Q

11

pulmonary veins are ______ distensible than/as systemic veins

more

equally

less

A

equally

113
Q

11

veins are ______ distensible than/as arteries

more

equally

less

A

veins are 8 times MORE distensible than arteries (arteries have higher elasticity)

114
Q

11

describe the relationship between distensibility and elasticity

A

inverse

higher distensiblity = lower elasticity

115
Q

11

distensiblity is synonymous/directly proportional to _____

A

compliance

116
Q

11

t/f

blood can more easily be stored in arteries than veins

A

F

veins are more distensible than arteries, so more blood can be stored there

117
Q

11

t/f

blood can more easily be stored in pulmonary arteries than systemic arteries

A

T

pulmonary arteries are more distensible than systemmic arteries

118
Q

11

measure of ease to increase the volume of a blood vessel

compliance

elastance

resistance

conductance

A

compliance

119
Q

11

measure of the tendency of a vessel to return to its original shape

compliance

elastance

resistance

conductance

A

elastance

120
Q

11

total quanitity of blood that can be stored in a given portion of the circulatory system

A

vascular compliance

121
Q

11

calculate pulse pressure

A

stroke volume / arterial compliance

122
Q

11

what is the most important determinant of pulse pressure?

A

stroke volume

123
Q

11

how does a decrease in blood vessel compliance (due to aging for example) affect pulse pressure?

A

increases pulse pressure

124
Q

11

explain the presence of the incisura of a normal pulse pressure contour graph

A

marks the point where the aortic valve closes and reflects movement of a small amount of blood back into the heart due to the elasticity of the aorta returning the distended aorta to its original shape after systole

125
Q

11

explain why the pulse pressure rises above 120 in a patient with artherosclerosis

A

arteries become harder and are less compliant

126
Q

11

explain the drop of pulse pressure to virtually zero in individuals with patent ductus arteriosus and aortic regurgitation

A

blood is shunted to the pulmonary artery or into the left ventricle instead of the aorta

127
Q

11

explain the lack of an incisura on the pulse pressure contour of an individual with aortic regurgitation

A

lack or malfuction of the aortic valve

128
Q

11

the aortic valve is missing or malfunctioning causing aortic regurgitation. how would this affect the pulse pressure contour?

A

lack of incisura

129
Q

11

arteries have hardened and lost compliance in an individual with arteriosclerosis. how would this affect the pulse pressure contour?

A

marked increase in pressure

130
Q

11

after systole, blood flows back into the pulmonary artery or the left ventricle in individuals with patent ductus arteriosus and aortic regurgitation. how would this affect the pulse pressure contour?

A

decrease in pressure to near 0

131
Q

11

how is the mean arterial pressure calculated?

A

diastolic pressure + 1/3 of systolic (pulse) pressure

132
Q

11

central venous pressure is equal to pressure in the ______

left atrium

left ventricle

right atrium

right ventricle

A

right atrium

133
Q

11

main former of plasmalemmal vesicles in the capillaries.

A

caveolins

134
Q

11

most important factor in regulating vasomotion

A

concentration of oxygen in the tissues

135
Q

11

A systemic vein is about 8 times as distensible as its corresponding artery and has a volume about three times as great. how would its compliance compare to that of a corresponding artery?

A

24 times higher compliance

;

136
Q

11

________ is the most important means for the exhange of substances between the blood and the interstitial fluid.

osmosis

active transport

facilitated diffusion

diffusion

A

diffusion

137
Q

11

is interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure an outward Starling force or an inward Starling force?

A

outward

138
Q

11

is capillary plasma colloid osmotic pressure an outward Starling force or an inward Starling force?

A

inward

139
Q

11

is interstitial fluid pressure an outward Starling force or an inward Starling force?

A

inward

140
Q

11

is capillary pressure an outward Starling force or an inward Starling force?

A

outward

141
Q

11

which of these are outward Starling forces?

Capillary pressure

Interstitial fluid pressure

plasma colloid osmotic pressure

interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure

A

capillary pressure

interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure

142
Q

11

which of these are inward Starling forces?

Capillary pressure

Interstitial fluid pressure

plasma colloid osmotic pressure

interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure

A

interstitial fluid pressure

plasma colloid osmotic pressure

143
Q
A
144
Q

12

briefly describe the vasodilator theory

A

inc. metabolism ——> dec. O2 availiability ——> formation of vasodilators

145
Q

12

briefly describe the oxygen (nutrient lack) theory

A

dec O2 ——-> blood vessel relaxation —–> vasodilation

146
Q

12

tissue blood flow blocked

blood flow increases 4-7x normal after blockage resolution

reactive hyperemia

active hyperemia

A

reactive hyperemia

147
Q

12

tissue becomes active

rate of blood flow to that tissue increases

reactive hyperemia

active hyperemia

A

active hyperemia

148
Q

12

what is the relationship between arterial oxygen saturation and tisue blood flow?

A

inverse

dec oxygen = inc blood flow

149
Q

12

what is the relationship between metabolism and tissue blood flow?

A

direct

inc metabolism = inc blood flow

150
Q

12

increase in blood flow > too much oxygen or nutrients > washes out vasodilators

metabolic theory for blood flow autoregulation

myogenic theory for blood flow autoregulation

A

metabolic

151
Q

12

stretching of vessels > reactive vasculature constriction

metabolic theory for blood flow autoregulation

myogenic theory for blood flow autoregulation

A

myogenic theory for blood flow autoregulation

152
Q

12

does nitric oxide (NO) act as a vasodilator or vasoconstrictor? how does it work?

A

vasodilator; promotes conversion of cGTP to cGMP which activates protein kinases, resulting in vasodilation

153
Q

12

bradykinins // histamine

vasoconstriction

vasodilation

A

vasodilation

154
Q

12

norepinephrine // epinephrine // angiotensin II // vasopressin

vasoconstriction

vasodilation

A

vasoconstriction

155
Q

12

histamine

vasoconstrictor

vasodilator

A

vasodilator

156
Q

12

bradykinins

vasoconstrictor

vasodilator

A

vasodilator

157
Q

12

vasopressin

vasoconstrictor

vasodilator

A

vasoconstrictor

158
Q

12

angiotensin II

vasoconstrictor

vasodilator

A

vasoconstrictor

159
Q

12

epinephrine

vasoconstrictor

vasodilator

A

vasoconstrictor

160
Q

12

norepinephrine

vasoconstrictor

vasodilator

A

vasoconstrictor

161
Q

12

the sympathetic system innervates all vessels except _______

A

capillaries

162
Q

12

sympathetic response primarily results in

vasodilation

vasoconstriction

A

vasoconstriction

163
Q

12

in the brain: receives signals via vagus nerves (CN X) and glossopharyngeal nerves (CN IX)

vasoconstrictor area

vasodilator area

sensory area

A

sensory

164
Q

12

in the brain: inhibits activity in the vasoconstrictor area

vasoconstrictor area

vasodilator area

sensory area

A

vasodilator

165
Q

12

in the brain: establishes a partial state of contraction or vasomotor tone

vasoconstrictor area

vasodilator area

sensory area

A

vasoconstrictor

166
Q

12

stimulated by pressures between 80 and 200 mmHg

sends signals to the sensory area of the brain CN X (vagus nerve)

carotid baroreceptors

aortic baroreceptors

A

aortic

167
Q

12

stimulated by pressures between 50 and 180 mmHg

sends signals to the sensory area of the brain via Hering’s nerves and CN IX (glossopharyngeal)

carotid baroreceptors

aortic baroreceptors

A

carotid

168
Q

12

carries pressure signals to the brain from the aortic baroreceptors

CN IX

CN X

A

CN X

169
Q

12

carries pressure signals to the brain from the carotid baroreceptors

CN IX

CN X

A

CN IX

170
Q

12

outline the steps of vasomotor control in the brain

A

baroreceptors sen signal to sensory area > promotes function of the vasodilator area > inhibits function of the vasoconstrictor area

171
Q

12

continous firing of signals to blood vessels

A

vasoconstrictor tone

172
Q

12

partial state of blood vessel contraction

A

vasomotor tone

173
Q

12

baroreceptors are inactive in the absence of ______

A

stretch

174
Q

12

describe the primary function of baroreceptors

A

monitor the minute-by-minute arterial pressure changes

175
Q

12

connects the carotid baroreceptors to CN IX (glossopharyngeal nerve)

A

Hering’s nerve

176
Q

12

individual notices increased urine output, and increased HR. this would be indicative of higher or lower blood volume than normal?

this response is a result of _______ response

higher // lower

baroreceptor // atrial reflexe // neural rapid control // vasomotor

A

higher

atrial reflex

177
Q

12

cardiac output X total peripheral resistance = ?

A

arterial pressure

178
Q

13

angiotensin II // catecholamines // endothelin

A

vasoconstrictors

179
Q

13

kinins // prostaglandins // nitric oxide

A

vasodilators

180
Q

13

list the lethal effects of chronic hypertension

A

early heart failure

coronary artery disease

cerebral infarct

kidney failiure

181
Q

13

early heart failure // coronary artery disease // cerebral infarct // kidney failiure

A

lethal effects of chronic hypertension

182
Q

13

provides short term control of arterial pressure

affects total peripheral vascular reistance, capacitance, and cardiac pumping ability

A

sympatheticc NS

183
Q

13

as arterial pressure increases, urinary and sodium output ________

A

increases

184
Q

13

return of arterial pressure always back to the equilibrium point = ?

A

near infinite feedback gain principle

185
Q

13

Renin-Angiotensin system:

_____ secreted by the ______ is normally free floating in the body. Decreased BP causes _____ to release _____ which converts ______ to ______. However, _______ must be converted to its active form ______ by ______ (also generally present normally). _____ can act in multiple ways: 1) directly on the ______ to promote ______ 2) on the ______ to produce ______ which will also act on the kidney 3) causes _______, resulting in volume overload in the heart, triggering the release of ______ which ultimately causes ______

A

ANGIOTENSINOGEN secreted by the LIVER and is normally free floating in the body. Decreased BP causes KIDNEY to release RENIN which converts ANGIOTENSINOGEN to ANGIOTENSIN I. However, ANGIOTENSIN I must be converted to its active form ANGIOTENSIN II by ACE (also generally present normally). ANGIOTENSIN II can act in multiple ways: 1) directly on the KIDNEY to promote sSODIUM AND WATER REABSORPTION 2) on the ADRENAL GLAND to produce ALDOSTERONE which will also act on the kidney 3) causes DIRECCT INCREASE IN BP, resulting in volume overload in the heart, triggering the release of ATRIAL NATRIURETIC PEPTIDE which ultimately causes VASODILATION

186
Q

13

converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

A

renin

187
Q

13

converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II

A

ACE

(angiotensin converting enzyme)

188
Q
A

Physiology (8 decks)

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