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Anatomy > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is lumbarization?

A

When S1 (sacral bone) doesn’t fuse with S2, and as a results there are 6 lumbar vertebrates. mobile spine

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2
Q

What is sacralization?

A

When one of the lumbar vertebrates (L5), fuse to S1 & as a result, there are only 5 lumbar bones. causes a stiff spine

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3
Q

What are lordosis?

A

A concavity or hollow in the spine. Found in the cervical & lumbar vertebrates.
found posterior to spine
In the cervical spine, it is concave posterior, but convex anteriorly.
BOWS IN

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4
Q

What is Kyphosis?

A

A convex spine
Convex posteriorly & concave anteriorly.
In the thoracic & sacral, coccygeal segments.
POKES OUT

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5
Q

There is ____ relationship between posture and pain

A

NO

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6
Q

Body of the vertebrae

A

The weight bearing surface. Anterior Part

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7
Q

The vertebral arch is

A

Composed of the pedicles, the laminae, & the projections

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8
Q

The vertebral foramen is

A

Space created by the body & the vertebral arch

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9
Q

The vertebral canal…

A

contains spinal cord & its coverings. Created by successive vertebral foramina

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10
Q

Spinous process is…

A

Extension posterior from the meeting of the lamina

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11
Q

The lamina is…

A

the junction between the pedicle & the spinous process

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12
Q

The pedicle is…

A

the junction between the vertebral body & the vertebral arch

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13
Q

The transverse process is…

A

Lateral projection originating at the junction of the lamina & pedicle

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14
Q

The superior articular process is…

A

2 superior projections from the superior portion of the lamina which form synovial joint (facet) with vertebra directly above

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15
Q

The inferior articular process is…

A

2 inferior projection from the inferior portion of the portion of the lamina which form synovial facet joints with the vertebra directly below

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16
Q

The superior vertebral notch is…

A

Made by the pedicle & the superior articular process

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17
Q

The inferior vertebral notch is…

A

made by the pedicle & the inferior articular process

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18
Q

The intervertebral foramen is…

A

space created by superior & inferior vertebral notches

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19
Q

Characteristics of the cervical spine

A
  • Extreme mobility
  • Complex series of joints
  • Different function of the intervertebral(low bearing structure), and the Zygopophyseal joint (facilitators of movement)
  • Vertebral artery
  • 7 vertebrae & 8 nerve roots
  • Close approximation to the shoulder
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20
Q

Characteristics of the thoracic spine

A
  • Transitional zone between cervical (C) & lumbar (L)
  • 2nd least mobile of the spinal region.
  • Ribcage & low ratio of intervertebral disk (IVD)
  • Anterior- posterior & transverse dimensions are almost equal
  • Height of body is slightly higher posteriorly. (contributes to normal kyphosis)
  • Each body has paired costal demi-facets. Posteriorally (one superiorly & one inferiorly), except T10, T11, &T12. Have single facets, because the 3 false ribs don’t attach to the IVD
  • Pedicles protrude directly posterior
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21
Q

What is the least mobile region of the vertebrae

A

Pelvic girdle: sacral

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22
Q

What is the rule of threes?

A

The amount the spinous process projects posteriorly and inferiorly

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23
Q

T1-T3 spinous process projects…

A

posteriorly at the same level as the vertebral body

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24
Q

T4-T7 spinous process projects…

A

posteriorly at half a level below the vertebral body.

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25
Q

T7-T9 spinous process projects…

A

posteriorly at a whole level below the vertebral body. At the same level of the vertebral body of T8-T10

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26
Q

T10 spinous process projects…

A

a whole level below

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27
Q

T11 spinous process projects…

A

half a level below

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28
Q

T12 spinous process projects…

A

at the same level

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29
Q

Characteristics of the lumbar spine

A
  • Heavy bodies for weight bearing
  • Stout transverse processes
  • 3/4 of superior and inferior surface of body covered by cartilage end-plate
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30
Q

Characteristics of the sacrum

A
  • 5 fused vertebrae
  • Base: superior facets of S1 articulates with inferior facet of L5
  • 4 sacral foramina, translate nerves S1-S4 (anterior-sacral foramina)
  • Apex of the sacrum is below & base is above (same for the coccyx)
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31
Q

The IVD (cartilaginous joint) connects the

A

the vertebras of the spine.

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32
Q

The intervetebral joint includes

A

Symphyses and IVD

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33
Q

The degeneration of ____ is a natural consequence of aging(wrinkles on the inside)

A

IVD

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34
Q

What are the 2 parts of the IVD?

A

Annulus fibrosus and Nucleus pulposes

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35
Q

The annulus fibrosus is the ___ of the IVD

A

outer

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36
Q

Characteristics of the annulus fibrosus

A
  • Runs criss-cross to each other (one inferiorly to the left and other to the right)
  • Outer fibers are pain sensitive
  • No blood supply, depends on nutrients imbibed by the nucleus pulposes during movement anchoring mechanism with the end plate.
  • The rings are designed to maintain outward pressure.
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37
Q

The nucleus pulposes is the ___ of the IVD

A

inner central piece

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38
Q

Characteristics of the nucleus pulposes

A
  • Hydrophyllic
  • Gelatinous micro protein & collagen mix
  • Conforms to pressure
  • Maintains hydration by getting nourishment from the vertebral bodies above & below
  • Has no circulatory blood
  • Situated more posteriorly L-spine
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39
Q

What type of joints are zygopophyseal joints? (facets)

A

Synovial joints

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40
Q

What are the functions of the zygopophyseal joint?

A
  • To protect the IVD in the spine
  • To do more to allow movement in the C-spine
  • Allows flexion, but also stops flexion to decrease shear on the IVD
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41
Q

What are the medial supporting structures of the zygopophyseal joint?

A

Ligamentum Fluvum: intramedially

Multifudus: posterio-medially

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42
Q

Characteristics of the Anterior Longitudinal ligament (ALL)

A
  • comes from the atlanto-occipital membrane to the sacrum
  • Strong & broad ligament that is supplied by nociceptive (pain) nerve endings
  • Considered a stabilizer
  • Anterior & lateral connections is bound to the rim vertebral body & blends in with the IVD & spreads to connect posteriorly to the PLL
  • Thick where the IVD is and thin where the vertebral body is
  • loosely attached to the vertebral body so blood vessels can pass to get to and from the vertebral body
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43
Q

Which ligament is the only one that limits extension

A

ALL

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44
Q

Characteristics of the posterior longitudinal ligament (PLL)

A
  • Runs from the foramen magnum to the sacrum
  • Anterior: to the neural sac (duramater)
  • Posterior: to the vertebral body & IVD
  • Narrower and weaker than the ALL (doesn’t get stretched very much)
  • thinnest part in the L-spine
  • attached laterally to the ALL
  • well supplied by nociceptive nerve ending
  • attached to the IVD, a bit to the rim of the VB, but not so much to the body of the VB to allow for blood vessel movement
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45
Q

Function of the PLL

A

Prevents disc moving into the dura, because its broader behind the disc than behind the VB

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46
Q

Characteristics of ligamentum flavum

A
  • attaches from the lamina of each vertebral level
  • broad pale yellow ban of elastic tissue (elastic fibers) Loses elastin fibers with age
  • Segmental: goes from lamina above to lamina below, blending together in the midline
  • reinforces the medial capsule of anterior portion of the ZPJ
  • No nerve supply
  • increases in thickness with age as a result of loss of elasticity
  • accumulates fatty deposits in the area
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47
Q

Characteristic of the interspinous ligament

A
  • Thin & membranous
  • resist separation of spinous processes (flexion)
  • segmental: fibers attached to ligamentum flavum & fan horizontally to blend with supraspinous ligament
  • no nociceptive nerve endings
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48
Q

Characteristics of the supraspinous ligament

A
  • cord-like & connects tips of spinous processes, but also attaches & blends in with the interspinous ligament
  • comes from C7 to the sacrum & merges superiorly with ligamentum nuchae
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49
Q

Characteristics of the intertransverse ligaments

A
  • consist of adjacent transverse processes
  • consist of scattered fibers in cervical region
  • round- fibrous cords in thoracic region
  • thin & membranous in lumbar region
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50
Q

What is the IST(interspinous, supraspinous, thoracolumbar) complex?

A

the attachment of the thoracolumbar fascia to the supraspinous ligament in the lumbar spine

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51
Q

What are the superficial muscles of the back?

A

Trapezius, latissimus dorsi, levator scapulae, rhomboid major, & rhomboid minor

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52
Q

what are the two posterior intermediate muscles?

A

Serratus posterior superior & serratus posterior inferior

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53
Q

the deep back muscles includes the ____ which has 3 parts. What is its origin and nerve supply?

A

Erector spina

Origin: broad tendon that attaches to the iliac crest, sacrum, sacroiliac ligaments, and sacral and inferior lumbar spinous processes

Nerve supply: dorsal primary rami

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54
Q

What are the three parts of the erector spina?

A
  • Iliocostalis group (most lateral)
  • Longissimus group (intermediate)
  • Spinalis group (most medial)
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55
Q

Superficial to the erector spina is the _____ muscle & is supplied by the _____

A

Sternocleidomastoid

Spinal accessory nerve

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56
Q

The splenius muscle group (superficial layer of the deep back muscles) consist of?

A

Splenius capitus & spenius cervicis

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57
Q

The splenius group runs ____

A

Superiorly and laterally from the spinous process

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58
Q

The semispinalis capitus runs from ____ and its fibers run____

A

cervical spine

fibers are running superiorly & medially

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59
Q

What are the iliocostalis group regions?

A

Cervicis: cervical region. arises from the 6 upper ribs and attaches to the transverse processes of the lower cervical vertebrae 4-6

Thoracis: thoracic region. Arises from the six lower ribs and attaches to the 6 upper ribs

Lumborum: lumbar region. iliac crest and attaches into the angles of the inferior 6 ribs

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60
Q

What are the longissimus group region?

A

Capitis: attaches to the head. arises from lower 4 cervical vertebrae and attach to the mastoid process of the temporal bone

Cervicis: attaches to the cervical region. arises from transverse processes of T1-4 or 6 and attaches to transverse processes of C2-6

Thoracis: attaches to the thoracic region. arises from the lower lumbar spinous processes and sacrum and attaches to the lower nine ribs & associated transverse processes

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61
Q

What is a transversospinalis group? (deep layer of intrinsic muscles)

A

short muscles in grooves between transverse & spinous processes of the vertebrae.

Run from the transverse processes to the spinous processes of the vertebrae

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62
Q

In thoracic spine, rotatores (deepest muscles) & levatores costorum are said to

A

lift the ribs

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63
Q

The ______ innervate all the muscles that between the angles of the ribs

A

Posterior primary rami

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64
Q

Posterior to the quadratus lumborum is the middle layer of the _____

A

thoracolumbar fascia

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65
Q

The anterior layer of the thoracolumbar fascia goes _____ of the QL

A

infront

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66
Q

The _____ & _______ is found along the entire section of the vertebral column. This is easiest to observe in the thoracic region

A

rotatores brevis & rotatores longus

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67
Q

The rotatores brevis expands _____ levels

A

One

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68
Q

The rotatores longus expands ___ levels

A

two

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69
Q

The posterior (superficial) layer of the thoracolumbar fascia joins together with the _____ & encase the _____

A

anterior (middle) layer

erector spina group

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70
Q

The ____ is where the posterior & anterior layers join together

A

lateral raphae

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71
Q

All abdominal muscle attach to the ____, but the ____ has the most direct attachment & the muscle fibers run horizontally, so it has a stronger line of pull on the LR

A

lateral raphae

transverse abdominus

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72
Q

If all the abdominal muscles pull on the LR, that will singe down and squeeze the layers of the ____, which causes the muscles of the _____ to contract & push out against the 2 layers & help produce an ______

A

Thoracolumbar fascia
Erector spina group
hydrolic amplifier effect

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73
Q

The anterior layer of the thoracolumbar fascia surrounds the _____

A

quadratum lumborum

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74
Q

Each vertebra is supplied by ____ & ____ of the major cervical & segmental arteries & their spinal branches

A

periosteal & equatorial

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75
Q

Periosteal nutrient branches supply the _____

A

transverse spinous processes in the bone

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76
Q

Equatorial branches come from the ______ supply the ____

A

lumbar arteries

the vertebral body

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77
Q

Spinal branch of lumbar artery goes into the ____ & forms the nutrient arteries that supply the _____

A

Intervertebral foramen

back of the body

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78
Q

Parent arteries of ______, _____ & _____ occur at all levels of vertebral column

A

periosteal, equatorial, & spinal branches

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79
Q

Spinal veins form venous plexuses both ___ & ___ vertebral column

A

inside & outside

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80
Q

Which veins are in between venous plexus & come anteriorly into the VB. They have to get past the ALL & PLL, which is why they are loose behind the the VB

A

Basivertebral veins

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81
Q

What is the major reflex center & conduction pathway between the body and the brain?

A

Spinal cord

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82
Q

What protects the spinal cord?

A

The vertebrae, and its associated ligaments & muscles, spinal meninges (duramater, arachnoid mater, & pia mater) & the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

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83
Q

The spinal cord moves with the ____

A

head, neck, trunk movements

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84
Q

The spinal cord is continuous with the..

A

medulla oblangata of the brain stem

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85
Q

The spinal cord ends at level of ___ & ___, in a bunt structure called the ____

A

L1 & L2. Called the conus medullaris

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86
Q

In embryos, the spinal cord…

A
  • Occupies full length of the vertebral column
  • Segments lie approx. at the vertebral level of the same number
  • Spinal nerves exit laterally through corresponding IV foramen
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87
Q

In the fetal period, the spinal cord

A
  • The vertebral column grows faster than the cord

- Ascends relative to the vertebral canal

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88
Q

At birth, the spinal cord

A
  • tips of the conus medullaris is at the L4-5 level

- cord is shorter than vertebral canal, so spinal nerves exit obliquely (go out downwards and laterally)

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89
Q

In adults, the spinal cord

A
  • ends at L1-2 level (the normal level). (Range is T12-L3)

- loose bundle of lumbar & sacral spinal nerves (descending nerve roots), called the caudal equina

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90
Q

What is a lumbar cistern?

A

An enlargement of the subarachnoid space between the conus medullaris of the spinal cord & inferior end of subarachnoid space & the dura mater

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91
Q

Where does the cauda equina sit?

A

in the lumbar cistern

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92
Q

Where is the multifudus found?

A

found from C2-S4 vertebrae. Most prominent in the lumbar region

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93
Q

Where are the rotatores found?

A

Along the entire length of the vertebral column. Easiest to observe in the thoracic region

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94
Q

What are the two enlargements of the spinal cord?

A

cervical and lumbar

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95
Q

how many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A

31

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96
Q

First cervical nerve exits between____ and ____

A

skull and atlas

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97
Q

Cervical nerves exit _____

A

above their proper vertebrae

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98
Q

The 8th cervical spine exits between the ____ & __. Why?

A

C7 & T1.

Because there are 8 cervical spinal nerves & 7 cervical vertebrae, so a change occurs at C7, T1.

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99
Q

Dorsal roots carry _____; cell bodies are located in the _____. The ganglion is located in the _____

A

Sensory information
In the dorsal root ganglion
Intervertebral foramen

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100
Q

Ventral roots carry ___. Cell bodies are located in the _____

A

Motor information

Gray matter of the spinal cord

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101
Q

Roots come together and form nerves as they exit the ___

A

intervertebral foramen

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102
Q

The nerves immediately split into _____ & ______

A

Ventral primary rami & dorsal primary rami

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103
Q

Ventral primary rami travel ___ providing ____ and ____ innervation

A

Anteriorly

Motor and sensory

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104
Q

Dorsal primary rami travel toward the ____ to provide innervation to the structures in the back

A

back

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105
Q

The connective tissue of the Dura, arachnoid and pia maters around the peripheral nerve change names to become

A

Epineurium, endoneurium, and myesoneurium

106
Q

What is the dendate/denticulate ligament?

A

A film of tissue that comes from the pia mater and attaches to the inside of the arachnoid mater and duramater

107
Q

Function of the dentate/denticulate ligament

A

Provide stability for the spinal cord within the cerebrous spinal fluid within the sac of the duramater

108
Q

What are the form plexus areas of concentrated innervation

A

Cervical C1-4
Brachial C5-T1
Lumbar T12-L5
Sacral L4-S5

109
Q

The duramater is innervated by ____ & contains ____ fibers

A

The recurrent meningeal nerves

Afferent & sympathetic fibers

110
Q

What is the filum terminale?

A

a piece of connective tissue thats as extension of the pia. Goes from the conus medullaris all the way down to the sacral-coccygeal region.

anchoring point for the tail end of the spinal cord

111
Q

_____ centralizes the position of the spina cord

A

Flexion

112
Q

What are the effects of spinal flexion?

A
  • elongation of the spinal cord
  • increased tension
  • sliding of neural contents in canal
113
Q

The spinal cord ___ and __ with spinal flexion

The spinal cord ___ and ___ with extension

A

Unfolds and lengthens

Folds and shorten

114
Q

The neurodynamics test is used to

A

assess the mobility & sensitivity to movement of the nervous system

115
Q

What are the boundaries of the abdominal wall?

A
  • Superior: right & left costal margins, xiphisternal joint
  • Inferior: a line in either side connecting the ASIS (anterior superior iliac spine) to the pubic symphysis
  • Lateral: vertical lines ascending from the ASIS on each side
  • Posterior: lumbar paravertebral musculature
116
Q

For descriptive purposes, the abdomen is divided into ____ planes and ____ regions

A

4 & 9

117
Q

The subcostal plane is

A

line through the most inferior points of the costal cartilage, 10th costal cartilage. The line passes through the body of L3 vertebra

118
Q

The transtubercular plane is

A

line passes through the iliac tubercles at the level of the L5 vertebra

119
Q

The sagittal plane is

A

mid-clavicular lines, extends inferior from the mid-clavicle to the mid-inguinal point.

120
Q

The transpyloric plane is

A

a bit higher than the subcostal plane, goes through the body of L1.

Imp because it goes through the pyloric spinchter of the stomach

121
Q

What planes divide the abdomen into nine region?

A

Subcostal, sagittal, and transtubercular plane

122
Q

What is in the upper region?

A

Right hypochondriac, epigastric, left hypochondric

123
Q

What is in the middle region?

A

right lumbar, umbilical, left lumbar

124
Q

What is in lower region?

A

right inguinal, hypogastric left inguinal

125
Q

What organs are in the RUQ?

A

Liver, gallbladder, right suprarenal gland, right kidney, and superior part of ascending colon

126
Q

What organs are in the LUQ?

A

Spleen, stomach, pancreas: body and tail, left kidney, transverse colon(left half), descending colon (superior part)

127
Q

What organs are in the RLQ?

A

cecum, vermiform appendix, right ovary, right ureter, most of the ileum

128
Q

What organs are in the LLQ?

A

sigmoid colon, inferior part of the descending colon, left ovary, left ureter, left spermatic cord

129
Q

What is the rectus sheath and how is it formed?

A

It is a dense fibrous sheath enclosing the rectus abdominis muscle.

It is formed by the fusion of the aponeuroses(flat tendons of muscles) of the abdominal muscles.

130
Q

Above the level of the umbilicus, the rectus sheath is anteriorly

A

Anteriorly: external abdominal oblique aponeurosis and 1⁄2 of the Internal abdominal oblique aponeurosis

131
Q

Above the level of the umbilicus, the rectus sheath is posteriorly

A

Posteriorly-1⁄2 of the Internal abdominal oblique aponeurosis and the aponeurosis of the Transversus abdominis

132
Q

The anterior and posterior walls meet and fuse in the anterior median line called the

A

linea alba

133
Q

Below the level of the umbilicus, the rectus sheath anteriorly

A

Anteriorly–The aponeurosis from all three muscles now pass anteriorly over the rectus abdominis with no fascia from the muscle passing posteriorly

134
Q

Below the level of the umbilicus, the rectus sheath posteriorly

A

Posteriorly–a thin fascial film remains posteriorly that protects the rectus abdominis from rubbing against the abdominal contents.

135
Q

The point of transition were all three aponeurosis pass anteriorly is marked by the

A

arcuate line

136
Q

Innervation of the anterior abdominal wall is _____ arranged

A

segmentally

137
Q

The anterior abdominal wall is supplied by

A

the ventral primary rami of thoracic spinal nerves of T6 – T11, ventral primary
ramus of T12 or subcostal nerve and the iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves from the ventral
primary ramus of L 1
c) Landmarks for innervation
i) T10 – umbilical region
ii) T7 – xiphoid area
iii) L 1 – pubic area

138
Q

What landmarks for innervation of the anterior abdominal wall

A

i) T10 – umbilical region
ii) T7 – xiphoid area
iii) L1 – pubic area

139
Q

Arterial supply of the anterior abdominal wall

A

Superior epigastric - branch of the internal thoracic artery

Inferior epigastric - a branch of the external iliac

140
Q

The superior epigastric & inferior epigastric arteries enter the ______ posterior to the rectus abdominis and anastomoses with
the rectus muscle

A

rectus sheath

141
Q

The _____ that accompany the intercostal nerves also contribute to the arterial supply of the anterior abdominal wall

A

posterior intercostal arteries

142
Q

Additional supply comes from the direct branches of

A

the abdominal aorta and lumbar arteries

143
Q

The inguinal canal is

A

a passage from the abdominal cavity through the anterior abdominal wall

144
Q

The inguinal ligament is a

A

fibrous band extending from the anterior superior iliac spine to the pubic
tubercle.

145
Q

The inguinal canal is formed by

A

folds of the external oblique aponeurosis

146
Q

What are the two types of inguinal rings?

A

superficial and deep

147
Q

The contents of the inguinal canal

A

Spermatic cord in males

Round ligament of the uterus in females

Inguinal nerve

Blood and lymphatic vessels

148
Q

Direct/acquired hernia

A

occurs overtime because of weakening of the hesselbach’s triangle, some of the adbominal contents can work its way through the superficial inguinal ring

149
Q

What is a peritoneum & what are the two layers?

A

thin, transparent serous membrane that consists of two layers
Parietal peritoneum
& Visceral peritoneum

150
Q

The parietal peritoneum lines

A

lines the abdominal wall

151
Q

The visceral peritoneum lines

A

lines the visceral organs

152
Q

The space between the parietal and visceral peritoneum is lined with

A

serous fluid to allow movement without friction between the

wall and the organs or between organs

153
Q

____ organs are covered by peritoneum

A

not all

154
Q

What is the retroperitoneal space?

A

an anatomical space in the abdominal cavity that is behind the peritoneum

155
Q

Retroperitoneal organs are structures that

A

are not suspended by mesentery in the abdominal cavity & lie between the parietal peritoneum and the abdominal wall.
EX: adrenal gland, kidneys, ureter, aorta & the inf. vena cava

156
Q

Secondary retroperitoneal organs are

A

structures that were once suspended by the mesentery, but they migrated posterior to the peritoneum during the course of embryogenesis to become retroperitoneal. EX: Asc & Desc colon

157
Q

What are the specialized parts of the peritoneum?

A

Mesentery and omentum

158
Q

The mesentery is

A

the double layer of peritoneum that encloses the abdominal organs.

159
Q

The mesentery provides

A

a means of neurovascular communication and organ attachment to posterior
abdominal wall.

EX: the tissue connecting the small intestine

160
Q

The mesentery is contained with

A

the fibrous tissue of the mesentery are blood and lymph vessels, nerves,
lymph nodes, and adipose tissue.

161
Q

The omentum is

A

double layer of peritoneum that attach the stomach to the body wall or other
abdominal organs

162
Q

The greater omentum is

A

fat laden fold of peritoneum that connects the stomach with the
transverse colon

163
Q

The lesser omentum

A

connects the lesser curvature of the stomach and duodenum to the
liver

164
Q

The abdominal cavity is located ____ and limited ____

b) It contains the peritoneum and abdominal viscera

A
  • superior to the pelvic inlet

- superiorly by the thoracic diaphragm.

165
Q

The abdominal cavity contains the ____

A

peritoneum and abdominal viscera

166
Q

The esophagus is a

A

muscular tube that extends from pharynx to the stomach (25cm in length)

167
Q

What is the function of the esophagus?

A

transportation of food from oral cavity to stomach

168
Q

The esophagus passes through ___

A

the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm to enter into the abdominal
cavity

169
Q

______ creates rapid food movement from the oral cavity to the stomach

A

Peristaltic action

170
Q

____ is the expandable part of the digestive tract that lies between the esophagus and the small intestine.

A

Stomach

171
Q

Function of the stomach is to

A

provide enzymatic digestion of food, converting solid food into a liquid mixture called chyme.

172
Q

Four parts that the stomach divided into

A

Cardia, fundus, body, pyloric

173
Q

The cardia of the stomach is

A

the part surrounding the cardial orifice. The orifice marks the connection between the stomach and the esophagus

174
Q

The fundus of the stomach is

A

dilated superior aspect of the stomach that is related to the left dome of the diaphragm

175
Q

The body of the stomach is

A

center, lying between the fundus and the pyloric antrum

176
Q

The pyloric of the stomach is

A

funnel-shaped region of the stomach at the bottom. The distal aspect is
characterized by the pyloric sphincter which controls discharge of the stomach contents into the duodenum

177
Q

The small intestine’s function is

A

to continue with food digestion

178
Q

The 3 parts of small intestine

A

Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum

179
Q

The duodenum is

A

First and shortest part
C-shaped, divided into four parts:Superior,Descending,Horizontal,Ascending Bile and pancreatic ducts enter into the duodenum for digestive purposes.

180
Q

The ileum is

A

Together the Jejunum and Ileum are 6 to 7 meter long.
(ii) There is no clear demarcation between the two but surgeons are able to
distinguish differences by some of the following characteristics: the Jejunum is often redder, thicker, and has a greater vascularity then the ileum

181
Q

The spleen is ____ & located

A

Largest Lymphatic organ

Located in the left upper abdominal quadrant

182
Q

What is the primary function of the spleen?

A

to eliminate old and damaged cells from the circulation, filter
antigens, and contribute to the immune response.

183
Q

The removal ____ seriously impair the immune response

A

does not

184
Q

The pancreas lies _____ to the stomach

A

posterior

185
Q

Functions of the pancreas

A
  • Secreting gastric juices for the small intestine that enters the duodenum via the pancreatic ducts
  • Endocrine gland supplying the body with insulin and glucagons from the Islets of Langerhans.
186
Q

For descriptive purposes, the pancreas is divided into

A

Head, neck, body, and tail

187
Q

____ is largest gland in the body and is found in the right upper quadrant

A

The liver

188
Q

What is the function of the liver?

A

metabolic activities, secretion of bile, and storage of glycogen

It also is responsible for processing the products of digestion as well as endogenous and
exogenous substances like drugs and toxins that enter the circulation

189
Q

The portal triad is made up of

A

The bile duct, hepatic artery, portal vein

190
Q

The bile duct is formed by the

A

common hepatic duct and the cystic duct (GallBladder)

191
Q

The hepatic artery arises from

A

the aorta and delivers well oxygenated blood to the

liver

192
Q

The portal vein arises from the

A

mesenteric and splenic veins and empties into the liver.

Carries nutrient rich blood.

193
Q

The function of the gallbladder is

A

Bile storage and increase in concentration

194
Q

The gallbladder released when

A

fat enters the duodenum via the Cystic duct to the bile duct

195
Q

The first part of the large intestine is

A

Cecum

196
Q

The _____ connects the ileum with the cecum

A

ileocecal valve

197
Q

Attached to the cecum is the ____

A

vermiform appendix

198
Q

Four parts that the colon is described in

A

Ascending, transverse, descending, sigmoid

199
Q

Function of the colon is to

A

remove fluid from fecal matter

200
Q

___ is a continuation of the colon

A

rectum and anal canal

201
Q

Kidneys lie on _____

A

the posterior abdominal wall

202
Q

Function of the kidney is

A

remove excess water, salts, and wastes of protein metabolism from the blood
while retuning nutrients and chemicals back to the blood.

203
Q

Ureters convey

A

the waste products absorbed by the kidneys to the bladder in the
pelvis.

204
Q

The ureters run

A

inferiorly from the kidney, over the common iliac arteries to the
bladder.

205
Q

Superior aspect of the kidney contains the

A

Suprarenal Glands or adrenal glands.

206
Q

Suprarenal Glands or adrenal glands functions to

A

produce hormone and steroid production for the body.

207
Q

What organs are in the pelvic cavity?

A

Bladder and reproductive organs

208
Q

The bladder is an

A

Hollow pouch with strong muscular walls with characteristic of distensibility.

209
Q

The function of the bladder is to

A

temporary reservoir for urine

210
Q

The ovaries are

A

female reproductive glands. Produces ova or oocytes and estrogen

211
Q

The fallopian tubes or uterine tubes extend

A

laterally from the uterus and open near the

ovaries.

212
Q

The fallopian tubes or uterine tubes function to

A

convey the ovum from the ovary to the uterus.

213
Q

The uterus is a

A

thick walled, pear-shaped, hollow muscular organ. Provides environment for
embryo and fetus development

214
Q

The cervix is the

A

neck region of the uterus.

215
Q

The vagina is a

A

musculomembraneous tube extending from the cervix to the vestibule of the
vagina.

216
Q

The vagina functions as a

A

passage way

217
Q

The testis are

A

male gonad, one of two reproductive glands found in the scrotum.

218
Q

The testis functions to

A

produce spermatozoa and the male hormone testosterone.

219
Q

The seminal vesicle lies

A

between the bladder and the rectum

220
Q

The seminal vesicle functions

A

to secrete a thick

alkaline fluid that mixes with the sperm as the pass into the ejaculatory duct.

221
Q

____ is a continuation of the duct of the epididymus

A

Ductus Deferensor Vas Deferens

222
Q

Ejaculatory duct is a

A

slender tube that arises by the union of the duct of a seminal vesicle
with the ductus deferens and connects into the urethra

223
Q

The prostate is

A

an accessory gland, secretes fluid that helps to form part of the seminal fluid

224
Q

The posterior abdominal wall is formed by

A
  • Bones -lumbar vertebrae, sacrum, wings of the ilium and ribs
  • Muscles - diaphragm, iliacus, psoas major, quadratus lumborum
225
Q

_____ is made up of the sacrum, and two os coxae or hip bones

A

Pelvic girdle

226
Q

The fusion that forms the os coxae occurs at the ___

A

acetabulum

227
Q

Each os coxa articulates with the other at the _____ anteriorly, with the ____ posteriorly and the ____ inferiorly.

A

Pubic symphysis
Sacrum
Femur

228
Q

The three elements of the os coxae are

A

Ilium, Ischium, Pubis

229
Q

Lumbar plexus of the lumbosacral plexus is derived from

A

L1, 2, 3 & part of L4

230
Q

Sacral plexus of the lumbosacral plexus is derived from

A

L4-S4

231
Q

Nerves of the lumbar plexus is

A 
liohypogastric - L 1
Ilioinguinal - L 1
Genitofemoral - L 1, L2
Lateral femoral cutaneous - L2, L3
Femoral - L2, L3, L4
Obturator - L2, L3, L4
232
Q

Part of the ventral primary ramus of L4 joins ventral primary ramus of L5 to form the ______, which in turn joins S 1-4 to form the sacral plexus.

A

lumbosacral trunk

233
Q

Sacral plexus gives rise to the following nerves

A
  • Superior gluteal- L4, L5, S1
  • Inferior gluteal- L5, S1, S2
  • Sciatic - L4, L5, S1, S2, S3
  • Pudendal- S2, S3, S4
  • Twigs to the piriformis - S1, S2, S3, S4
  • Nerve to the obturator internus - L5, S1, S2
  • Nerve to the quadratus femoris - L4, L5, S1
234
Q

Descending ____ enters the abdominal cavity through the diaphragm and becomes the abdominal aorta.

A

thoracic aorta

235
Q

The abdominal aorta divides at the level of L4 vertebra into ____

A

right and left common iliac arteries.

236
Q

The common iliac arteries divide into ____

A

internal and external iliac arteries

237
Q

______ supplies the viscera of the pelvic cavity

A

Internal iliac

238
Q

_____ passes under the inguinal ligament and enters the anterior compartment of
the thigh. It changes names to the femoral artery when crossing under the ligament.

A

External iliac

239
Q

The ______ arises from the external iliac artery before it enters the anterior thigh compartment. It supplies the inferior aspect of the anterior abdominal wall

A

inferior epigastric artery

240
Q

What is the largest vein in the body?

A

inferior vena cava

241
Q

What returns blood from both lower extremities, anterior abdominal wall and abdominal pelvic viscera?

A

inferior vena cava

242
Q

The inferior vena cava arises

A

about the L5 vertebra from a union of the common iliac veins.

243
Q

The inferior vena cava ascends through _____ in the diaphragm and continues to the heart.

A

vena cava foramen

244
Q

The diaphragm is a

A

musculotendinous partition separating the thoracic and abdominal cavities. It is the major muscle of respiration.

245
Q

The diaphragm is composed

A

Central tendon, & Peripheral muscular portion which has three parts

246
Q

The central tendon is

A

the shape of a boomerang into which the peripheral muscular portion inserts

247
Q

Three parts of the peripheral muscular portion

A

Sternal portion, Costal portion, Lumbar portion

248
Q

Sternal portion fibers arise from the

A

xiphoid and inserting into the central tendon

249
Q

The costal portion arises from

A

the internal surface of the lower six ribs and costal cartilage and
lateral and medial arcuate ligaments

250
Q

The lumbar portion arises from the

A

lumbar vertebra in the form of a right crus and left crus. The right crus arise from LV 1-3 and their intervertebral discs. The left crus arise from the LV 1,2 and their intervertebral discs.

251
Q

What are the openings in the diaphragm

A

Sternocostal hiatus, Foramen for the inferior vena cava, Esophageal hiatus, Aortic hiatus

252
Q

The sternocostal hiatus is the

A

passage of the superior epigastric vessels and some lymphatics

253
Q

The foramen for the inferior vena cava is the

A

passage for the inferior vena cava and right phrenic nerve

254
Q

The esophageal hiatus is the

A

passage for the esophagus and vagal trunks

255
Q

The aortic hiatus is the

A

passage for the aorta and thoracic ducts

256
Q

Sympathetic trunk passes posterior to the ______

A

medial arcuate ligament

257
Q

What are the regions of the cervical spine

A

upper region & lower region

258
Q

What bones are in the upper region of the cervical spine?

A

Occiput through C2-C3

259
Q

What bones are in the lower region of the cervical spine?

A

C2-C3 through C7

260
Q

What makes the cervical vertebrae different from the other vertebrae?

A

It has a transverse foramen

261
Q

What are the 4 parts of a vertebral artery?

A
  • 1st part branches from the subclavian artery
  • 2nd part ascends through transverse foramina of C6- atlas
  • 3rd part, once through transverse foramen of C1 turns 90 degrees posterior
  • 4th part is 90 degrees turn medially to gain access to vertebrobasilar system

Anatomy (9 decks)

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