exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
what two species are most susceptible to phenoxy derivatives of fatty acids (2,4-D)
A
cattle and dogs
2
Q
what species are most sensitive to phenoxy derivatives of fatty acids (2,4-D)
A
dogs
3
Q
T/F
pastures sprayed with phenoxy derivatives of fatty acids (2,4-D) in the recommended concentrations do not cause poisoning unless young or weak animal
A
true
4
Q
What is the LD50 in dogs of phenoxy derivatives of fatty acids (2,4-D)
A
100mg/kg – this is moderately toxic
5
Q
what is the MOA for phenoxy derivatives of fatty acids (2,4-D)
A
it alters the metabolism of plants which increases their toxicity by increasing accumulation of nitrate or cyanide
6
Q
T/F
phenoxy derivatives of fatty acids (2,4-D) alters rumen microflora
A
FALSE – it is not degraded by microflora in the rumen
7
Q
T/F
meat residues of phenoxy derivatives of fatty acids (2,4-D) are very common in sheep and cattle
A
FALSE
8
Q
phenoxy derivatives of fatty acids (2,4-D) is metabolized mainly by _____
A
hydrolysis
9
Q
what would enhance renal excretion of phenoxy derivatives of fatty acids (2,4-D)
A
alkanization
10
Q
T/F
phenoxy derivatives of fatty acids (2,4-D) is a chronic toxicity and accumulates in the body
A
FALSE – acute and no accumultion
11
Q
within an hour of a dog ingesting phenoxy derivatives of fatty acids (2,4-D) what would you seee
A
anorexia
weakness of muscles and ataxia with rigidity of skeletal muscles
opisthotonos and posterior paralysis
12
Q
T/F
CPK levels will decrease with phenoxy derivatives of fatty acids (2,4-D) toxicity
A
FALSE - will increase
13
Q
restricted use dipyridyl herbicide
A
paraquat
14
Q
general use dipyridyl herbicide
A
diquat
15
Q
T/F
dipyridyl herbicides are stable in the environment
A
false – rapidly inactivated by light and soil
16
Q
what does paraquat do with oxygen
A
reaction causing tissue damage
17
Q
toxicity of paraquat is enhanced by these 3 things
A
selenium vitamin E deficiency
depletion of tissue glutathione
oxygen therapy
18
Q
T/F
paraquat binds strongly to soil
A
TRUE
19
Q
dipyridyl herbicide are caustic to ______
A
mucus membranes
20
Q
which is more absorbed by the GIT
paraquat or diquat
A
paraquat
21
Q
paraquat is distributed all over the body and achieves 10X the concentrations in this body part
A
lungs
22
Q
how long does paraquat take to be excreted in the urine
A
24 hours – but the lung clinical signs are delated up to 48 hours up to 7 days !!
23
Q
where are the main lesions caused by paraquat
A
the lungs – respiratory pulmonary fibrosis, congestion, edema, collapsed lungs
24
Q
T/F
give oxygen as part of the supportive therapy treating paraquat toxicosis
A
FALSE – it is contraindicated as it may increase lung damage
25
what is the prognosis of paraquat
guarded or grave
26
what are sources of pentachlorophenol (PCP)
licking wood
inhalation
vapors penetrating skin
27
what factors increase PCP toxicity
```
high ambient temperature
oily or organice solvent vehicles
previous exposure
poor condition
newborn
hyperthyroid
```
28
MOA of PCP
blocks ATP and there is an increased oxygen demand
overheating acidosis and dehydration occur
decreased cellular energy
"animal gets roasted"
29
newborn piglet shows hyperthermia, skin irritation and rapid death
PCP toxicosis
30
T/F
| PCP may cause abortions or fetal malformations
TRUE
31
what does the blood look like in PCP tox
it is dark colored because it has been deprived of oxygen
also will see rapid rigor mortis -- does not help you save the animal though because they are dead
32
1 part NPN is how many parts protein
3 -- used as a cheap way to give protein additives to cattle
33
Important in growth, cell proliferation, Skeletal development, collagen formation, skin, feathering, wound healing
zinc
34
what is the most common source of zinc toxicity
ingestion -
35
how many pennies will a dog eat for subacute toxicity of zinc
5
36
T/F
| zinc in a dog diet typically ranges from 80 to 120 ppm
TRUE
37
chronic zinc toxicity is a low dose >____ ppm in diet over time
2000
38
for acute zinc toxicity: LD50 is about ___ mg/kg zinc salts
100
39
T/F
| A basic environment increases zinc release
FALSE -- acidic
40
T/F
| zinc is rapidly excreted from the body through the urine and liver metabolism
FALSE -- it is HIGHLY conserved
30 to 40% extracted from the liver and returns back to circulation via bile, small intestine, and absorption – enterohepatic circulation
41
how is zinc transported to the liver
largely bound to plasma proteins (albumins, globulins)
42
what is the most consistent form of zinc toxicity
intravascular hemolysis - hemolytic anemia
secondary is renal failure
43
major organ of zinc metabolism
liver --
44
sequesters metal ions for excretion
metallothionein
45
sequester free radicals associated with Zn toxicity
glutathione
46
Use these test tubes for chemical dx of zinc tox
Use trace element tubes for analysis
| = Royal/Dark blue tube top
47
why could a radiograph help in dx of zinc
foreign body ingestion - pennies?!?!
48
________ may increase zinc redistribution and absorption from the intestines and cause further damage to pancreas, kidneys, liver
chelation therapy
49
what is the prognosis for zinc
bad once they have severe hemolytic anemia -- otherwise can be good
50
which is more of an irritant
| organic or inorganic iron
inorganic
51
what state is iron absorbed as
ferrous state -- in the Small intestine
52
greater than what ppm of iron fed to piglets can cause rickets
5000ppm -- interferes with phosphate absorption
53
absorbed ferrous iron is oxidized to ___
ferric iron
54
ferric iron binds to ____ in the plasma and is distributed throughout the body
transferrin
55
3 iron binding proteins for stability, transport, and storage
Hemosiderin, ferritin, and transferrin
56
most common source of iron
oral supplements
57
which form of exposure of iron is the most toxic and which is the least
IV is most
| oral is least
58
what is iron dextran
injected in newborn pigs, 150 to 200 mg
59
What condition can make risk of iron toxicity increased in sows and piglets
selenium and vitamin E deficiency
60
T/F
| iron is highly conserved and there is not a good excretion method in animals
true
61
T/F
| chelation with sodium EDTA can result in hypercalcemia
FALSE -- hypocalcemia
62
what is the primary effect of iron toxicosis
effect is on the GIT, cardiovascular system, and liver – leading to shock and death
63
T/F
| bound iron is highly reactive and can lead to free radical lipid peroxidation and direct damage to cell membranes
FALSE -- free iron does this
64
what serum levels of iron show toxicosis
>300 mcg/dL
65
T/F
| Acid conditions favor dissolution of metal ions (Pb+2) and absorption
TRUE
66
T/F
| metallic lead is more readily absorbed than organic lead
False
67
A thumbnail sized chip of lead-based paint may contain ____ mg of lead
50- 200 mg of lead
68
what is the loswest lethal dose of lead in dogs
191 mg/kg
69
most common source of lead toxicosis in animals is what
lead based paints
70
what 3 species are most resistant to lead
chickens
goats
swine
71
T/F
| adult animals are more susceptible than puppies to lead
FALSE - puppies eat whatever they wanna
72
what does lead bind to for transportation
erythrocyte membrane for transport and then 60-90% is taken up by bone
73
T/f
| lead crosses the BBB and placenta
true
74
what do you test for antemortem cases of lead
whole blood
75
what do you test for postmortem cases of lead
kidneys and liver
76
liver chelating protein involved in cellular detoxification of inorganics - sequesters metal ions present in elevated concentrations
Metallothionein
77
3 main systems affected by lead
GIT
Blood - anemia
CNS -- edema in brain, hyperexcitability, seizures
78
what would you see on radiographs of a young animal with lead toxicosis
metaphyseal sclerosis - lead line
79
T/F
| lead tox causes regenerative anemia
false -- non regenerative
| bone marrow responds inadequately
80
T/F
| to treat lead poisoning give activated charcoal
false -- charcoal does not bind metals!!! give cathartics
81
what is the most commonly used chelating agent
Calcium disodium EDTA
82
the lethal dose of inorganic arsenic
1-25 mg/kg
| this is very potent and highly toxic~~~
83
most susceptible to inorganic arsenic
herbivores
84
3 oxidative states of inorganic arsenic
elemental
pentavelant
trivalent
85
how is inorganic arsenic excreted
rapidly in the urine - 48 hours
86
most sensitive cells to inorganic arsenic
capillary endothelial -- causes edema, hemorrhage, bloat
87
what is the cause of sudden death in peracute inorganic arsenic poisoining
hypovolemic shock
88
what tissues are most sensitive to inorganic arsenic
ones that are rich in oxidative enzymes such as intestines, liver and kidnet
89
arsanillic acid is mainly used in ___
swine
90
roxarsone is mainly used in ___
poultry
91
feed additive to improve weight gain and feed efficiency in swine and poultry
organic arsenicals
92
what conditions enhance the toxicity of organic arsenicals
dehydration, water deprivation, and renal insufficeny
93
what signs does arsenillic acid cause in pigs
acute tox is 3-5 days
| ataxia and partial paralysis but normal appetite
94
MOA of organic arsenic is perihperal nerve demyelination and axonal damage which is very similar to what deficiency
Vitamin B
95
T/F
| inorganic arsenic causes erythema in pigs
FALSE -- organic arsenic
96
what causes death in acute copper toxicosis
hypovolemic shock
97
what is the normal copper:molybedenum ratio
6:1
98
what species are resistant to copper
swine and poutry
99
T/F
| excess molybdenum can cause copper toxicosis
false -- deficiency of Mb can
can tx copper tox by giving molyb
100
copper accumulation in sheep takes how long
2-10 weeks
101
what is the significance of having liver damage with copper toxicosis
damaged hepatocytes will result in more accumulation -- secondary copper toxicosis
102
what lesions are see in copper toxicosis
icterus
hemolysis
methemoglobin
enlarged yellow friable liver
103
most common species to get copper tox
sheep
104
most common species to get molybdenum tox
cattle
105
this is a component of xanthine oxidase which converts the purine xanthine into uric acid
molybdenum
106
elevated molybdenum intereferes with ___ absorption
Copper
107
causes hepatosis dietetica in young pigs
selenium deficiency
108
causes exudative daithesis in chicks
selenium deficiency
109
causes nutritional pancreatic atrophy in chickens
selenium deficiency
110
causes white muscle disease
selenium deficiency
111
causes nutritional muscle dystrophy in calves and foals
selenium deficiency
112
daily rewuiremnet of selenium
0.1 ppm -- aka .1 mg/kg
113
T/F
| selenium is highly palatable
false and smells rotton
114
what plants have selenium
```
locoweed
milk vetch
princes plume
golden wood
woody aster
```
115
selenium contaminated water will cause teratogenic effects in ____
water fowl
116
what oxidative state of selenium is not very toxic and is poorly absorbd
selenite
117
organic arsenic can be used to treat ____ toxicosis by increasing elimination
selenium
118
what type of diet reduces toxicity of selenium
high protein
119
why is elemental Se not absorbed
it is insoluble in water
120
chronic Se exposure accumulates where
hair and hoof
121
T/f
| in acute tox of selenium (probably oral) they die in hours
ya true
122
urea is normally what percent of the grain ration
3% -- and 1% of the total ration
123
what are good sources for testing for ammonium
vitreous/ocular fluid
whole blood
rumen content
124
what should be relieved first during Tx of NPN toxicosis
bloat
125
most toxic of all NPN compounds
urea
126
who is most susceptible to NPN
ruminants
127
what pH enhances hydrolysis of urea by urease
alkaline
128
most common ionophore
monensin
129
what species is most sensitive to monensin
horses and adult turkeys
130
who is least sensitive to ionophores
poultry
131
anticoccidial in cattle, poultry, and goats
ionophores
132
T/F
| monensin is approved to improve milk efficiency in dairy cattle
true
133
how much of ionophores do horses absorb
100%
134
T/F
| monensin accumulates in tissues when fed in high doses
false - does not accumulate
135
how much do ruminants absorb of ionophores
about 50%
136
what is the drug of choice to treat micoplasma or erhlicia
tetracycline/oxycycline -- intracellular antibiotics
137
main target in the body of ionophores
mitochondria of highly energetic tissues -- then causes cell death due to disrupting homeostatic mechanisms
138
what is the best sample to test for ionophores
the feed
139
what enzymes will be elevated by ionphore tox
CPK
| AST
140
main lesions in horses from monensin
cardiac muscle lesions - pale/necrosis streaks
141
this plant causes myoglobinuria and skeletal / cardiac muscle damage similar to ionophores do
coffee senna - cassia occidentalis
142
if horses survive monensin toxicity what is their life like
they can die at any moment if too stressed - pasture pony
143
what is sodium chloride normalyl present in feed at
0.5-1%
144
if animals have free access to water, they can tolerate more than ___% of salt in feed
10%
145
sodium enters the brain by ___ diffusion and is removed by _____ transport
passive diffusion
| active transport
146
most susceptible species to water deprivation-sodium ion toxicosis
pigs
cattle
poutly
147
normal sodium level in plasma
135-145 meq/ml
148
normal sodium level in CSF
130-140
149
what is an issue of sodium trapped in the brain
water is attracted and cerebral edema occurs
150
fluid to test for sodium ion tox
serum
csf
ocular fluid
sodium will be 160 or more meq/ml
151
brain sodium concentration over ____ support soium ion tox diagnosis
2000ppm
152
T/F
| water deprivation can cause intermittent seizures
TRUE
153
T/F
| treat water deprivation by giving animal water asap
FALSE -- give small amounts of water over 2-3 days graduallt
154
what is a concern if large amount of water is given at one time to treat water deprevation
death by aggrevating cerebral edema
155
how many spelling errors are in this brainscapre
limit does not exist
156
also called Compound 1080
Sodium fluoroacetate
157
T/F
| Fluoroacetate is an irritant with a strong odor
False - no odor
158
T/F
| birds are the most sensitive to Fluoroacetate
FALSE - birds most resistant followed by rodents
carnivores are the most sensitive
159
how much Fluoroacetate does it take a rodent to be poisoned
Rodents 5-8 mg/kg
| compared to Dogs 0.06-0.2 mg/kg
160
T/F
| Fluoroacetate undergoes lethal sysnthesis
true --Metabolized to fluorocitrate “lethal synthesis” in mitochondria
161
how long does Fluoroacetate take to be excreted by the urine
24 hours
162
Fluoroacetate MOA
Blocks the TCA cycle - energy depletion
Inhibition of aconitase interferes with cellular respiration
Accumulation of citrate binds with serum calcium – hypocalcemia and heart failure
163
Fluoroacetate target organs
brain, CNS, cardiopulmonary
164
T/F
| Fluoroacetate clinical signs will take 12 or more hours to develop
FALSE - very fast onset -- 30 min up to 4 hours
death in 2-12 hours
165
Fluoroacetate cardiac signs predominate in this animal
horses -- Death may be due to arrhythmias or resp failure/anoxia
166
what is a consistent feature in cats poisoned by Fluoroacetate
vocalization
167
what will be elevated on lab analysis from Fluoroacetate poisoning
citrate levels !
168
what specimen is chem analysis run on for Fluoroacetate toxicosis
GIT contents
169
TX for Fluoroacetate
since onset and death happens so fast, may not have time
emetics and lavage tho
170
Registered with EPA as restricted use pesticide (RUP) – highly toxic
Strychnine
171
Strychnine persists in the environment for how long
40 days
172
What species is most frequently poisoned by Strychnine
dogs - maliciously :(
| dogs are also more sensitive than cats
173
Strychnine toxic dose in dogs
Dogs: 0.5-1.2 mg/kg
174
Strychnine toxic dose in cats
2mg/kg
175
T/F
| vomiting decreases toxicity of Strychnine
TRUE
176
where is Strychnine absorbed
mucosa of the GIT
177
this toxin antagonizes glycine, binds to the chlorine ion channel, and results in increased neuronal excitability and an exaggerated reflex arc
Strychnine
178
how can you differentiate between Strychnine and compound 1080 poisoning
with Strychnine Intermittent muscle contractions are triggered by emotional, auditory or minimal physical stimuli
179
Strychnine onset of signs? and death is caused by?
10 min - 2 hours ... rapid death from resp failure
180
a form of vitamin D needed to maintain calcium balance by enhancing absorption of
calcium from the GIT and kidneys
Cholecalciferol
181
Toxic doses of this lead to high calcium and phosphorus level in the body, resulting in acute or chronic kidney failure
Cholecalciferol
182
T/F
| young animals can be exposed to Cholecalciferol through milk
TRUE
183
T/F
| Cholecalciferol has a wide safety margin
FALSE - very narrow small amounts can lead to severe signs and death
184
what does Cholecalciferol do to calcium and phosphorus levels
increases them both
PTH will be decreased
mineralization onto soft tissue organs
185
T/F
| Bromethalin is an anticoagulant
FALSE - non-coagulant
186
T/F
| Bromethalin and its main metabolite desmobromethalin are strong couplers of oxidative phosphorylation
FALSE - strong uncouplers
187
T/F
| treat Bromethalin with Vitamin K1 as an antidote
false
188
Single-dose, non-anticoagulant rodenticide
Bromethalin
189
T/F
| cats are more sensitive than dogs and dogs are more susceptible than cats to Bromethalin
TRUE
190
T/F
| Bromethalin is highly lipophobic
false - highly lipophilic
191
T/F Bromethalin is mainly excreted by urine
FALSE
| it is bile -- undergoes hepatic recirculation!!!
192
surfactant or a mixture of surfactants derived from petrochemicals (hydrocarbons) with cleaning properties
detergent
193
which are the highest toxicity detergents:
nonionic
anionic
cationic
cationic are highest toxicity - positively charged
| Fabric softeners, germicides
194
T/F
| phenolic compounds have low toxicity
false - high
195
Derived from coal tar - a type of alcohol that denatures
| proteins and dissolves lipids
phenolic compounds
196
how are phenolics metabolized
metabolized by glucuronidation
197
detergent or phenol moa:
| direct denature and precipitation of proteins leading to coagulative necrosis
phenols
198
detergents or phenols MOA :
| direct irritation of skin and mucous membranes, degree of caustic damage is relative to the agent
detergents
199
T/F
| Calcium hypochlorite is a bleaching liquid
false -- bleaching powder
Sodium hypochlorite is a bleaching liquid
200
Toxicity primarily due to absorption of phosphine gas
Zinc Phosphide
201
Zinc Phosphide death ...
occurs in 3-48 hours due to tissue anoxia
202
how do antacids help with Zinc Phosphide decontamination
they raise the gastic ph above 4
203
Acetylene, garlic or fishy odor to vomitus/GI contents is from???
zinc phosphide tox
204
what is the lethal dose for most animals with zinc phosphide
Lethal dose for most animals ~20-40mg/kg
205
Which of the following are the ‘vitamin K dependent’ coagulation factors?
9, 10, 7, 2
206
odor and taste of rodenticides
none
207
T/F
| the action of anticoaguant rodenticides is fast and quicker than 24 hours
FALSe - Action is slow
Generally not less than 24-36 hours for any product
for 1st generation ones it could take a week
208
how do first generation anticoagulant rodenticides work
take about a week --Single dose toxicity may be 50-100x multiple dose toxicity
meant to kill rats and mice by them eating a bit over 6 days
209
how do second generation anticoagulant rodenticides work
effective after one dose.
| Acute oral LD50 for a dog: Warfarin 20-50mg/kg Brodifacoum 0.2-4mg/kg
210
who is the most sensitive to anticoagulant rodenticides
dogs
211
```
put animals in the correct order of sensitivity to anticoagulant rodenticides
dogs
cats
ruminants
chickens
pigs
horses
```
Pigs, dogs and cats, ruminants, horses and chickens
212
what factors will enhance Anticoagulant Rodenticides toxicity
```
vitamin k deficiency
preexisting liver disease
enzyme inhibitors
conditions like hemorrhage, surgery
steroid admin
```
213
Anticoagulant Rodenticides reach peak level in the blood after how many hours
6-12
214
T/F
| Anticoagulant Rodenticides do not bind to plasma proteins which is why they cause such an issue
false - highly bound
215
T/F warfarin is a second generation Anticoagulant Rodenticide
FALSE - first
216
what is warfarin half life
19 hours
217
Brodifacoum half life
6 days !! -- second generation
218
Anticoagulant Rodenticides MOA
Inhibit vitamin K epoxide reductase -- leads to vitamin K depletion
219
T/F
| first generation anticoagulant rodenticides are more potent than second generation
FALSE - reverse
220
how do anticoagulant rodenticides cause abortion in cattle
placental hemorrhage
221
T/F
| there is always evidence of external bleeding with anticoagulant rodenticides
false - animals may even die without
222
what is a secondary lesion of anticoagulant rodenticides
bacterial pneumonia
223
what is the treatment for anticoag rodenticide tox
Vitamin K1 -- vitamin K3 is NOT effective
given orally
will improve in 24 hours
224
T/F
| to tx anticoagulant rodenticide tox give vitamin K1 IV to act fast
FALSE -risk of anaphylaxis
oral or parenteral -- have same absorption
225
how to treat a dog that got warfarin and has Clinical – bleeding, PCV < 15%, unstable
Give clotting factors and RBCs (fresh whole blood or FFP with packed RBCs)
Start vitamin K, monitor closely, supportive care
226
Rich in low-temperature distillates such as
| gasoline, kerosene and naphtha
sweet crude oil
227
Contains high sulfur high-temp distillates, such as lubricating oil and gas oil
sour crude oil,
228
which is more lethal: sweet crude oil or sour crude oil
sweet crude oil - gasoline
229
The minimal lethal dose based on death caused by aspiration pneumonia over a week for sweet crude oil
Sweet crude oil, 48 mL/kg
230
The minimal lethal dose based on death caused by aspiration pneumonia over a week for sour crude oil
Sour crude oil, 74 mL/kg
231
T/F
| petroleum is an irritant and is oily in nature
true -- caustic and dissolve cell membranes
232
what can chronic exposure to petroleum on the skin cause
hyperkeratosis
233
T/F
| Short-chain aliphatics cause aspiration pneumonia
FALSE - long chain do
234
Chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbon toxicity effects what system
CNS
235
Aromatic hydrocarbons at 60 ppm in air following chronic exposure can cause____________
bone marrow suppression
236
______ are the most susceptible to crude petroleum substances
cattle
237
T/F
low boiling point petroleums are generally less toxic than high boiling point ones because of more absorption via inhalation
FALSE -- low bp are more toxic
Low boiling points = low viscosity = low surface tension generally have more pneumotoxic (lung) effects through inhalation, thus impairing respiration
238
Highly volatile aliphatics (short-chain) are partly metabolized and excreted through the _____
lungs
239
how does petroleum cause aspiration pneumonia
ingestion leads to vomiting
direct contact can rapidly dissolve the cell - cause edema and bronchoconstriction
oily in the lungs cannot be coughed up
240
T/F
| activated charcoal and emetics tx petroleum
true
241
fluoride has a high affinity to this mineral
calcium
242
acute fluoride toxicosis (fluorosis) is the most
| common
FALSE - chronic is
243
T/F
Soluble sodium fluoride (NaF) is more toxic than
calcium fluoride (CaF2)
TRUE
244
what age animals are most susceptible to fluoride tox
young bc bones and teeth developing
245
best specimen to test for fluoride
bone -- Levels >1500 ppm are significant
246
how to treat fluoride
once it is in the bone and teeth it can not be mobilized -- need to prevent by keeping out of food or levels low
247
antifreeze ingestion
ethylene glycol
248
Some commercial antifreeze products have ____ rust inhibitor
phosphate
249
taste of antifreeze
sweet -- but is colorless and odorless
250
ethylene glycol half life in dogs
3-4 hours
251
how is ethylene glycol metabolized
in the liver INTO toxic metabolites -- lethal synthesis
252
Ethylene Glycol is oxidized by alcohol dehydrogenase to
glycoaldehyde
253
Glycoaldehyde is oxidized by aldehyde dehydrogenase to
glycolic acid
254
what do the toxic metabolites of ethylene glycol cause
metabolic acidosis and acute renal failure
255
what crystals form that are diagnostic of EG
Calcium oxalate monohydrate
256
signs of ethylene glycol appear within 30 min - 12 hours
Signs include nausea/vomiting, anorexia, CNS depression, ataxia, incoordination, hypothermia, muscle fasciculations, tachycardia, tachypnea, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, coma, and death
257
T/F
| ethylene glycol toxicosis lowers the anion gap
FALSE - increases it
258
T/F
| ethylene glycol causes hyophosphatemia
false - hyperphosphatemia
also hyperkalemia , hypocalcemia, hyperglycemia
259
Catachem Ethylene Glycol test
no false positive with ethanol
260
ethylene glycol antidote
Inhibitors of alcohol dehydrogenase Inhibit formation of toxic metabolites
Most effective if started within 3hr of EG ingestion
261
best treatment for EG given IV to dogs and cats
Fomepizole (4-methylpyrazole, 4-MP) Antizol-Vet®
20% ethanol is slower recovery but can also be used
