exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

main aspects of clinical toxicology

A

diagnosis

and treatment

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2
Q

foreign chemicals that the body does not produce

A

xenobiotics

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3
Q

any substance when applied to the body may interfere with life processes or biological functions of the cells of the animal

A

poison - toxicant

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4
Q

T/F

majority of poisons are organic synthetic

A

TRUE

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5
Q

a poison from a biological process

A

toxin - biotoxin

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6
Q

used to describe the deleterious or undesirable effects of poisons

A

toxic

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7
Q

the disease caused by exposure to a toxin

A

toxicosis or poisoning

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8
Q

the amount of poison the under certain circumstances will cause toxic effects

A

toxicity

LD 50 mammals
LC 50 birds

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9
Q

how is lethal dose expressed in mammals?

in birds? in fish?

A

LD 50 in mg/kg body wt mammal

LC 50 in mg/kg feed in birds

LC 50 in mg/L water in fish

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10
Q

the effect of a single dose or multiple doses in a 24 hour period

A

acute

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11
Q

the effect from daily exposure for 1 to 30 days

A

subacute

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12
Q

effect of exposure from 30-90 days

A

sub chronic

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13
Q

effect produced by daily exposure for 3 months of more

A

chronic

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14
Q

the ratio between acute LD50 and chronic LD50

A

chronicity factor

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15
Q

What does a small value chronicity factor mean

A

the chemical is not cumulative

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16
Q

what does it mean if the value of the chronicity factor is 2 or greater

A

the chemical is cumulative

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17
Q

T/F

if the chemical is not cumulative it is always acute toxicity

A

TRUE

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18
Q

relative toxicity of 1mg/kg or less

A

extremely toxic

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19
Q

relative toxicity of > 1-50 mg/kg

A

highly toxic

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20
Q

relative toxicity of > 50-500 mg/kg

A

moderately toxic

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21
Q

relative toxicity of > .5 - 5 g/kg

A

slightly toxic

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22
Q

relative toxicity of > 5-15 g/kg

A

practically non toxic

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23
Q

relative toxicity of > 15 g/kg

A

harmless

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24
Q

the highest dose which dose not result in undesirable or toxic alterations

A

highest nontoxic dose (HNTD)

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25
Q

the lowest dose which produces toxic alterations and administering twice this dose will not cause death

A

toxic dose low (TDL)

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26
Q

the dose which produces toxic alterations and administering twice this dose will result in death

A

toxic dose high (TDH)

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27
Q

is the amount of a chemical that can be ingested without causing any deaths or alterations in any of the animals for the stated period

A

no-effect level

max non toxic level

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28
Q

LD0

A

highest dose that does not cause any death

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29
Q

LD100

A

lowest dose that kills all the animals in a group

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30
Q

the danger from the possibility of exposure

A

hazard

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31
Q

ratio between LD50 and ED50

A

therapeutic index

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32
Q

T/F

a low therapeutic index = low toxicity

A

FALSE – lower index is more toxic

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33
Q

who is more sensitive to toxins:

dogs or cats

A

cats

dogs are more susceptible

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34
Q

what species is sensitive to monensin

A

horses

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35
Q

T/F

compounds with cumulative effects have a lower chronicity factor -

A

false – higher chronicity factor

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36
Q

T/F

warfarin is a cumulative toxicant

A

TRUE

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37
Q

t/F

caffeine is a slowly excreted toxin

A

false - rapidly excreted

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38
Q

defined by a comparison of toxicity and use level

A

risk

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39
Q

T/F

monensin is much more toxic than urea

A

TRUE

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40
Q

the most common method of expressing concentrations in vet toxicology

A

ppm on wt/wt basis

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41
Q

how to convert from ppm to percentage

A

move decimal 4 places to the left

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42
Q

convert from percentage to ppm

A

move the decimal 4 places to the right

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43
Q

100 g/ton = ___ ppm

A

110ppm

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44
Q

units for toxicity

A

mg/kg

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45
Q

1 ounce = ___ g

A

30g

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46
Q

1 fluid oz = ___ ml

A

30

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47
Q

1 ml = __ cc

A

1 cc

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48
Q

1 kg = ___ pounds

A

2.2 lbs

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49
Q

most common route of exposure of toxicants

A

oral

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50
Q

2nd most common route of exposure of toxicants

A

inhalation - toxic gases

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51
Q

least common route of exposure of toxicants

A

injection

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52
Q

what is lethal synthesis

A

when the metabolite is more toxic than the parent compound

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53
Q

how do most xenobiotics cross the membrane

A

simple diffusion – depends on concentration gradient
they go from high to low
high lipid solubility will cross faster
higher degree ionization will go faster

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54
Q

most commonly used species in safety testing

A

dogs and rats

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55
Q

observation period for acute toxicity

A

1 - 14 days

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56
Q

induction of chromosomal changes

A

mutagenicity

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57
Q

can be obtained through detailed case history and thorough clinical and post mortem examinations

A

tentative diagnosis

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58
Q

can be reached when the history and the clinical signs are supported by circumstantial evidence and identification of the toxic source

A

presumptive diagnosis

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59
Q

main approach to diagnosis

A

history

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60
Q

unique to toxicology and involves ante/postmortem specimens for Dx

A

chemical analysis

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61
Q

T/F

most diseases do not have pathognomonic signs

A

TRUE

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62
Q

chemical tests results

A

positive does not always mean intoxication

negative does not always mean not poisoned

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63
Q

T/F

specimens submitted to lab should be washed

A

FALSE - not washed

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64
Q

T/F specimens submitted to lab should be frozen

A

true

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65
Q

blood samples should be ___ and other body fluids should be ___ when submitted

A

refrigerated

frozen

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66
Q

only preservative that can be added to samples when histopathology is needed

A

10% formalin
or
70% alcohol

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67
Q

T/F

an acutely poisoned animal must be treated as an emergency

A

TRUE

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68
Q

what are the 4 principles of treatment

A

symptomatic/supportive
removal of poison
antidotal
observation

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69
Q

what is the time window to give an emetic

A

1-2 hours following ingestion

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70
Q

emetic of choice in dogs

A

apomorphine

**can be given all routes but IV is fastest or given in the conjunctiva

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71
Q

contraindications for giving an emetic

A
unconscious 
corrosives
petroleum products 
dehydration
animals showing convulsions
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72
Q

MOA of apomorphine

A

stimulates the dopamine receptors to stimulate the CRTZ and induce vomiting

this is an indirect stimulation

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73
Q

opioid antagonist that will reverse the emetic effects of apomorphine

A

naloxone

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74
Q

T/F

too much apomorphine can actually inhibit vomiting centers

A

TRUE

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75
Q

T/F

acepromazine is an emetic

A

FALSE - anti emetic

also a dopamine antagonist

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76
Q

emetic of choice in cat

A

xylazine

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77
Q

how can xylazine be given to a cat?

what is a side effect?

A

IV or IM

causes CNS depression for several hours

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78
Q

typical gastric lavage fluid

A

tap water

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79
Q

T/F

gastric lavages are done in awake alert animals

A

FALSE – unconscious or anesthetized animals

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80
Q

physical binding of a toxicant – no electrons or chemical interactions involved

A

adsorption

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81
Q

adsorbent of choice

A

activated charcoal

activated means more porous – more surface area to bind the toxicants

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82
Q

T/F

charcoal with a large particle size is most effective

A

false - small particle size most effective

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83
Q

10 things that charcoal sucks for

A
ethanol
methanol
heavy metal salts 
fluoride 
iodides 
nitrate
nitrite
sodium chloride 
bleach
fertilizer
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84
Q

top 2 diuretics used in fluid therapy of toxins

A

mannitol

furosemide

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85
Q

when is peritoneal dialysis used

A

when animal is suffering from oliguria or anuria

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86
Q

how long are organophosphate pesticides persistent in the environment

A

2-4 weeks

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87
Q

where are organophosphates absorbed

A

GIT
skin
mucous membranes
or inhalation

they are distributed throughout the body

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88
Q

most common form of toxicosis for organophosphates

A

acute

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89
Q

T/F

some organophosphates are teratogenic in chickens

A

TRUE

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90
Q

which receptors are most sensitive to organophosphates

A

muscarinic

irreversible inhibition of cholinesterases - myopathies

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91
Q

what is the cause of death in high exposure of organophosphates

A

respiratory failure

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92
Q

organophosphate acute toxicity signs

A

salivation
lacrimation
urination
diarrhea

bronchial secretions
anxiety and restlessness
could be muscle paralysis

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93
Q

if animals survive acute toxicity of organophosphates what is seen in the delayed toxicity signs

A

muscle weakness and ataxia
rear limb paralysis – may not be reversible

degeneration and demyelination of peripheral and spinal motor neurons

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94
Q

what is the acetycholinesterase level in whole blood with organophosphate toxicosis

A

usually less than 25% the normal level

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95
Q

how can you tell if s patient was poisoned with organophosphates using atropine

A

patients who were not OP poisoned will show dry mucous membranes and tachycardia when given atropine

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96
Q

treatment for OP poisoning

A

atropine sulfate - every 3 to 6 hours
2PAM chloride - every 12 hours
diphenhydramine - antagonize nicotinic effects
oxygen therapy if dyspnea or cyanosis

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97
Q

T/F

there is no storage activation with carbamate pesticides

A

TRUE

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98
Q

what age is most sensitive to carbamates

A

YOUNG – especially if deficient in liver enzymes

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99
Q

T/F

carbamates require enzymatic activation

A

FALSE

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100
Q

T/F

carbamate is easily detectable in tissues and blood samples

A

FALSE – it is too rapidly metabolized and so rarely detected

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101
Q

what species is most sensitive to organochlorines

A

cats

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102
Q

T/F

organochlorines typically have a low toxicity to mammals

A

TRUE

103
Q

T/F

organochlorines are insoluble in water

A

TRUE

104
Q

what is the main storage tissue of organochlorines

A

fat

105
Q

where are organochlorines excreted from the body

A

bile, feces, urine, and milk

106
Q

this insecticide may cause abnormal postures and backwards walking in cattle

A

chlorinated hydrocarbon – organochlorines

107
Q

this insecticide may cause birds to show depression, abnormal postures, apparent blindness and death

A

chlorinated hydrocarbon – organochlorines

108
Q

lesions to carcasses with hlorinated hydrocarbon – organochlorines poisoning

A

bruised, lacerated and dirty from the convulsions

congestion and edema in several organs

109
Q

T/F
fat concentrations are a better indicator than brain concentrations for hlorinated hydrocarbon – organochlorines toxicosis

A

FALSE – brain is best

110
Q

what will confirm acute toxicosis of hlorinated hydrocarbon – organochlorines

A

if it is in the brain, liver, or blood at ppm

111
Q

clinical signs for hlorinated hydrocarbon – organochlorines toxicosis

A

CNS signs – salivation, nausea, vomiting, tremors, hyperthermia, seizures

112
Q

commonly used for flea and tick control in dogs and cats

A

pyrethrins and pyrethroids

113
Q

T/F

pyrethrins are esters and are lipid soluble

A

TRUE

114
Q

very rapidly inactivated by plasma and liver esterases and liver oxidases

A

pyrethrins

115
Q

pyrethrins are rapidly metabolized where

A

GIT

116
Q

what species is pyrethrins most toxic to

A

fish and birds

117
Q

clinical signs of pyrethrins poisoning

A
salivation
vomit/diarrhea 
hyperexcitable 
tremors 
seizures 
dyspnea 
death
118
Q

used as piscicide to kill fish

A

rotenone

119
Q

used for ear mites in dogs cats rabbits

A

rotenone

120
Q

which route of rotenone is most dangerous

A

inhalation

121
Q

which form of rotenone is most dangerous

A

emulsified concentrate – highly toxic

122
Q

what species is resistant to rotenone

A

chickens

123
Q

what 3 species are sensitive to rotenone

A

birds
cats
pigs

124
Q

blocks oxidation of NADH to NAD and oxidation of substrates such as glutamate and pyruvate

A

rotenone

125
Q

treatment for what include keeping the animal warm and shampooing the skin

A

d-limonene

126
Q

how long does it take sublethal toxicosis of d-limonene to resolve

A

6-12 hours

excellent prognosis

127
Q

T/F

nicotene is caustic

A

true

128
Q

what species does nicotine have teratogenic effects in

A

sows and cows

129
Q

cause of death from nicotine

A

respiratory failure

130
Q

if a toxicant is not absorbed it is a ____ effect

A

local

131
Q

T/F

basic drugs bind to albumin

A

FALSE

132
Q

what is the order of drug disposition

A

Absorption
distribution
biotransformation
excretion

133
Q

T/F

pinocytosis is passive diffusion

A

TRUE

134
Q

T/F

conjugation is a phase 1 metabolic reaction

A

FALSE

135
Q

Which species lacks dealkylation

A

cats

136
Q

which species lacks sulfate conjugation enzymes

A

pigs

137
Q
which one causes CNS stimulation 
A. Organochlorines
B. Organophosphates
C. Carbamates
D. Naphthalene
E. Nicotine
A

A - organochlorines

138
Q

T/F

bioaccumulation occurs in birds of prey

A

FALSE - bioactivation

139
Q

T/F
Chlorinated alicyclic types inhibit the Cl-
channels of the GABA receptors

A

TRUE

140
Q

what is the most common way organochlorines are absorbed

A

dermal

141
Q

which is biologically active:
A. Phosphate (P=O)
B. Thiophasphate (P=S)

A

A

142
Q

T/F
Carbamates have reversible inhibition of AChE and
OP have Irreversible inhibition of cholinesterases

A

TRUE

143
Q
which is an appropriate tx for smoke inhalation?
A. Steroid
B. Cough suppressant
C. Opioid
D. Beta2 adrenergic agonists
A

D

144
Q

what color is ammonia

A

colorless

145
Q

what color is sulfur oxide

A

colorless

146
Q

smells like rotten eggs

A

hydrogen sulfide

147
Q

if a toxicant is metabolized by oxidative enzymes who will do it fastest

A

cows

148
Q

what is the most reliable method to diagnose a toxin

A

chemical analysis of the blood or tissues

149
Q

best sample to submit to confirm organophosphate poisoning

A

whole blood

150
Q

2-PAM antagonizes the toxic effects of organophosphates by

A

reactivation of acetylcholinesterase

151
Q
Immediate administration of which of the following is MOST likely to treat muscle fasciculation resulting from
organosphosphate insecticide poisoning?
a. fluid therapy
b. oxygen
c. atropine
d. 2-PAM
e. acetylcysteine
A

2-PAM

152
Q

An insecticide that causes hyperglycemia due to inhibition of insulin secretion is

A

amitraz

153
Q

tx for early cases of nicotine toxicosis

A

mecamylamine as a ganglionic blocker

154
Q

treats the PSNS effects of nicotine toxicosis

A

atropine

155
Q

miticide in cattle and swine

A

amitraz

156
Q

used in flea and tick collars for dogs but bad for cats and horses

A

amitraz

157
Q

T/F

amitraz concentrate is flammable

A

true

158
Q

LD50 for acute toxicity in dogs with amitraz

A

100mg/kg

159
Q

what dose can cause sedation/subacute toxicity in some dogs from amitraz

A

20mg/kg

160
Q

T/F

meperidine or sympathomimetic amines increase the toxicity of amitraz

A

true

161
Q

what clincal signs will amitraz cause

A

CNS collapse and respiratory depression

162
Q

drug antidote for amitraz

A

a2 antagonist - yohimbin

163
Q

T/F

amitraz will cause hypoglycemia and hepatomegaly

A

FALSE – hyperglycemia due to inhibiting insulin

164
Q

combined with fenvalerate as a repellent and insecticide for dogs and cats

A

DEET

165
Q

__ ppm of DEET is diagnostic

A

20

166
Q

oxidation products of this moth repellent cause hemolytic anemia and methemoglobinemia

A

naphthalene

167
Q

causes cataracts in neonates

A

naphthalene

168
Q

how can methemoglobinemia be treated

A

20mg/kg ascorbic acid – for naphthalene tox

169
Q

used to prevent heartworm

A

ivermectin

170
Q

ivermectin MOA

A

GABA agonist

171
Q

specific antidote for ivermectin but with a narrow safety msrgin

A

picrotoxin

172
Q

what given IV could have an effect in a comatose animal from ivermectin toxicosis

A

physostigmine IV

173
Q

what is metaldehyde soluble in

A

benzene

chloroform and oil

174
Q

species most susceptible to molluscicides

A

dogs

175
Q

T/F

molluscicides are more toxic by inhalation than ingestion

A

TRUE

176
Q

T?F

both metaldehyde and acetaldehyde cross the BBB

A

true

177
Q

which is heavier
air
ammonia

A

ammonia

178
Q

Soluble in water and readily reacts with hydroxyl ions in moist mucous membranes to form ammonium hydroxide which is irritant and caustic

A

ammonia

179
Q

what ppm makes your eyes burn with ammonia

A

25-35 ppm

180
Q

exposure to ____ ppm of ammonia can cause accute deat

A

5000

181
Q

ammonia is converted to this strong irritant when it touches mucous membranes

A

ammonium hydroxide

182
Q

How is ammonia absorbed

A

inhalation

183
Q

T/F

ammonia causes decreased growth rates in young

A

tru

184
Q

Inhalation of large concentrations causes pulmonary edema and lung congestion due to increased permeability of lung capillaries

A

ammonia

185
Q

T/F

ammonia increases cellular respiration and the TCA cycle

A

false decreases

**causes asphyxia

186
Q

T/F

ammonia is odorless

A

FALSE – distinct odor

187
Q

odor of rotten eggs

A

hydrogen sulfide

188
Q

hydrogen sulfide is ____ soluble

A

water

189
Q

sulfides with ___ form black or dark-colored compounds in GIT and tissues

A

iron

190
Q

what is hydrogen sulfide converted to in solutions

A

sulfuric acid – irritant

191
Q

what is hydrogen sulfide converted to when it contacts with moist mucous membranes

A

sulfide – irritant

192
Q

what are normal and deadly levels of hydrogen sulfide

A

10ppm

1000ppm

193
Q

this is the most dangerous sewage gas

A

H2S

194
Q

> 2000 ppm respiratory paralysis after 1-2 breaths

A

hydrogen sulfide

195
Q

H2S is converted to _____ in the

blood

A

alkali sulfides

196
Q

acute toxic levels for mammals of hydrogen sulfide

A

~500-800 ppm

197
Q

MOA of H2S

A

Inhibition of cellular respiration - decreased cytochrome oxidase

198
Q

binds sulfide radicals and reactivates cytochrome oxidase

A

methemoglobin

199
Q

give this IV to tx H2S toxicity

A

sodium nitrate – will form methemoglobin

200
Q

most effective treatment for H2S

A

prevention

201
Q

what is the color and odor of carbon monoxide

A

none

202
Q

T/F

carbon monoxide is water soluble

A

true

203
Q

T/F

fetus are not very sensitive to carbon monoixde

A

false

204
Q

CO _____ ppm (0.1%) can cause clinical signs and death with 1 hr exposure

A

> 1000

205
Q

T/F

carboxyhemoglobin can carry oxygen

A

FALSE

206
Q

interferes with release of oxygen carried by normal

hemoglobin

A

carboxyhemoglobin

207
Q

what forms with hemoglobin to make carboxyhemoglobin

A

carbon monoxide

208
Q

how does death from carbon monoxide occur

A

hypoxia

209
Q

what color is blood and mm in CO poisoning

A

bright red

pink

210
Q

TX for CO poisoning

A

Oxygen or 5% CO2 in oxygen administered with positive pressure

211
Q

“Silo filler’s disease”

A

nitrous oxide poisoning

212
Q

NO2 color

A

reddish brown

213
Q

N2O4 color

A

colorless

214
Q

color of N2O4 and NO2 mixed

A

yellowish

215
Q

smell of N2O4 and NO2 mixed

A

chlorine like odor

216
Q

what ppm of nitrogen oxide gases will cause mild irritation of eyes and mucosa of the upper resp tract

A

50-150

217
Q

Nitrogen dioxide and tetraoxide gases (NO2- N2O4) form ______ upon contact with mucous membranes

A

nitric acid

218
Q

T/F

nitrogen oxide gases can cause pulmonary edema by crossing the cell mucosa into the lungs

A

TRUE

*bc they are soluble gases

219
Q

T/F

nitrogen oxide gases cause death by resp failure and hypoxemia

A

true

220
Q

MOA of nitric gases

A

Direct irritation of the mucous membranes by nitric

acid

221
Q

what does nitric gases poisoning do to the skeletal muscle

A

Cyanosis, methemoglobinemia (more Fe+3 than Fe+2) and necrosis

222
Q

give ____ iv for methemoglobinemia to treat in nitrci gases

A

methylene blue

223
Q

industrial pollutants from fossil fuel combustion

A

sulfur oxide

224
Q

MOA sulfur oxide

A

Direct irritation of the mucous membranes and
reflex bronchoconstriction
 Lung damage
 Death is due to hypoxia (cell/tissue death)

225
Q

T/F

80% of fire-related deaths are from smoke inhalation and not from the burns

A

TRUE

226
Q

T/F

smoke is a heterogeneous mixture of gases

A

true

227
Q

inert (CO2) gases or vapors that displace oxygen

A

simple asphyxiants

228
Q

prevent uptake of oxygen (CO) and changes the oxygen carrying capactiy of hemoglobin

A

chemical asphyxiants

229
Q

T/F

simple asphyxiants lead to an oxygen deprived environment

A

true

230
Q

T/F

give steroids to tx smoke inhalation

A

FALSE

231
Q

causes opisthotnos in cats

A

molluscicides

metaldehyde

232
Q

T/F

cats that recover from the acute the acute phase of molluscicide poisoning will develop liver damage in 2-3 days

A

FALSE – DOGS not cats

233
Q

causes petechial or ecchymotic hemorrhage in GI mucosa

A

molluscicide – metaldehyde

234
Q

species most susceptible to ammonia

A

livestock

235
Q

If a toxicant is inactivated by hydroxylation, which of the following animals will be more
resistant to its actions?

A

cattle

236
Q
Which of the following should NOT be used in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning
in dogs?
a. acepromazine
b. atropine
c. activated charcoal
d. diphenhdramine
e. diazepam
A

ACE

237
Q

A reddish-brown gas that produces bronchial constriction and pulmonary edema is

A

nitrogen dioxide

238
Q

The first clinical signs in organophosphate poisoning are MAINLY due to

A

muscarinic stimulation

239
Q

The PRFEFERRED method of preserving tissues for chemical analysis is

A

freezing them

240
Q

Pytethrins have low toxicity to mammals MAINLY because why

A

they are rapidly metabolized

241
Q

Which of the following insecticides or insect repellents is/are MOST likely to cause
hemolytic anemia and methemoglobinemia?

A

napthalene

242
Q
Generally, which of the following insecticides causes the most rapid onset and duration of
clinical signs?
a. oraganophosphate
b. carbamate
c. chlorinate hydrocarbon
d. nicotine
e. pyrethroid
A

d- nicotine

243
Q

2-PAM antagonizes the toxic effects of organophosphates by??

A

reactivation of acetylcholinesterases

244
Q

Clinical signs of delayed organophosphate toxicosis are MAINLY due to

A

peripheral neurotoxicity

245
Q

Immediate administration of which of the following is MOST likely to treat muscle fasciculation resulting from
organosphosphate insecticide poisoning?

A

2-PAM

246
Q

Which of the following insecticides is less toxic to young calves (30-day old) than adult cattle?

A

parathion

247
Q

An insecticide that causes hyperglycemia due to inhibition of insulin secretion is

A

amitraz

248
Q

Blood transfusion is MOST likely to be required in treating toxicosis with which of the following
insecticides/insect repellents?

A

napthalene

249
Q

Most common cause of toxicosis in animals is

A

pesticides

250
Q

The most common conjugation reaction is

A

glucuroinidation

251
Q

The preferred medication for initial control of seizures in a dog with an unknown intoxicant would be

A

diazepam

252
Q

Early death in metaldehyde toxicosis is MAINLY due to

A

resp failure

253
Q

Which of the following toxicoses is MOST likely to be associated with formaldehyde odor in stomach contents
duirng postmortem examintion?

A

metaldehyde

254
Q

Dogs that survive the acute phase of 3 hours will develop liver failure from what toxicant?

A

metaldehyde