exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
main aspects of clinical toxicology
A
diagnosis
and treatment
2
Q
foreign chemicals that the body does not produce
A
xenobiotics
3
Q
any substance when applied to the body may interfere with life processes or biological functions of the cells of the animal
A
poison - toxicant
4
Q
T/F
majority of poisons are organic synthetic
A
TRUE
5
Q
a poison from a biological process
A
toxin - biotoxin
6
Q
used to describe the deleterious or undesirable effects of poisons
A
toxic
7
Q
the disease caused by exposure to a toxin
A
toxicosis or poisoning
8
Q
the amount of poison the under certain circumstances will cause toxic effects
A
toxicity
LD 50 mammals
LC 50 birds
9
Q
how is lethal dose expressed in mammals?
in birds? in fish?
A
LD 50 in mg/kg body wt mammal
LC 50 in mg/kg feed in birds
LC 50 in mg/L water in fish
10
Q
the effect of a single dose or multiple doses in a 24 hour period
A
acute
11
Q
the effect from daily exposure for 1 to 30 days
A
subacute
12
Q
effect of exposure from 30-90 days
A
sub chronic
13
Q
effect produced by daily exposure for 3 months of more
A
chronic
14
Q
the ratio between acute LD50 and chronic LD50
A
chronicity factor
15
Q
What does a small value chronicity factor mean
A
the chemical is not cumulative
16
Q
what does it mean if the value of the chronicity factor is 2 or greater
A
the chemical is cumulative
17
Q
T/F
if the chemical is not cumulative it is always acute toxicity
A
TRUE
18
Q
relative toxicity of 1mg/kg or less
A
extremely toxic
19
Q
relative toxicity of > 1-50 mg/kg
A
highly toxic
20
Q
relative toxicity of > 50-500 mg/kg
A
moderately toxic
21
Q
relative toxicity of > .5 - 5 g/kg
A
slightly toxic
22
Q
relative toxicity of > 5-15 g/kg
A
practically non toxic
23
Q
relative toxicity of > 15 g/kg
A
harmless
24
Q
the highest dose which dose not result in undesirable or toxic alterations
A
highest nontoxic dose (HNTD)
25
the lowest dose which produces toxic alterations and administering twice this dose will not cause death
toxic dose low (TDL)
26
the dose which produces toxic alterations and administering twice this dose will result in death
toxic dose high (TDH)
27
is the amount of a chemical that can be ingested without causing any deaths or alterations in any of the animals for the stated period
no-effect level
| max non toxic level
28
LD0
highest dose that does not cause any death
29
LD100
lowest dose that kills all the animals in a group
30
the danger from the possibility of exposure
hazard
31
ratio between LD50 and ED50
therapeutic index
32
T/F
| a low therapeutic index = low toxicity
FALSE -- lower index is more toxic
33
who is more sensitive to toxins:
| dogs or cats
cats
dogs are more susceptible
34
what species is sensitive to monensin
horses
35
T/F
| compounds with cumulative effects have a lower chronicity factor -
false -- higher chronicity factor
36
T/F
| warfarin is a cumulative toxicant
TRUE
37
t/F
| caffeine is a slowly excreted toxin
false - rapidly excreted
38
defined by a comparison of toxicity and use level
risk
39
T/F
| monensin is much more toxic than urea
TRUE
40
the most common method of expressing concentrations in vet toxicology
ppm on wt/wt basis
41
how to convert from ppm to percentage
move decimal 4 places to the left
42
convert from percentage to ppm
move the decimal 4 places to the right
43
100 g/ton = ___ ppm
110ppm
44
units for toxicity
mg/kg
45
1 ounce = ___ g
30g
46
1 fluid oz = ___ ml
30
47
1 ml = __ cc
1 cc
48
1 kg = ___ pounds
2.2 lbs
49
most common route of exposure of toxicants
oral
50
2nd most common route of exposure of toxicants
inhalation - toxic gases
51
least common route of exposure of toxicants
injection
52
what is lethal synthesis
when the metabolite is more toxic than the parent compound
53
how do most xenobiotics cross the membrane
simple diffusion -- depends on concentration gradient
they go from high to low
high lipid solubility will cross faster
higher degree ionization will go faster
54
most commonly used species in safety testing
dogs and rats
55
observation period for acute toxicity
1 - 14 days
56
induction of chromosomal changes
mutagenicity
57
can be obtained through detailed case history and thorough clinical and post mortem examinations
tentative diagnosis
58
can be reached when the history and the clinical signs are supported by circumstantial evidence and identification of the toxic source
presumptive diagnosis
59
main approach to diagnosis
history
60
unique to toxicology and involves ante/postmortem specimens for Dx
chemical analysis
61
T/F
| most diseases do not have pathognomonic signs
TRUE
62
chemical tests results
positive does not always mean intoxication
| negative does not always mean not poisoned
63
T/F
| specimens submitted to lab should be washed
FALSE - not washed
64
T/F specimens submitted to lab should be frozen
true
65
blood samples should be ___ and other body fluids should be ___ when submitted
refrigerated
| frozen
66
only preservative that can be added to samples when histopathology is needed
10% formalin
or
70% alcohol
67
T/F
| an acutely poisoned animal must be treated as an emergency
TRUE
68
what are the 4 principles of treatment
symptomatic/supportive
removal of poison
antidotal
observation
69
what is the time window to give an emetic
1-2 hours following ingestion
70
emetic of choice in dogs
apomorphine
**can be given all routes but IV is fastest or given in the conjunctiva
71
contraindications for giving an emetic
```
unconscious
corrosives
petroleum products
dehydration
animals showing convulsions
```
72
MOA of apomorphine
stimulates the dopamine receptors to stimulate the CRTZ and induce vomiting
this is an indirect stimulation
73
opioid antagonist that will reverse the emetic effects of apomorphine
naloxone
74
T/F
| too much apomorphine can actually inhibit vomiting centers
TRUE
75
T/F
| acepromazine is an emetic
FALSE - anti emetic
also a dopamine antagonist
76
emetic of choice in cat
xylazine
77
how can xylazine be given to a cat?
| what is a side effect?
IV or IM
causes CNS depression for several hours
78
typical gastric lavage fluid
tap water
79
T/F
| gastric lavages are done in awake alert animals
FALSE -- unconscious or anesthetized animals
80
physical binding of a toxicant -- no electrons or chemical interactions involved
adsorption
81
adsorbent of choice
activated charcoal
activated means more porous -- more surface area to bind the toxicants
82
T/F
| charcoal with a large particle size is most effective
false - small particle size most effective
83
10 things that charcoal sucks for
```
ethanol
methanol
heavy metal salts
fluoride
iodides
nitrate
nitrite
sodium chloride
bleach
fertilizer
```
84
top 2 diuretics used in fluid therapy of toxins
mannitol
| furosemide
85
when is peritoneal dialysis used
when animal is suffering from oliguria or anuria
86
how long are organophosphate pesticides persistent in the environment
2-4 weeks
87
where are organophosphates absorbed
GIT
skin
mucous membranes
or inhalation
they are distributed throughout the body
88
most common form of toxicosis for organophosphates
acute
89
T/F
| some organophosphates are teratogenic in chickens
TRUE
90
which receptors are most sensitive to organophosphates
muscarinic
irreversible inhibition of cholinesterases - myopathies
91
what is the cause of death in high exposure of organophosphates
respiratory failure
92
organophosphate acute toxicity signs
salivation
lacrimation
urination
diarrhea
bronchial secretions
anxiety and restlessness
could be muscle paralysis
93
if animals survive acute toxicity of organophosphates what is seen in the delayed toxicity signs
muscle weakness and ataxia
rear limb paralysis -- may not be reversible
degeneration and demyelination of peripheral and spinal motor neurons
94
what is the acetycholinesterase level in whole blood with organophosphate toxicosis
usually less than 25% the normal level
95
how can you tell if s patient was poisoned with organophosphates using atropine
patients who were not OP poisoned will show dry mucous membranes and tachycardia when given atropine
96
treatment for OP poisoning
atropine sulfate - every 3 to 6 hours
2PAM chloride - every 12 hours
diphenhydramine - antagonize nicotinic effects
oxygen therapy if dyspnea or cyanosis
97
T/F
| there is no storage activation with carbamate pesticides
TRUE
98
what age is most sensitive to carbamates
YOUNG -- especially if deficient in liver enzymes
99
T/F
| carbamates require enzymatic activation
FALSE
100
T/F
| carbamate is easily detectable in tissues and blood samples
FALSE -- it is too rapidly metabolized and so rarely detected
101
what species is most sensitive to organochlorines
cats
102
T/F
| organochlorines typically have a low toxicity to mammals
TRUE
103
T/F
| organochlorines are insoluble in water
TRUE
104
what is the main storage tissue of organochlorines
fat
105
where are organochlorines excreted from the body
bile, feces, urine, and milk
106
this insecticide may cause abnormal postures and backwards walking in cattle
chlorinated hydrocarbon -- organochlorines
107
this insecticide may cause birds to show depression, abnormal postures, apparent blindness and death
chlorinated hydrocarbon -- organochlorines
108
lesions to carcasses with hlorinated hydrocarbon -- organochlorines poisoning
bruised, lacerated and dirty from the convulsions
| congestion and edema in several organs
109
T/F
fat concentrations are a better indicator than brain concentrations for hlorinated hydrocarbon -- organochlorines toxicosis
FALSE -- brain is best
110
what will confirm acute toxicosis of hlorinated hydrocarbon -- organochlorines
if it is in the brain, liver, or blood at ppm
111
clinical signs for hlorinated hydrocarbon -- organochlorines toxicosis
CNS signs -- salivation, nausea, vomiting, tremors, hyperthermia, seizures
112
commonly used for flea and tick control in dogs and cats
pyrethrins and pyrethroids
113
T/F
| pyrethrins are esters and are lipid soluble
TRUE
114
very rapidly inactivated by plasma and liver esterases and liver oxidases
pyrethrins
115
pyrethrins are rapidly metabolized where
GIT
116
what species is pyrethrins most toxic to
fish and birds
117
clinical signs of pyrethrins poisoning
```
salivation
vomit/diarrhea
hyperexcitable
tremors
seizures
dyspnea
death
```
118
used as piscicide to kill fish
rotenone
119
used for ear mites in dogs cats rabbits
rotenone
120
which route of rotenone is most dangerous
inhalation
121
which form of rotenone is most dangerous
emulsified concentrate -- highly toxic
122
what species is resistant to rotenone
chickens
123
what 3 species are sensitive to rotenone
birds
cats
pigs
124
blocks oxidation of NADH to NAD and oxidation of substrates such as glutamate and pyruvate
rotenone
125
treatment for what include keeping the animal warm and shampooing the skin
d-limonene
126
how long does it take sublethal toxicosis of d-limonene to resolve
6-12 hours
excellent prognosis
127
T/F
| nicotene is caustic
true
128
what species does nicotine have teratogenic effects in
sows and cows
129
cause of death from nicotine
respiratory failure
130
if a toxicant is not absorbed it is a ____ effect
local
131
T/F
| basic drugs bind to albumin
FALSE
132
what is the order of drug disposition
Absorption
distribution
biotransformation
excretion
133
T/F
| pinocytosis is passive diffusion
TRUE
134
T/F
| conjugation is a phase 1 metabolic reaction
FALSE
135
Which species lacks dealkylation
cats
136
which species lacks sulfate conjugation enzymes
pigs
137
```
which one causes CNS stimulation
A. Organochlorines
B. Organophosphates
C. Carbamates
D. Naphthalene
E. Nicotine
```
A - organochlorines
138
T/F
| bioaccumulation occurs in birds of prey
FALSE - bioactivation
139
T/F
Chlorinated alicyclic types inhibit the Cl-
channels of the GABA receptors
TRUE
140
what is the most common way organochlorines are absorbed
dermal
141
which is biologically active:
A. Phosphate (P=O)
B. Thiophasphate (P=S)
A
142
T/F
Carbamates have reversible inhibition of AChE and
OP have Irreversible inhibition of cholinesterases
TRUE
143
```
which is an appropriate tx for smoke inhalation?
A. Steroid
B. Cough suppressant
C. Opioid
D. Beta2 adrenergic agonists
```
D
144
what color is ammonia
colorless
145
what color is sulfur oxide
colorless
146
smells like rotten eggs
hydrogen sulfide
147
if a toxicant is metabolized by oxidative enzymes who will do it fastest
cows
148
what is the most reliable method to diagnose a toxin
chemical analysis of the blood or tissues
149
best sample to submit to confirm organophosphate poisoning
whole blood
150
2-PAM antagonizes the toxic effects of organophosphates by
reactivation of acetylcholinesterase
151
```
Immediate administration of which of the following is MOST likely to treat muscle fasciculation resulting from
organosphosphate insecticide poisoning?
a. fluid therapy
b. oxygen
c. atropine
d. 2-PAM
e. acetylcysteine
```
2-PAM
152
An insecticide that causes hyperglycemia due to inhibition of insulin secretion is
amitraz
153
tx for early cases of nicotine toxicosis
mecamylamine as a ganglionic blocker
154
treats the PSNS effects of nicotine toxicosis
atropine
155
miticide in cattle and swine
amitraz
156
used in flea and tick collars for dogs but bad for cats and horses
amitraz
157
T/F
| amitraz concentrate is flammable
true
158
LD50 for acute toxicity in dogs with amitraz
100mg/kg
159
what dose can cause sedation/subacute toxicity in some dogs from amitraz
20mg/kg
160
T/F
| meperidine or sympathomimetic amines increase the toxicity of amitraz
true
161
what clincal signs will amitraz cause
CNS collapse and respiratory depression
162
drug antidote for amitraz
a2 antagonist - yohimbin
163
T/F
| amitraz will cause hypoglycemia and hepatomegaly
FALSE -- hyperglycemia due to inhibiting insulin
164
combined with fenvalerate as a repellent and insecticide for dogs and cats
DEET
165
__ ppm of DEET is diagnostic
20
166
oxidation products of this moth repellent cause hemolytic anemia and methemoglobinemia
naphthalene
167
causes cataracts in neonates
naphthalene
168
how can methemoglobinemia be treated
20mg/kg ascorbic acid -- for naphthalene tox
169
used to prevent heartworm
ivermectin
170
ivermectin MOA
GABA agonist
171
specific antidote for ivermectin but with a narrow safety msrgin
picrotoxin
172
what given IV could have an effect in a comatose animal from ivermectin toxicosis
physostigmine IV
173
what is metaldehyde soluble in
benzene
| chloroform and oil
174
species most susceptible to molluscicides
dogs
175
T/F
| molluscicides are more toxic by inhalation than ingestion
TRUE
176
T?F
| both metaldehyde and acetaldehyde cross the BBB
true
177
which is heavier
air
ammonia
ammonia
178
Soluble in water and readily reacts with hydroxyl ions in moist mucous membranes to form ammonium hydroxide which is irritant and caustic
ammonia
179
what ppm makes your eyes burn with ammonia
25-35 ppm
180
exposure to ____ ppm of ammonia can cause accute deat
5000
181
ammonia is converted to this strong irritant when it touches mucous membranes
ammonium hydroxide
182
How is ammonia absorbed
inhalation
183
T/F
| ammonia causes decreased growth rates in young
tru
184
Inhalation of large concentrations causes pulmonary edema and lung congestion due to increased permeability of lung capillaries
ammonia
185
T/F
| ammonia increases cellular respiration and the TCA cycle
false decreases
**causes asphyxia
186
T/F
| ammonia is odorless
FALSE -- distinct odor
187
odor of rotten eggs
hydrogen sulfide
188
hydrogen sulfide is ____ soluble
water
189
sulfides with ___ form black or dark-colored compounds in GIT and tissues
iron
190
what is hydrogen sulfide converted to in solutions
sulfuric acid -- irritant
191
what is hydrogen sulfide converted to when it contacts with moist mucous membranes
sulfide -- irritant
192
what are normal and deadly levels of hydrogen sulfide
10ppm
| 1000ppm
193
this is the most dangerous sewage gas
H2S
194
>2000 ppm respiratory paralysis after 1-2 breaths
hydrogen sulfide
195
H2S is converted to _____ in the
| blood
alkali sulfides
196
acute toxic levels for mammals of hydrogen sulfide
~500-800 ppm
197
MOA of H2S
Inhibition of cellular respiration - decreased cytochrome oxidase
198
binds sulfide radicals and reactivates cytochrome oxidase
methemoglobin
199
give this IV to tx H2S toxicity
sodium nitrate -- will form methemoglobin
200
most effective treatment for H2S
prevention
201
what is the color and odor of carbon monoxide
none
202
T/F
| carbon monoxide is water soluble
true
203
T/F
| fetus are not very sensitive to carbon monoixde
false
204
CO _____ ppm (0.1%) can cause clinical signs and death with 1 hr exposure
>1000
205
T/F
| carboxyhemoglobin can carry oxygen
FALSE
206
interferes with release of oxygen carried by normal
| hemoglobin
carboxyhemoglobin
207
what forms with hemoglobin to make carboxyhemoglobin
carbon monoxide
208
how does death from carbon monoxide occur
hypoxia
209
what color is blood and mm in CO poisoning
bright red
| pink
210
TX for CO poisoning
Oxygen or 5% CO2 in oxygen administered with positive pressure
211
“Silo filler’s disease”
nitrous oxide poisoning
212
NO2 color
reddish brown
213
N2O4 color
colorless
214
color of N2O4 and NO2 mixed
yellowish
215
smell of N2O4 and NO2 mixed
chlorine like odor
216
what ppm of nitrogen oxide gases will cause mild irritation of eyes and mucosa of the upper resp tract
50-150
217
Nitrogen dioxide and tetraoxide gases (NO2- N2O4) form ______ upon contact with mucous membranes
nitric acid
218
T/F
| nitrogen oxide gases can cause pulmonary edema by crossing the cell mucosa into the lungs
TRUE
*bc they are soluble gases
219
T/F
| nitrogen oxide gases cause death by resp failure and hypoxemia
true
220
MOA of nitric gases
Direct irritation of the mucous membranes by nitric
| acid
221
what does nitric gases poisoning do to the skeletal muscle
Cyanosis, methemoglobinemia (more Fe+3 than Fe+2) and necrosis
222
give ____ iv for methemoglobinemia to treat in nitrci gases
methylene blue
223
industrial pollutants from fossil fuel combustion
sulfur oxide
224
MOA sulfur oxide
Direct irritation of the mucous membranes and
reflex bronchoconstriction
Lung damage
Death is due to hypoxia (cell/tissue death)
225
T/F
| 80% of fire-related deaths are from smoke inhalation and not from the burns
TRUE
226
T/F
| smoke is a heterogeneous mixture of gases
true
227
inert (CO2) gases or vapors that displace oxygen
simple asphyxiants
228
prevent uptake of oxygen (CO) and changes the oxygen carrying capactiy of hemoglobin
chemical asphyxiants
229
T/F
| simple asphyxiants lead to an oxygen deprived environment
true
230
T/F
| give steroids to tx smoke inhalation
FALSE
231
causes opisthotnos in cats
molluscicides
| metaldehyde
232
T/F
| cats that recover from the acute the acute phase of molluscicide poisoning will develop liver damage in 2-3 days
FALSE -- DOGS not cats
233
causes petechial or ecchymotic hemorrhage in GI mucosa
molluscicide -- metaldehyde
234
species most susceptible to ammonia
livestock
235
If a toxicant is inactivated by hydroxylation, which of the following animals will be more
resistant to its actions?
cattle
236
```
Which of the following should NOT be used in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning
in dogs?
a. acepromazine
b. atropine
c. activated charcoal
d. diphenhdramine
e. diazepam
```
ACE
237
A reddish-brown gas that produces bronchial constriction and pulmonary edema is
nitrogen dioxide
238
The first clinical signs in organophosphate poisoning are MAINLY due to
muscarinic stimulation
239
The PRFEFERRED method of preserving tissues for chemical analysis is
freezing them
240
Pytethrins have low toxicity to mammals MAINLY because why
they are rapidly metabolized
241
Which of the following insecticides or insect repellents is/are MOST likely to cause
hemolytic anemia and methemoglobinemia?
napthalene
242
```
Generally, which of the following insecticides causes the most rapid onset and duration of
clinical signs?
a. oraganophosphate
b. carbamate
c. chlorinate hydrocarbon
d. nicotine
e. pyrethroid
```
d- nicotine
243
2-PAM antagonizes the toxic effects of organophosphates by??
reactivation of acetylcholinesterases
244
Clinical signs of delayed organophosphate toxicosis are MAINLY due to
peripheral neurotoxicity
245
Immediate administration of which of the following is MOST likely to treat muscle fasciculation resulting from
organosphosphate insecticide poisoning?
2-PAM
246
Which of the following insecticides is less toxic to young calves (30-day old) than adult cattle?
parathion
247
An insecticide that causes hyperglycemia due to inhibition of insulin secretion is
amitraz
248
Blood transfusion is MOST likely to be required in treating toxicosis with which of the following
insecticides/insect repellents?
napthalene
249
Most common cause of toxicosis in animals is
pesticides
250
The most common conjugation reaction is
glucuroinidation
251
The preferred medication for initial control of seizures in a dog with an unknown intoxicant would be
diazepam
252
Early death in metaldehyde toxicosis is MAINLY due to
resp failure
253
Which of the following toxicoses is MOST likely to be associated with formaldehyde odor in stomach contents
duirng postmortem examintion?
metaldehyde
254
Dogs that survive the acute phase of 3 hours will develop liver failure from what toxicant?
metaldehyde
