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Special Clinical Microbiology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Define symbiosis

A

permanent association of two organisms that can’t exist independently

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2
Q

Define mutualism

A

both organisms benefit

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3
Q

Define commensalism

A

one organism benefits and the other is unharmed

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4
Q

Define facultative parasite

A

live both a free living and parasitic existence during their life cycles

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5
Q

Define obligate parasites

A

completely dependent upon the host for existence

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6
Q

What type of parasite causes an infestation?

A

ectoparasite

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7
Q

What type of parasite causes an infection?

A

endoparasites

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8
Q

What is a definitive host?

A

host in which the adult or sexual stage of the life cycle occurs

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9
Q

What is an intermediate host?

A

host in which the asexual or larval stage of the life cycle occurs

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10
Q

What is a reservoir host?

A

animals other than man which harbor human parasites

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11
Q

What are the requirements for transmission of a parasite infection?

A

source of infection, mode of transmission and the presence of a susceptible host

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12
Q

What are the characteristics of a susceptible host?

A

resistance and habits are conducive to his becoming infected

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13
Q

Function of ectoplasm

A

excretion, movement, obtaining food/phagocytize, protection

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14
Q

Function of endoplasm

A

reproduction (mitosis) and digestion

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15
Q

Classes of protozoa

A

sarcodina, ciliate, mastigophora, sporozoa

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16
Q

What is sarcodina’s (amoeba) means of motility?

A

pseudopod

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17
Q

What is ciliate’s means of motility?

A

cilia

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18
Q

What is mastigophora’s means of motility?

A

flagella

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19
Q

What is sporozoa’s means of motility?

A

no means of motility in the adult, except the microgamete which uses flagella

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20
Q

What is the most important parasitic amoeba?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

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21
Q

Where does Entamoeba histolytica live?

A

large intestine

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22
Q

Exhibits progressive directional movement, contains one nucleus with a central karyosome and even-staining peripheral chromatin and may contain ingested RBC

A

Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite

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23
Q

Contains up to four nuclei and has cigar-shaped chromatoidal bars

A

Entamoeba histolytica cyst

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24
Q

What does Entamoeba gingivalis resemble?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

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25
Q

What are the exceptions to Entamoeba gingivalis resembling Entamoeba histolytica?

A

its habitat is the mouth, not the colon; and it has no cyst stage

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26
Q

Where does Entamoeba coli live?

A

large intestine

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27
Q

Exhibits sluggish, random motility; contains one nucleus with an eccentric karyosome and uneven peripheral chromatin; and contains ingested bacteria

A

Entamoeba coli trophozoite

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28
Q

Contains up to 8 nuclei and chromatoidal bars (if present) are irregular with splintered

A

Entamoeba coli cyst

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29
Q

Where does Endolimax nana live?

A

colon

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30
Q

Endolimax nana is recognized by its characteristic..

A

nuclear structure, large irregular eccentric karyosome “lump of coal,” seen in both the troph and cyst

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31
Q

Describe Endolimax nana cyst

A

ovoid, up to 4 nuclei and no chromatoidal bars

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32
Q

What other organism does Entamoeba hartmanii look exactly like?

A

Entamoeba histolytica, but it is smaller

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33
Q

How is Iodamoeba butschlii most easily recognized?

A

in the cyst form, presence of a large glycogen body

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34
Q

How will the large glycogen body of Iodamoeba butschlii stain with iodine?

A

golden-brown

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35
Q

only amoeba with two nuclei in the trophozoite stage and has no cyst stage

A

Dientamoeba fragilis

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36
Q

What are Charcot-leyden crystals?

A

refractile, long spicules produced by trauma to the GI tract that are indicative of the presence of intestinal parasites

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37
Q

What parasite particularly shows Charcot-leyden crystals?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

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38
Q

What are Charcot-leyden crystals composed of?

A

granules of ruptured eosinophils

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39
Q

What condition can Naegleria fowlerii cause?

A

rapidly fatal form of meningitis

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40
Q

Where do patients acquire Naegleria fowlerii?

A

swimming and/or diving in stagnant ponds

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41
Q

How can Naegleria fowlerii be best observed?

A

examining the CSF with a hemacytometer

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42
Q

What is the only parasitic member of the class Ciliata?

A

Balantidium coli

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43
Q

What is Balantidium coli usually a parasite of?

A

hogs

44
Q

large organism with a ciliated trophozoite containing a funnel-shaped depression, kidney bean-shaped macronucleus, and a smaller pear-shaped micronucleus

A

Balantidium coli

45
Q

Describe the cyst of Balantidium coli

A

large but more rounded and lacks external cilia

46
Q

What is the most important parasitic flagellate?

A

Giardia lamblia

47
Q

What is the usual habitat of Giardia lamblia?

A

duodenum

48
Q

bilaterally symmetrical, pear-shaped with an oval concave ventral sucking disc, two nuclei, a rod-like axostyle and numerous flagella controlled by parabasal body

A

Giardia lamblia troph

49
Q

How is Giardia lamblia’s movement described?

A

characteristic falling-leaf motility

50
Q

Describe the cyst stage of Giardia lamblia

A

oval with up to four nuclei

51
Q

Describe the trophozoite stage of the commensal flagellate Chilomastix mesnili

A

distinct lateral curve to its body, pear-shaped, single nucleus and a cytostome

52
Q

Describe the cyst stage of Chilomastix mesnili

A

lemon-shaped, single nucleus and cytostome

53
Q

What is the most common and largest species of Trichomonas?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

54
Q

What part of the body does Trichomonas vaginalis inhabit

A

urogenital system of both males and females

55
Q

What WBC can the size of Trichomonas vaginalis be compared to?

A

segmented neutrophil

56
Q

Describe the membrane of Trichomonas vaginalis

A

prominent undulating membrane

57
Q

Is there a cyst stage of Trichomonas vaginalis?

A

no

58
Q

How is Trichomonas vaginalis usually transmitted?

A

sexually, can cause sterility if untreated

59
Q

What type of waste is Trichomonas vaginalis most frequently isolated from?

A

urine

60
Q

What is an axostyle?

A

backbone of a cell and gives support

61
Q

What is a blepharoplast?

A

controls movement of the flagella

62
Q

What is a cytostome?

A

cell mouth where particulate matter enters

63
Q

What is an undulating membrane?

A

motion can direct particulate matter into cytostome

64
Q

Describe Isospora belli

A

coccidian that lives in the intestine of man and other animals

65
Q

What class does Isospora belli belong?

A

Sporozoa

66
Q

What is the characteristic host of the crithidial form of the blood flagellates?

A

insects

67
Q

What is the characteristic host of the leptomonad form of the blood flagellates?

A

insects

68
Q

What is the characteristic host of the leishmanial form of the blood flagellates?

A

invertebrates; no flagella, LD body intracellularly

69
Q

What is the characteristic host of the trypansomal form of the blood flagellates?

A

vertebrates; long anterior flagella with a central nucleus, associated with human infections

70
Q

Which form of the blood flagellates is also known as the Donovan (or L-D) body?

A

Leishmanial form

71
Q

How do all Leishmania, as well as Trypanosoma cruzi, occur in man?

A

intracellular inclusions in macrophages

72
Q

What is the main invertebrate host of the Leishmania?

A

sand flies (genus Phlebotomas)

73
Q

African sleeping sickness is caused by?

A

Two species of Trypanosoma

74
Q

How are the causative agents of African sleeping sickness transmitted?

A

tsetse fly

75
Q

What is the alternate name of Trypanosoma gambiense?

A

sleeping sickness, LD bodies in tissues, Tsetse fly

76
Q

What is the alternate name of Trypanosoma cruzii and what spreads it?

A

Chugs disease, Kissing bug (reduvid)

77
Q

What is the alternate name of Leishmania donovani?

A

Kala-azar, visceral leishmaniasis

78
Q

What inclusion is found in Leishmania donovani?

A

LD bodies

79
Q

What is the vector of Leishmania donovani?

A

Sand flies

80
Q

What is the alternate name of Leishmania braziliensis?

A

espundia, mucocutaneous leishmaniasis

81
Q

What is the vector of Leishmania braziliensis?

A

sand flies

82
Q

What is the alternate name of Leishmania tropica?

A

oriental sore, New Dehli boil, Baghdad boil, cutaneous leishmaniasis

83
Q

What is the vector of Leishmania tropica?

A

sand flies

84
Q

What are the morphological characteristics of Plasmodium vivax?

A

prefers retics, RBCs enlarged, Schüffner’s granules

85
Q

What are the morphological characteristics of Plasmodium falciparum?

A

appliqué forms and crescent shaped gametocytes, multiple infected cells are common

86
Q

What is the alternate name of Plasmodium falciparum?

A

Blackwater fever

87
Q

What are the morphological characteristics of Plasmodium ovale?

A

cells are oval and fimbriated (irregular)

88
Q

What are the morphological characteristics of Plasmodium malariae?

A

rosette appearance of merozoites and band trophozoites

89
Q

When is Plasmodium motile?

A

microgametocytes undergoes exflagellation, the sperm produced possess flagella for a brief period until fertilization occurs

90
Q

What is the cause of the severe complications of Plasmodium falciparum?

A

vascular obstruction caused by the stick parasites in the capillary beds

91
Q

Why is Plasmodium falciparum known as Blackwater fever?

A

severe hematuria that occurs

92
Q

What are some symptoms of malaria?

A

cyclic chills and fever headache, muscular ache, nausea

93
Q

Why is Babesia microti confused with Plasmodium falciparum?

A

only ring forms of the trophozoite are seen the the peripheral blood smear of malaria

94
Q

Why is it important to distinguish between Babesia microti and Plasmodium falciparum?

A

malarial drugs are toxic and of no benefit to Babesia

95
Q

What is the importance of Toxoplasma gondii?

A

can be transmitted by contact with infected cat feces

96
Q

What can result from contact with Toxoplasma gondii that causes an asymptomatic infection in a pregnant woman?

A

congenital toxoplasmosis

97
Q

What can congenital toxoplasmosis result in?

A

death or mental retardation in the fetus

98
Q

How is Toxoplasmosis gondii usually diagnosed?

A

serological techniques

99
Q

What must be demonstrated due to the antibodies to Toxoplasma being common in the general population?

A

significant rise in titer

100
Q

What is the classic diagnostic test for toxoplasmosis?

A

Sabin-Feldman dye test

101
Q

What is the causative agent of a leading cause of death among AIDS patients and interstitial plasma cell pneumonia?

A

Pneumocystis carinii

102
Q

What type of patients is Pneumocystis carinii likely to infect?

A

immunocompromised

103
Q

Cryptosporidium is an intestinal…?

A

sporozoan

104
Q

What can Cryptosporidium cause?

A

mild GI disturbances in man and other vertebrates

105
Q

How is Cryptosporidium most easily identified?

A

performing an acid fast stain on dried smears of concentrated fecal specimen

106
Q

Why is an acid fast stain used on Cryptosporidium?

A

the oocysts are acid fast

Special Clinical Microbiology (5 decks)

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