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Special Clinical Microbiology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Are fungi classified as eukaryotic or prokaryotic?

A

eukaryotic

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2
Q

What is the structural element that comprises a fungus?

A

hyphae

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3
Q

Which class of fungi has a non-septate mycelium?

A

Zygomycetes/phycomycetes

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4
Q

Why are certain fungi classified as “Fungi Imperfecti”?

A

lack sexual phase, or their sexual phase is unknown

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5
Q

How does the function of reproductive mycelia differ from that of vegetative mycelia?

A

vegetative mycelium grow below the surface of the medium and anchor the fungus secretes enzymes making them able to absorb nutrients; reproductive mycelium project above the surface of the medium, this is where spores are located

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6
Q

To which class do most pathogenic fungi belong?

A

Deutermycetes

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7
Q

What term best describes the nutritional characteristics of fungi?

A

saprophytic/saprotrophic

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8
Q

Are fungi aerobic or anaerobic?

A

aerobic

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9
Q

What is the best single medium for the primary isolation of fungi?

A

Sabouraud’s dextrose agar (SBA/Sabs)

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10
Q

What is the purpose of corn meal agar?

A

nutritionally deprives the organisms so that sporulation will occur

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11
Q

How long should routine fungal cultures be held before being discarded?

A

minimum of four weeks

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12
Q

What three things does the mounting medium lactophenol cotton blue do?

A

preserves fungal structures, reduce contamination of the environment, and stains the hyaline fungal structures

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13
Q

When a systemic mycosis has spread to various organs, what term is used to describe it?

A

disseminated

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14
Q

What organism is best described as a thick-walled yeast cell with buds attached by a broad base?

A

Blastomyces

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15
Q

Which systemic fungus is always a yeast?

A

Cryptococcus

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16
Q

How is histoplasmosis acquired?

A

inhalation of spores from a free-living fungus

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17
Q

Name the five species of dimorphic (diphasic) fungi

A

Blastomyces, Histoplasma, Coccidiodes, Paracoccidiodes, Sporothrix

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18
Q

Which systemic fungus produces thick-walled yeast cells with multiple buds in tissue?

A

Paracoccidiodes

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19
Q

Which fungus can be observed as a non-budding, thick-walled spherule containing endospores in a direct smear from the body?

A

Coccidiodes

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20
Q

Which fungus produces spiny, tuberculate macroconidia when cultured, but in the body can be seen as intracellular, yeast-like cells with a large vacuole in the cells of the RE system?

A

Histoplasma

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21
Q

Cryptococcosis is usually seen as a disease of which body system?

A

pulmonary

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22
Q

Which systemic fungus is the most fastidious in the laboratory?

A

Histoplasma

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23
Q

What systemic fungus causes San Jacquain Valley Fever?

A

Coccidiodes

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24
Q

Which systemic fungus causes South American blastomycoses?

A

Paracoccidiodes

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25
Q

Which stain is best to use to demonstrate Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF?

A

India ink

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26
Q

Which systemic fungus is endemic in Piedmont, NC and can produce a primary pulmonary infection or a primary skin infection which resembles ringworm?

A

Blastomyces

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27
Q

Which systemic fungus produces chains of arthrospores and can be confused with the saprophytic fungus Geotrichum candidum?

A

Coccidiodes

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28
Q

What is the macroscopic appearance of Sporothrix scheneckii at 37C?

A

Creamy, yeast colony

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29
Q

List several species of dematiaceous fungi?

A

Cladosporium, Phialophora, Fonsecaea

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30
Q

Which subcutaneous infection produces yeast-like brown cells in clusters in the body?

A

Chromomycoses; divides in all four planes; brown, sclerotic bodies

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31
Q

What is the most common cause of maduromycosis?

A

Petriellidium boydii

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32
Q

What color are the granules that are frequently found in the pus?

A

yellow to whitish granules

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33
Q

What fungus produces tear-shaped condo arranged in rosettes at 25C and yeast cells when grown at 37C and causes a disease common among gardeners which is referred to as “rose fever”?

A

Sporothrix schenkii

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34
Q

Name several species that can be responsible for chromomycosis.

A

Phialophora, Fonsecaea, Chlamydosporium

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35
Q

Which organisms can cause mycetomas?

A

Actinomyces, Madurella, Petriellidieum

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36
Q

An organism which produces brown, branching septet hyphae would be classified as what type of fungus?

A

Dematiaceous

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37
Q

What are dermatophytes?

A

organism that only invades keratinized areas (hair, skin, and nails)

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38
Q

What device can be used as an aid to select hairs infected with ringworm?

A

Fluorescent light

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39
Q

What type of hair infection is characterized by empty areas or tunnels where the hyphae have degenerated visible throughout the entire length of the hair?

A

Favic

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40
Q

What combination of fungal media would be best to use to culture dermatophytes?

A

Sabouraud’s and mycosel

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41
Q

Which three genera of fungi all cause ringworm of the skin?

A

Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton

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42
Q

What fungus appears velvety white on the front and mahogany on the reverse and will not grow on sterile unfortified rice grains?

A

Microsporum audouinii

43
Q

What fungus is the most common cause of ringworm in dogs and cats and is characterized by a canary yellow reverse and spiny, spindle-shaped macroconidia?

A

Microsporum canis

44
Q

What fungus is most frequently isolated from human ringworm infections and has a deep red reverse pigmentation?

A

Trichophyton rubrum

45
Q

What structures are frequently observed in Trichophyton cultures?

A

spiraled/coiled hyphae, nodular bodies, racket hyphae

46
Q

As a rule, which dermatophyte does not infect nails?

A

Microsporum audouinii

47
Q

Which dermatophyte is the most common cause of epidemic scalp ringworm in American school children?

A

Trichophyton tonsurans

48
Q

What fungus causes tinea versicolor?

A

Pityrosporon furfur

49
Q

What fungus is the most common causative agent tinea cruris?

A

Epidermophyton flacosum

50
Q

What term is used to refer to ringworm of the skin?

A

Tinea corprus

51
Q

What dermatophyte gives a positive in vitro hair test?

A

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

52
Q

Which dermatophyte produces sterile, antler-like hyphae referred to as a favic chandeliers and causes a severe type of ringworm of the scalp called favus?

A

Trichophyton schoenleinii

53
Q

Which dermatophyte does not invade hair and produces oval, smooth-walled club-shaped macroconidia and no microconidia?

A

Epidermophyton floccosum

54
Q

Which dermatophyte is the most common cause of ringworm of cattle and requires both inositol and thiamine to grow well?

A

Trichophyton verrucosum

55
Q

How is Candida albicans identified?

A

germ tube and chlamydospore agar

56
Q

Which fungus is the most common and troublesome laboratory contaminant and is the most pathogenic of the opportunistic fungi?

A

Aspergillus

57
Q

If an autopsy revealed systemic infection by fungus with broad, branching non-septate hyphae, which species of fungus could be a likely cause of death?

A

Mucor or Rhizopus

58
Q

Which fungus commonly produces oval budding cells with pseudohyphae and will produce chlamydospore on cornmeal agar?

A

Candida albicans

59
Q

Brown gritty deposits in a sputum specimen are indicative of what genus?

A

Aspergillus

60
Q

What clinical conditions can be caused by Candida albicans?

A

yeast infection, thrust, monilia etc

61
Q

Which species of opportunistic fungi can be causative agents of eye infections?

62
Q

Which fungus is most frequently isolated in the clinical laboratory?

A

Candida albicans

63
Q

Which species of Rickettsia causes epidemic typhus?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

64
Q

Which species of Rickettsia causes scrub typhus?

A

Rickettsia tsutsugamuschi

65
Q

Which species of Rickettsia causes Q fever?

A

Coxiella burnetti

66
Q

Which species of Rickettsia causes Rickettsial pox?

A

Rickettsia akari

67
Q

Which species of Rickettsia causes RMSF?

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

68
Q

How do Rickettsia and Chlamydia differ?

A

Rickettsia requires arthropod vectors

69
Q

What clinical conditions can be caused by Chlamydia trachomatis?

A

Most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis (NGU) and blindness inclusion conjunctivitis

70
Q

How is psittacosis spread to humans?

A

Aerosol/inhalation, exposure to infected birds

71
Q

How are Rickettsial infections diagnosed in the laboratory?

A

cell culture to embryonated eggs

72
Q

What causes the rash that is frequently observed in Rickettsial infections?

A

invasion of endothelial cells of blood vessels

73
Q

What are the characteristics of viruses?

A

have DNA or RNA; don’t respond to antibiotics; obligate intracellular parasite

74
Q

What term is used to refer to the viral nucleic acid core together with its protein coat?

A

nucleocapsid

75
Q

What is the order of events in the process of viral infection?

A

absorption, penetration (viropexis), replicate, assemble, release

76
Q

What is interferon?

A

prevents viral replicaiton

77
Q

Which virus produces an acute respiratory infection and is commonly found in increased incidence in military camps?

A

Adenovirus

78
Q

Which virus is the causative agent of the common cold?

A

Rhinovirus

79
Q

Which type of virus is referred to as “virus in search of a disease”?

A

ECHO virus

80
Q

What does ECHO stand for?

A

enteric cytopathogenic human orphan

81
Q

Neri bodies are characteristic of which virus?

A

Rhabdovirus (rabies)

82
Q

Which virus causes chicken pox?

83
Q

With what clinical conditions is Epstein-Barr virus associated?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma and infectious mononucleosis. transforms lymphocytes to lymphoblastoid cells

84
Q

Which virus produces large, red intracellular inclusions?

85
Q

How is Hepatitis A transmitted?

A

oral-fecal

86
Q

Herpes-Zoster occurs in patients who have a history of what other viral infection?

A

chicken pox

87
Q

What are the characteristic of Hepatitis B?

A

Transmitted by blood (serum hepatitis), drug addicts (blood contact)

88
Q

How many serotypes of polio virus are there?

89
Q

Which vaccines have been developed against polio?

A

Salk and Sabin vaccines

90
Q

Which virus has been associated with cancer of the cervix and causes genital lesions in humans?

A

HSV type II

91
Q

What is the serological test used in the identification of Rickettsia?

A

Wiel-Felix test

92
Q

The Wiel-Felix test employs three antigens that cross-react with rickettsial antigens from what bacteria?

A

Proteus vulgaris

93
Q

What virus is associated with severe congenital abnormalities in the fetus if the mother becomes infected during her first trimester?

A

Rubella (German measles)

94
Q

What emerging viral pathogen causes an upper respiratory tract infection in infants and young children?

95
Q

What does RSV stand for?

A

respiratory syncytical virus

96
Q

To what group of viruses does HIV belong?

A

retrovirus

97
Q

What is the enzyme in retrovirus that is capable of converting RNA to DNA?

A

reverse transcriptase

98
Q

Disease processes that are common in HIV patients that are rarely seen in “normal” individuals

A

PCP pneumonia, toxoplasmosis, CMV, Kaposi’s sarcoma, Cryptococciosis, MAI tuberculosis

99
Q

What vector is responsible for transmitting Rickettsia akari?

100
Q

What vector is responsible for transmitting Rickettsia prowazekii?

A

body louse

101
Q

What vector is responsible for transmitting Rickettsia rickettsii?

102
Q

What vector is responsible for transmitting Rickettsia tsutsugamuschi?

A

larval mite

103
Q

What vector is responsible for transmitting Rickettsia typhi?

Special Clinical Microbiology (5 decks)

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