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Cognitive Neuroscience > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Neurochemical Method examples

A

Positron emission tomography (PET) and magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)

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2
Q

What is the main technical limitation to using neurochemical methods?

A

Their concentration cannot be localized to a very precise degree within brain tissue

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3
Q

How do PET scans work?

A

They alter molecules to have a radioactive atom (aka radioactive tracer) introduced to the blood and be carried to the brain. The tracer binds to some cells and gives a measure of neurotransmitter function

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4
Q

PET scans are not often used in studies to understand cognitive and emotional function. Which test would be best for that?

A

FMRI

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5
Q

PET scans are the gold standard for obtaining which type of information?

A
  • absolute measure of regional cerebral brain flow (rCBF)
  • cerebral metabolic rate and oxygen consumption
  • cerebral glucose metabolism
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6
Q

True or False: MRI can be tuned to specific atoms

A

True

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7
Q

Which type of scan is best for detecting the presence of Glutamate, GABA, and N-acetylaspartate (NAA)?

A

MRS

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8
Q

Which is the second most common substance in the brain behind glutamate having high levels in the hippocampus and is predicted to be associated with higher working memory?

A

NAA

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9
Q

What are two limitations of MRS?

A
  1. Spatial resolution is not very good (worse than PET)
  2. To be detectable, the substance concentration must be quite high
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10
Q

What is a BOLD signal?

A

BOLD = Blood Oxygen Level Dependent

  • based on the fact the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood have different magnetic properties
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11
Q

When using a BOLD signal, are you more likely to pick up a signal with oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?

A

Oxygenated

-deoxygenated makes the static magnetic field in homogenous, making it more difficult to detect a signal

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12
Q

What type of scan uses a BOLD signal?

A

FMRI

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13
Q

Advantages of an fMRI

A
  • MRI machines are widely available
  • noninvasive
  • multiple scans can be run on an individual
  • can be used on children and women of reproductive age
  • provides a measure of activity over seconds instead of minutes
  • can provide info about average patterns of activation across groups of individuals as well as for specific individuals
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14
Q

Faces vs. fixation cross

A

Reveals all regions of the brain involved in processing

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15
Q

Faces vs. Houses

A

Reveals only those regions of the brain that are involved in processing the specific configuration properties of faces as compared to other complex objects

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16
Q

What is ROI?

A

The Region of Interest

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17
Q

Multivoxel Pattern Analysis (MVPA)

A
  • Provides info about the level of activity as well as the pattern across brain regions
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18
Q

Different classes of objects such as furniture, tools, animals, etc. all activate a _________ region of visual cortex

A

Common

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19
Q

disadvantages of fMRI

A
  • objects cannot be distinguished by the degree of activation alone
  • MVPA methods suggest the possibility of brain “decoding”
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20
Q

Resting State fMRI advantages

A
  • doesn’t require a degree of cognitive ability or engagement on the part of the participant
  • only takes about 10-15 minutes
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21
Q

resting-state disadvantages to fMRI

A
  • can’t be used for functional task analysis
  • usually used as an individual difference variable to compare with some other construct
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22
Q

Modular

A

Looking at brain regions and their functions

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23
Q

Connective

A

Looking at connections between regions and networks

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24
Q

When significant relationships are observed, scientists often refer to this phenomenon as ___________ _____________

A

Functional connectivity

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25
Q

Which brain region is known as the “great integrator”

A

The Pre-frontal cortex

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26
Q

Graph theory or network analysis is?

A

A study of the interaction between brain regions can be studied for interrelationship

  • Measures how information flows through the system and uses Huns to act as conduits of information.
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27
Q

Which type of scan has the best temporal resolution?

A

Electroencephalographs (EEG)

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28
Q

How quick can an EEG measure brain activity

A

On a millisecond to millisecond basis

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29
Q

Because EEG is _______ in nature, the activity varies in amplitude and phase

A

Oscillatory

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30
Q

What is phase coupling in EEG?

A

Scientists can measure if there is coupling of the peaks and troughs of the activity

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31
Q

What are ERPs?

A

Event-related potentials (ERP) are recorded in reference to a specific event

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32
Q

What are the two categories of components that ERPs are characterized by?

A
  • Exogenous: in response to an external event
  • Endogenous: in response to an internal event
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33
Q

what are ERP tables measured in?

A

Milliseconds after the event

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34
Q

Magnetoencephalography (MEG) is a type of scan that measures what?

A

Records magnetic potentials produced by brain activity

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35
Q

What are MEG scans most commonly used for?

A
  • to localize the source of epileptic activity
  • to locate primary sensory cortices during neurosurgical intervention
  • to understand language, object recognition, and spatial processing among others
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36
Q

Advantages of MEG

A
  • we wont get interference from factors such as the skull and scalp because the magnetic field is strong and does not vary
  • the strength of the magnetic field outside of the head can give info about how deep within the brain the source is located
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37
Q

Disadvantages of MEG

A
  • requires a special magnetically shielded room to shield against the earth’s magnetic field and from other sources of electromagnetic radiation
  • it is expensive
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38
Q

What methods are used a lot on young children?

A

Optical recording methods
Ex: mirror infrared activity

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39
Q

What two ways are optical recording detectors sensing how the path of light is altered? What are their characteristics?

A
  1. By Asorption
    • oxygenated and deoxygenated blood are separate
    • response is associated with Hemodynamic changes on the order of seconds. Is the SLOW SIGNAL because of this
  2. By Scattering
    • related to physiological characteristics such as swelling of glia and neurons associated with neural firing
    • response is associated with neural firing. Is the FAST SIGNAL because of this
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40
Q

What two techniques are used for modulating brain activity?

A
  • Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
  • Transcranial Direct Current Stimulation (TDCS)
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41
Q

Difference between TMS and tDCS

A

TMS: pulses a magnetic field over the scalp to induce an electrical field and alter the membrane potential of neurons

TDCS: weak electrical current runs through the scalp, skull, and bran between and entrance and exit electrode

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42
Q

TDCS brain stimulation below the anodal and cathode

A

Stimulated below anodal (positive) —> neuronal activity is increased (think anodal activates)

Stimulated below cathode (negative) —> neuronal activity is decreased

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43
Q

Compared to TMS, tDCS is…

A
  • safer to use because stimulation is less intense
  • less focused spatially
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44
Q

Formal models

A

Take a standard mathematical form

-these are falsifiable

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45
Q

Computational cognitive neuroscience

A

Involves building neural network models that model the actions of neurons in different brain networks

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46
Q

Where does the cell body of a motor neuron reside?

A

In the ventral part of the spinal cord

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47
Q

Typically how many motor neurons inner ages a number of muscle fibers?

A

One

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48
Q

Motor neurons only inner are ____-____ for muscles involved in fine motor control and over _____ for large muscles

A

2-3; 100

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49
Q

Motor unit = ____________ + ___________

A

Motor neuron + muscle fibers

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50
Q

What is involved in the lateral pathway?

A
  • fine motor movements of distal limb muscles (ex: hands, fingers, lower leg, no foot)

-CONTRALATERAL control

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51
Q

What is involved in the medial pathway?

A
  • control of movements of the trunk and proximal limb muscles
  • posture and bilateral movements
  • projects both CONTRALATERALLY and IPSILATERALLY
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52
Q

What does the Cerebellum play important roles in?

A
  • coordination of muscle movement timing
  • the planning of movements (and anticipating further muscle contractions)
  • learning of motor skills
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53
Q

What are the three divisions of the cerebellum?

A

Vestibulocerebellum, Spinocerebellum, and Cerebrocerebellum

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54
Q

True or false: Cerebellar damage causes eradicate movements

A

False, they degrade motor capabilities instead

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55
Q

Where does the Vestibulocerebellum receive input from?

A

The vestibular nuclei in the brain stem

56
Q

Why does the Vestibulocerebellum get constant feedback?

A

To maintain postural control

57
Q

What does damage to the Vestibulocerebellum cause?

A

Difficulty with balance and to postural instability

58
Q

What type of information and from where does the Spinocerebellum get information from?

A

It receives somatosensory and kinesthetic information from the spinal cord

59
Q

What does damage to the Spinocerebellum do?

A

Causes difficulty with smooth control of movement, and the movement of proximal muscles (such as coordinating the trunk and leg muscles for walking)

60
Q

Where and what type of info does the cerebrocerebellum get?

A

It receives input from many regions including both motor and association cortices

It gets info to regulate highly skilled movement that requires complex spatial and temporal sequences including sensorimotor learning

61
Q

Which level of the cerebellum is the most high level area?

A

Cerebrocerebellum

62
Q

Cerebellar ataxia

A

Difficulties in coordinating movement after Cerebellar damage

63
Q

what is it called when there is a difficulty of speech output after Cerebellar damage?

A

Cerebellar dysarthria

64
Q

What is the traditional test given to patients with suspected Cerebellar damage?

A

A test for the patient to touch their nose and then touch their finger to the neurologist’s finger

65
Q

What is the tremor called in a patient with Cerebellar damage vs a patient with a resting tremor?

A

Cerebellar damage: Action or Intention tremor

Basal Ganglia: Resting tremor

66
Q

What is Decomposition of Movement

A

Patients move one joint at a time in a serial manner

67
Q

What type of learning is disrupted where the patient can’t learn to adjust an action in scenarios such as in eye-blink conditioning?

A

Sensory-motor learning

68
Q

Predicting the sensory consequences of motor plans is often referred to as _______

A

A forward model

69
Q

What does the basal ganglia consist of?

A
  • Caudate nucleus
  • putamen
  • nucleus accumbens
  • globes pallidus
  • substantia nigra
  • subthalamic nucleus
70
Q

What are the 4 loops of the basal ganglia?

A
  1. A limbic (emotional) circuit
  2. An associative (cognitive) circuit
  3. A sensory circuit
  4. A motor circuit
71
Q

What is the basal ganglia for?

A

The accomplishment of movements that may take some time to initiate or stop

72
Q

What is the basal ganglia’s role in the motor system?

A
  • “setting” the motor system with regard to posture
  • preparing the nervous system to accomplish a voluntary motor act
  • acting as an autopilot for well-learned sequential movements
  • controlling the timing and switching between motor acts
73
Q

True or False: because they receive both motor and non motor information, the basal ganglia are also thought to assist in motor planning and learning

A

True; goal directed movements!

74
Q

Akinesia

A

The inability to initiate spontaneous movement

75
Q

Bradykinesia

A

Slowness of movement

76
Q

Tremors

A

Rhythmic, oscillating movements

77
Q

A Parkinson’s patient is characterized by:

A

Akinesia, bradykinesia, and tremors

78
Q

Which pathway is affected in Parkinson’s disease?

A

The direct (“GO”) pathway

79
Q

What is the disrupted direct pathway in Parkinson’s due to?

A

Death of cell bodies in the substantia nigra -> inadequate input to the basal ganglia resulting in the indirect (“no go”) pathway becoming overactive

80
Q

Huntington’s disease is characterized by:

A

Hyperkinesias (Chorea and Athetosis)

81
Q

Hyperkinesias

A

Involuntary, undesired movements

82
Q

Chorea

A

Uncontrollable, jerky movements such as twitching and abrupt jerking of the body

83
Q

Athetosis

A

Involuntary writhing contractions and twisting of the body into abnormal postures

84
Q

What does selective loss of striatal neurons that bund GABA do?

A

Affects the indirect pathway and reduces its function

85
Q

Lateral and medial portions of the brain are involved in _______ control

A

Motor

86
Q

Lateral regions of the cortex include

A
  • the primary motor cortex
  • the pre motor cortex
  • the frontal eye fields (FEF’s)
  • parietal cortex
87
Q

The medial regions of the cortex include

A
  • anterior cingulate cortex
  • the supplementary motor complex (SMC)
88
Q

Primary Motor Cortex

A

Thought to control the force and/or direction with which the motor plans are executes

89
Q

What are the premotor region, supplementary motor cortex, and frontal eye fields involved in

A

specifying, preparing, and initiating movement

90
Q

What is the Anterior Cingulate important for?

A

selecting among particular responses and monitoring whether the execution of those actions occurred appropriately

ex: Dr. worthy’s failed cartwheel

91
Q

What are the parietal regions involved in?

A

linking movements to extrepersonal space and sensory information, as well as linking movements to meaning, as occurs in gesture

92
Q

Which is the highest level cortical region?

A

The Anterior cingulate

93
Q

Parietal is more of a ______ pathway while temporal is more of a _______ pathway

A

where; what

94
Q

Primary Motor Cortex (M1)

A

provides the command signal to drive motor neurons to make muscles move

95
Q

What does damage to the primary motor cortex cause?

A

the person cannot control the force with which muscles are exerted or, in severe cases, Hemiparesis

96
Q

Hemiparesis

A

the inability to make motor movements on one side of the body

97
Q

What determines the direction of movement?

A

summed activity across the population of neurons

98
Q

The supplementary motor complex (SMC) comes up with what at the most abstract level?

A

motor plan

99
Q

What are the three sub-regions of the supplementary motor complex (SMC)?

A
  • pre-SMA
  • supplementary frontal eye field (SEF)
  • supplementary motor area (SMA)
100
Q

SMC projects to both the ___________________ and the ________________ motor cortex, as well as the _________________ SMC

A

ipsilateral; contralateral; contralateral

101
Q

What are the two distinct sub-regions of the premotor cortex?

A

Dorsal premotor area (PMd) and the Central premotor area (PMv)

102
Q

Dorsal premotor area (PMd)

A

processes the motor significance of sensory cues, coding what type of motor action should be chosen or selected based on sensory information

103
Q

Central Premotor area (PMv)

A
  • involved in implementing these motor programs and adjusting them so hat objects can be manipulated
  • contains mirror neurons
104
Q

Anterior Cingulate Cortex (ACC)

A

aids in the planning and execution of movement

105
Q

What are the three sub-regions of the ACC?

A

caudal region, middle region, and the anterior region

106
Q

Caudal Region of the ACC

A

connects mainly to the primary motor cortex and the parietal lobe
- may modulate or override activity during simple motor tasks

107
Q

Middle region of the ACC

A

connects primarily to the premotor cortex
- may modulate the selection of movements

108
Q

Anterior region of the ACC

A

connects primarily to dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
- may modulate more complex motor actions or become active when a high degree of conflict exists

109
Q

right inferior frontal cortex

A

plays a role in interrupting or inhibiting motor actions and is often assessed via the stop-signal paradigm

110
Q

Greater damage of the right inferior frontal cortex is associated with more difficulty to what?

A

do the stop signal task

111
Q

some scientists argue that the right inferior frontal lobe plays a role in _______ _________ based on the current environmental context rather than inhibiting actions

A

altering actions

112
Q

Parietal regions are sensitive to what two kinds of information?

A

proprioceptive and kinesthetic

113
Q

Damage to superior regions of the parietal lobe leads to what?

A

an inability to guide limbs in a well-controlled manner, and is often accompanied by a tendency to misreach

114
Q

Damage to the inferior regions of the parietal lobe leads to what?

A

apraxia (when a person is unable to perform a task or movement when asked to do so)

115
Q

What are the 4 major symptoms of Parkinson’s Disease?

A
  • tremors
  • cogwheel rigidity
  • akinesia/bradykinesia
  • disturbances of posture
116
Q

What is Dystonia in Huntington’s disease?

A

slower movements caused by increased muscle tone and contractions that lead to abnormal posture such as tilting of the head or arching of the back

117
Q

What is Huntington’s disease caused by?

A

an autosomal dominant gene

(when the gene is inherited, it always expresses itself)

118
Q

How many tics per minute do people with Tourette’s syndrome experience?

A

30-100

119
Q

Apraxia

A

the inability to perform Skilled, purposeful movement

120
Q

Ideational apraxia

A

impaired ability to form an idea of intended movement

121
Q

ideomotor apraxia

A

disconnection between the idea of the movement and its execution

122
Q

What are the different ways that people categorize apraxia?

A
  • descriptive grounds
  • referencing the body part that is affected
123
Q

Praxis

A

conception, planning, and production of skilled movement

124
Q

Constructional apraxia

A

items cannot be correctly manipulated with regard to their spatial relations

125
Q

Callosal apraxia

A

a disconnection syndrome that is characterized by an inability to perform a skilled motor act with the left hand in response ot a verbal command

126
Q

What is Callosal apraxia due to?

A

a lesion of the callosum

127
Q

What is retinal tissue derived from?

A

neural tissue

128
Q

What are the two main types of ganglion cells?

A

M cells and P cells

129
Q

M cells

A

are responsive to coarse pattern and detect rapid motion

130
Q

P cells

A

preserve color information

131
Q

Tectopulvinar Pathway

A

allows people to orient quickly to important visual information- motor detection

-involves the superior colliculus (part of the tectum) and the pulvinar nucleus of the thalamus

132
Q

Geniculostriate Pathwayy

A

enables perception of color and detail

  • Axons terminate in the lateral geniculate nucleus
133
Q

Is the tectopulvinar pathway slow or fast acting?

A

Very fast-acting!

134
Q

What type of ganglion cell does the tectopulvinar pathway receive input from?

A

M cells
(M for magnocellular)

135
Q

what is the site of integration of the auditory and the visual senses?

A

the superior colliculus

136
Q

what are the layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus called?

A

K-cell layers

137
Q
A

Cognitive Neuroscience (6 decks)

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