Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

sensory receptor

A

specialized neuron that detects a particular category of events

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2
Q

Sensory transduction

A

process by which sensory stimuli are transduced into slow graded receptor poentials

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3
Q

receptor potentials

A

slow graded electrical potential produced by a receptor cell in response to physical stimuli; affect the release of NT

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4
Q

hue

A

the dominant wavelength

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5
Q

brightness

A

intensity of visual stimuli

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6
Q

saturation

A

purity of visual stimuli

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7
Q

saccadic mov’ts

A

repid, jerky eye mov’ts used in scanning a visual scene

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8
Q

pursuit mov’t

A

mov’t that the eyes make to maintain an image of a moving object on the fovea

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9
Q

iris

A

pigmented ring of muscles situated behind the cornea; controls lens size

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10
Q

lens

A

set immediately behind the iris, transparent

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11
Q

accomodation

A

changes in the thickness of the lens of the eye, accomplished by ciliary muscles that focus near/distant objs on the retina

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12
Q

retina

A

neural tissue & photo receptive cells located on the inner surface of the post. portion of the eye

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13
Q

rods

A

sensitive to light of low intensity

good in dim light

good for global picture

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14
Q

cones

A

maximally sensitive to 3 diff wavelengths of light & encode color vision; constitute the fovea

more acute than rods

info about small features

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15
Q

photoreceptor

A

transduces photic E into electric potentials

Rod & cones

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16
Q

fovea

A

region of the retina that mediates the most acute vision. Color sensitive cones only photoreceptors here.

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17
Q

optic disk

A

location of the exit pt. from the retina to the fibers of the ganglion cells that form the optic nerve; responsible for blind spot

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18
Q

why is there a blind spot on the optic disk

A

b/c there are no receptors located there

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19
Q

bipolar cells

A

bipolar neuron located in the middles layer of the retina

conveys info from photo receptors to the ganglion cells

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20
Q

ganglion cell

A

neuron located in the retina that receives visual info from bipolar cells

axons give rise to the optic nerve

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21
Q

horizontal cells

A

neuron in the retina that interconnects adj. photoreceptors & other process of bipolar cells

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22
Q

Amacrine cell

A

neuron in the retina that interconnects adj. ganglion cells & inner processes of bipolar cells

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23
Q

lamelle

A

layer of membrane containing photopigments; found in rods and cones of retina

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24
Q

photopigments

A

responsible for transduction of visual info.; respond to diff wavelengths

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25
Q

2 parts of photopigments

A
  1. opsin

2. retinal

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26
Q

opsin

A

protein class that w/ retinal constitutes photopigments

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27
Q

retinal

A

protein class that w/ opsin constitutes photopigments

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28
Q

rhodopsin

A

particular opsin found in rods that produces a receptor potential

breaks into 2 components when exposed to light –> receptor potential

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29
Q

Dorsal Lateral Geniculate nucleus (LGN)

A

group of cell bodies w/in the thalmus ; 6 layers

receives input from the retina and projects to primary visual cortex

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30
Q

2 types of layers in the LGN

A
  1. magnocellular

2. parvocellular

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31
Q

magnocelluar layer of LGN

A

inner 2 layers

transmits info necessary for perception of form, mov’t, depth & small diffs in brightness to primary visual cortex

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32
Q

parvocellular layer of LGN

A

4 layers

transmits info necessary for perception of color & fine details to primary visual cortex

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33
Q

koniocellular sublayers of LGN

A

found ventral to both magno & pervocellular layers

transmits info from short wavelength (“blue”) cones to primary visual cortex

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34
Q

calcrine fissure

A

horizontal fissure on the inner surface of the post. cerebral cortex

location of primary visual cortex

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35
Q

striate cortex

A

primary visual cortex

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36
Q

optic chiasm

A

cross shaped connection b/t the optic nerves, located below the base of the brain

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37
Q

Sensory processing Overview (4)

A
  1. accessory structure (lens) modifies the stimulus
  2. signal is transduced
  3. output is transferred to cortex
  4. info in primary sensory cortex goes to secondary and assoc. regions
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38
Q

receptive field

A

portion of visual field in which the presentation of visual stimuli will produce an alteration in the firing rate of a particular neuron

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39
Q

Why is foveal perception more precise that peripheral perception

A

fovea contains equal #s of ganglion cells & cones as the periphery of retina

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40
Q

Trichromatic theory

A

any color can be reproduced by mixing various quantities of 3 colors judiciously selected from diff pts along the spectrum

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41
Q

bleaching

A

photorecpetor’s photopigments are broken apart in presence of light (retinal & opsin)

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42
Q

Basic transduction process (3)

A
  1. est. neural code (action potentials)
  2. bleaching occurs
  3. changes ultimately the firing rate of the ganglion layer
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43
Q

simple cells

A

responds to a particular orientation in a specific visual field (location)

specific orientation depends on the simple cell

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44
Q

complex cells

A

responds to a particular orientation over a range of location (wider range than simple cells)

“motion detectors”

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45
Q

hypercomplex cells

A

responds to a particular orientation- edge must be present to excite cells

“edge detectors”

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46
Q

cytochromeoxidase (CO) blob

A

central region of a module of the primary visual cortex

contains wavelength sensitive neurons; parvo and koniocellulars

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47
Q

extrastriate cortex (V2-V8)

A

region of the visual assoc. cortex

receives fibers from the striate cortex & from the sup colliculi & projects into the inf. temporal lobe

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48
Q

Where are the outputs of V1 sent

A

directly to area V2 of extrastriate cortex

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49
Q

dorsal stream

A

“where” pathway

involved in the perception of spatial location; terminates in post. parietal lobe

V5 and V7

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50
Q

ventral stream

A

“what” pathway

involved in perception of form; terminates in inf. temporal cortex

V3, V4,VP.V8,LOC,FFA

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51
Q

V3, VP, LOC, FFA purpose

A

mainly form and shape recognition

52
Q

V4 & V8 purpose

A

color perception

V4= color constancy region

53
Q

Area V5 purpose

A

motion detection

54
Q

color constancy

A

relative constant appearance of the colors of objects viewed under varying light conditions

55
Q

cerebral achromatopsia

A

inability to discriminate among diff hues; caused by damage to area V8

56
Q

visual agnosia

A

deficits in visual form perception in the absence of blindness caused by brain damage

inability to perceive/ID stimulus by means of a particular sensory modallity

57
Q

lateral occipital complex (LOC)

A

region of the extrastriate cortex; involved in the perception of objects other than people’s bodies & faces

58
Q

prosopagnesia

A

failure to recognize particular people by the sight of their faces; mostly caused by damage

common symptom of visual agnosia

know they are looking at a face but can’t say who

59
Q

fusiform face area (FFA)

A

region of visual assoc. cortx located in the inf. temporal

involved in perception of faces

60
Q

extrastriate body area (EBA)

A

involved in perception of the human body and other body parts other than faces

61
Q

3 basic ways to recognize features

A
  1. diff in features
  2. diff in contour
  3. diff in configurations of features (most difficult to detect)
62
Q

optic flow

A

provides info about relative distance of obj from observer & of relative direction of mov’t; used to determine whether an object approaching us will hit/miss us

63
Q

akinetopsia

A

inability to perceive mov’t caused by damage to V5

64
Q

intraparietal sulcus (IPS)

A

end of dorsal stream of visual assoc. cortex

involved in perception of location, visual attention & control of eye/hand mov’ts

65
Q

5 components of IPS

A
  1. AIP
  2. LIP
  3. VIP
  4. CIP
  5. MIP
66
Q

ocular apraxia

A

impairments in visual scanning

67
Q

optic ataxia

A

impairments of reaching under visual guidance; eyes unable to direct reaching

68
Q

simultanagnosia

A

impairments in perceiving 2 objects when they are together

69
Q

Ballint’s syndrome

A
  1. ocular apraxia
  2. optic ataxia
  3. simultanagnosia

closely associated with bilateral dorsal stream damage

70
Q

3 components of an emotional response

A
  1. behavioral
  2. autonomic
  3. hormonal
71
Q

lateral nucleus

A

nucleus of the amygdala that receives sensory info from the:
1. neocortex
2. thalmus
3. hippocampus
send projections into central nucleus of amygdala.

72
Q

central nucleus

A

involved in emotional responses; single most important part of the brain for expressing emotional responses provoked by adverse stimuli

can learn that specific stimuli are dangerous/threatening

73
Q

Stimuli that activate the Central nucleus

A
  1. loud unexpected noises
  2. approach of large animals
  3. heights
  4. specific sounds/odors
74
Q

ventro-medial PFC

A

plays an inhibitory role in the expression of emotions

75
Q

Role of serotonin

A

increased serotonin decreases aggressive behavior

76
Q

Role of Ventromedial PFC

A

important role in control of emotional behavior

controls emotional responses organized by the amygdala

77
Q

Damage to the Ventromedial PFC

A

causes serious impairments of behavioral control and decision making (emotinal dysregulation)

78
Q

Role of amygdala in recognition

A

plays role in emotional recognition (visual)

esp. fear

79
Q

volitional facial paresis

A

difficulty in moving the facial muscles voluntarily; caused by damage to region of the primary motor cortex

cannot voluntarily move face muscles but can express emotion

80
Q

emotional facial paresis

A

Can move facial muscle voluntarily but cannot express emotions on the affected side of the face

81
Q

Role of right hemi (emotions)

A

involved in expressing emotions

Evidence: left side usually makes a more intense expression

82
Q

schizophrenia definition

A

serious mental disorder characterized by disordered thoughts, delusions, hallucinations, or thought disorders

83
Q

Schizophrenia 3 categories of symptoms

A
  1. positive
  2. negative
  3. cognitive
84
Q

positive symptoms

A

symptom of schizophrenia evident by its presence

  1. delusion
  2. hallucinations
  3. thought disorders
85
Q

though disorders

A

disorganized irrational thinking (most important symptom of schizophrenia)

difficulty to arrange thoughts logically

86
Q

delusions

A

belief that is clearly in contradiction to reality

87
Q

3 types of delusion

A
  1. persecution
  2. grandeur
  3. control
88
Q

delusions of persecution

A

others are plotting/conspiring against them

89
Q

grandeur delusions

A

false beliefs of one’s power/importance

90
Q

control delusions

A

being controlled by others

91
Q

hallucinations

A

perception of nonexistent objects/events

most commonly auditory

92
Q

Negative symptoms

A

symptoms of schizophrenia characterized by the absence of behaviors that are normally present; social withdraw, lack of affect, reduced motivation

93
Q

cognitive symptoms

A

symptom of schizophrenia characterized by cognitive difficulties; defecits in learning/memory, poor abstract thinking, difficulty with attention

94
Q

Dopamine hypothesis

A

suggests that positive symptoms of schizophrenia are caused by overactivity of synapses b/t dopaminergic neurons

95
Q

Drugs for schizophrenia….

A

block dopamine receptors

96
Q

seasonality effects

A

increase incidence of schizophrenia in people born during late winter/early spring

pregnant women more likely to develop viral illnesses

97
Q

hypofrontality

A

decreased activity of the DLPFC; believed to be responsible for the negative symptoms of schizophrenia

caused by decrease in dopamine release in PFC

98
Q

what are the negative/cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia caused by

A

decrease in the metabolic activity of the frontal lobes; NDMA receptors inhibited

99
Q

PFC hypoactivity cause…

A

hyperactivity of mesolimbic dompaminergic cortex; increase in release of dopamine in nucleus accumbens

100
Q

clozapine

A

alleviates +/- & cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia

causes increase in dopamine in PFC
Causes decrease in dopamine in nucleus accumbens

101
Q

What causes hypofrontality

A

synaptic pruning that occurs during adolescence; causes decreased activity of NDMA

102
Q

major affective disorders

A

serious mood disorder (depression & bipolar disorder)

103
Q

bipolar disorder

A

serious mood disorder characterized by cyclical period of mania/depression

104
Q

major depressive disorder

A

serious mood disorder that consists of unremitting depression or periods of depression that do not alter with mania

105
Q

tricyclic antidepressant

A

used to treat depression; inhibits reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin

106
Q

Specific serotonin reuptake inhibtor (SSRI)

A

antidepressant drug that specifically inhibits the reuptake of serotonin w/o affecting the reuptake of other neurotransmitters (Prozac, Celexa, Paxil)

107
Q

Specific serotonoin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SSNRI)

A

antidepressant drug that specifically inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine & serotonin w/o affecting the reuptake of other NT

108
Q

ECT

A

brief electrical shock applied to the head that results in an electrical seizure; used to alleviate severe depression

MOST RAPID EFFECTS

109
Q

lithium

A

chem element used to treat bipolar disorder, specifically the manic episodes

+ response in 1-2 weeks

110
Q

monoamine hypothesis

A

depression is caused by a low lvl of activity of 1+ monoamine synapses (norepinephrine/serotonin)

hypothesis may be TOO simple

111
Q

evidence for monoamine hypothesis

A

monoamine antagonists can produce symptoms of depression and monoamine agonists reduce the symptoms

112
Q

tryptophan depletion procedure

A

low tryptophan diet that decreases the synthesis of 5HT- causes relapse into depression

113
Q

REM sleep deprivation

A

antidepressant treatment; wake patients as they enter REM sleep to alleviate depression over several weeks

can show long term effects

114
Q

Total Sleep deprevation

A

produces immediate effects- not longterm- to alleviate depression

115
Q

Seasonal Affective disorder

A

mood disorder characterized by depression, lethargy, sleep distrubances, and craving for CHOs during winter

116
Q

phototherapy

A

RX of seasonal affective disorder by daily exposure to bright lights- found to be effective for depression as well

117
Q

MAO inhibtors

A

blocks monamine oxidase and interferes with breakdown of monoamines, increasing availability

118
Q

TMS

A

similar to ECT; induces elec, activity in the brain (usually in the left PFC); relatively new

119
Q

DBS

A

Deep Brain Stimulation

subgenual ACC stimulated- leads to reduced activity and causes decrease in depression

120
Q

subgenual ACC and depression

A

subgenual ACC usually HYPERACTIVE during depression

121
Q

Ventricular size in schizophrenic patients

A

ventricles larger- causes a decrease in gray matter

122
Q

Gray matter in schizophrenic patients

A

gray matter volume is lower in schizophrenic patients; rate of loss of gray matter neurons in schizophrenics is higher

123
Q

Dorsolateral PFC

A

responsible for executive fcns; decreased activity in this area results in hypofrontality

124
Q

Hypofrontality linked to…

A
  1. decreased activity of DLPFC
  2. decreased activity of glutamate receptors in DLPFC
  3. decreased dopamine in DLPFC (mesocortical area)
125
Q

decreased activity in the DLPFC is related to…

A

increased activity in mesolimbic dopamine system

126
Q

the mesolimbic and mesocortical systems are ________________ related

A

INVERSELY; specificall the GABA circut