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BIOL1412- diversity of form and function > exam 2 > Flashcards

exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is a special feature of plant’s architecture?

A

they are dynamic- always growing

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2
Q

what does a seed contain?

A

embryo (root and shoot apical meristems, 1-2 cotyledons, stored food in endosperm or cotyledons)

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3
Q

when does seed growth resume?

A

during germination

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4
Q

how do seeds build their body?

A

in response to internal and external cues

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5
Q

what is the first trigger for germination?

A

an external cue of receiving water (universal- all plants need water to grow)

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6
Q

what are some additional cues that some plants need for germination?

A

light, fire, mechanical breakdown of the seed coat (scarification), or chilling (stratification)

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7
Q

what is imbibition?

A

when the seed takes up water

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8
Q

what does imbibition to?

A

activates the embryo and begins germination

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9
Q

what hormone does the plant embryo produce?

A

gibberellic acid (or GA)

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10
Q

what does the hormone GA (or gibberellic acid) do?

A

it diffuses throughout the seed and targets the aleurone- this triggers the release of alpha-amylase (an enzyme)

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11
Q

what does the enzyme alpha-amylase do?

A

triggers the release of sugars from the endosperm (where starch is stored) and they go to the embryo (and seedling growth)

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12
Q

how does GA cause aleurone cells to make alpha-amylase?

A

transcription factor binds to the promoter and kept in check by the repressor; the GA bings to the receptor and enters the nucleus; a complex removes repressor, and alpha-amylase is produced

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13
Q

what are main roles of GA in growth and development?

A

stem elongation, stimulation of fruit enlargement, and germination

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14
Q

what does GA counteract the effects of?

A

ABA (abscisic acid)

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15
Q

what do plant hormones do?

A

regulate growth, coordinate physiological processes, mediate environmental responses, excitation

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16
Q

True or False: Plant hormones can only work in the places they are produced.

A

False- they can work where they are formed as well as in other tissues and organs

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17
Q

what does a hormones’ effect depend on?

A

concentration, location, and presence and concentration of other hormones

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18
Q

who discovered the hormone auxin?

A

Charles Darwin and his son

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19
Q

where is auxin produced?

A

the plant’s tip

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20
Q

how does auxin move through a plant?

A

rootward to induce stem growth

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21
Q

where is indole acetic acid (IAA) produced?

A

terminal bud

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22
Q

what does IAA suppress?

A

axillary buds closest to tip (remove terminal bud, branches grow out)

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23
Q

what promotes branch growth?

A

cytokinin

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24
Q

what does the hormone cytokinin do?

A

shoot induction, axillary bud outgrowth, prevention of leaf death

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25
Q

what does the hormone abscisic acid do?

A

water stress response, stomata closing, dormancy (in seeds and winter buds)

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26
Q

what is abscisic acid similar to?

A

carotenoids

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27
Q

what is cytokinin similar to?

A

adenine

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28
Q

what does the hormone ethylene do?

A

fruit ripening, leaf death (breakdown of chlorophyll), and lead abscission (leaf falling off)

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29
Q

which plant hormone is a gas?

A

ethylene

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30
Q

what is an external cue for plants?

A

light

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31
Q

how is energy for photosynthesis converted to chemical energy?

A

absorption by chlorophyll

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32
Q

how do plants set their internal clock?

A

by using light

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33
Q

what is always required for seed germination?

A

light

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34
Q

what does blue light trigger?

A

phototropism

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35
Q

what is phototropin?

A

a pigment in plasma membrane that absorbs blue light, goes through a conformational change, and exposes an active kinase site; also mediates stomate opening in response to blue light

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36
Q

how can you determine what wavelength of light is most effective in driving a biological process?

A

expose plant to light of different wavelengths and observe its response

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37
Q

what is responsible for red light response in plants?

A

phytochrome

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38
Q

what does phytochrome do?

A

seed germination and control of flowering

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39
Q

what are the 2 interconvertible states of phytochrome?

A

Pr (inactive), Pfr (active)

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40
Q

what is the action of phytochrome?

A

Pfr (active) can enter nucleus- exposed kinase phosphorylates itself, other targets, and activates transcription factors; leads to GA biosynthesis, which triggers alpha-amylase production

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41
Q

what activates the genes for biosynthesis of GA?

A

Pfr (active phytochrome)

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42
Q

what does the first division in embryogenesis result in?

A

terminal cell and basal cell

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43
Q

what does the terminal cell turn into?

A

embryo

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44
Q

what does the basal cell turn into?

A

suspensor

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45
Q

what is the suspensor in a plant embryo?

A

conduit for nutrients

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46
Q

what are the 4 steps in embryogenesis?

A

embryo (globular stage) -> morphogenesis (layers form, apical meristems organized) -> growth (storage molecules accumulate) -> prepare for physiological independence

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47
Q

what is a plant’s ovule?

A

a seed

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48
Q

what does the ovule in a plant contain?

A

embryo and endosperm

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49
Q

what is a seed coat?

A

covering on the ovule

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50
Q

what is a plant’s ovary?

A

a fruit (ripened, mature ovary)

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51
Q

how does fruit develop?

A

as ovules develop into seeds, changes occur in ovary wall

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52
Q

how do fruits promote the dispersal of seeds?

A

fleshy fruits “pay” animals to move the seed, dry fruits use mechanical dispersal

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53
Q

what is dormancy?

A

has a very slow metabolism, and waits for good growing conditions (down to 10% water)

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54
Q

in an angiosperm, what is the male gametophyte?

A

pollen

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55
Q

in an angiosperm, what is the female gametophyte?

A

embryo sac

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56
Q

what are the components of a flower?

A

sepals, petals, stamen, pistils

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57
Q

what are sepals?

A

leaflike, protect flower bud while developing

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58
Q

what are petals?

A

attract pollinators and sometimes have sacs of sugars

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59
Q

what are stamen?

A

produces pollen

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60
Q

what is a pistil?

A

the most complex of the floral organs, usually at the very center and bears ovules

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61
Q

how are floral organs arranged?

A

in whorls

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62
Q

what are the steps of the angiosperm life cycle?

A

meiosis, gametophyte development, pollination, fertilization, embryo development, and seed formation

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63
Q

where are the cells located that undergo meiosis?

A

inside the ovule and anther

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64
Q

where are microspores?

A

anthers

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65
Q

how do microspores develop into pollen?

A

a diploid cell undergoes meiosis and produces 4 haploid cells, and all 4 develop into pollen

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66
Q

what does one pollen contain?

A

sperm and a tube nucleus

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67
Q

where are megaspores?

A

ovule

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68
Q

how do megaspores develop into an embryo sac?

A

a diploid cell undergoes meiosis and forms 4 haploid cells, and only 1 survives to develop into the sac

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69
Q

how many rounds of meiosis occur in developing the embryo sac?

A

3 rounds producing 7 cells

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70
Q

what are the components of the embryo sac?

A

eggs and the central cell (containing 2 nuclei)

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71
Q

what does the central cell turn into when pollinated?

A

endosperm

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72
Q

what is pollination?

A

transfer of pollen from anther to the stigma of the pistil

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73
Q

what are the 2 types of pollination?

A

targeted and non-targeted

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74
Q

what is targeted pollination?

A

less pollen is needed, but an animal must be attracted to flower

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75
Q

what type of pollination is used by 3/4 of angiosperms?

A

targeted pollination

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76
Q

what is non-targeted pollination?

A

copious amounts of pollen is needed, and it is transferred via wind and water

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77
Q

how does pollen growth occur?

A

it lands on a compatible stigma and forms a pollen tube to carry nonmotile sperm to the ovule

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78
Q

how is the growth of the pollen tube directed?

A

by gene expression in the tube nucleus

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79
Q

most flowers are hermaphroditic, meaning what?

A

they contain both sexes, meaning they can self-pollinate

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80
Q

what is a downside to self-pollination?

A

inbreeding, as it can lead to an accumulation of genetic defects

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81
Q

what is outcrossing?

A

process that prevents self-pollination

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82
Q

how do plants conduct outcrossing?

A

animal pollination, different timing of pistil and stamen maturity, unisexual flowers, and self-incompatibility

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83
Q

what is monoecy?

A

both male and female flowers on one plant

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84
Q

what is dioecy?

A

separate male and female plants

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85
Q

what is self-incompatibility?

A

if the pollen is too similar to the ovule DNA, fertilization is blocked

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86
Q

if pollen is recognized at stigma as being compatible, what happens?

A

it forms a pollen tube, grows through the style, and reaches ovules to release sperm into embryo sac and then germinates

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87
Q

what is double fertilization?

A

2 sperm are in each pollen- one fuses with the egg forming a zygote, and one fuses with the central cell forming the endosperm

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88
Q

what is the beginning of the new sporophyte generation?

A

zygote –> embryo

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89
Q

what ploidy is the endosperm?

A

triploid (1N from sperm, 1N + 1N from 2 polar nuclei in central cell)

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90
Q

what plants experience double fertilization?

A

only angiosperms

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91
Q

what is the endosperm?

A

nutritive tissue that persists until germination unless consumed earlier

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92
Q

what is embryogenesis in plants?

A

an early period when a plant is contained within and is nutritionally dependent on maternal tissues

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93
Q

what type of growth occurs first in plants?

A

vegetative

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94
Q

the SAM forms ______ organs, then _____ organs.

A

vegetative; reproductive

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95
Q

True or False: Flowering influences how long a plant lives

A

True

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96
Q

what are perennial plants?

A

plants that flower year after year

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97
Q

what are annual plants?

A

plants that complete their life cycle in one year

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98
Q

what are biennial plants?

A

plants that complete their life cycle in two years

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99
Q

what do biennials require before they flower?

A

a chilling period

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100
Q

what makes the SAM switch from vegetative to reproductive growth?

A

internal cues (in all plants) and external cues (in many plants)

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101
Q

what are internal cues that trigger the switch to reproductive growth?

A

maturation of “phase change”

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102
Q

what are external cues that trigger the switch to reproductive growth?

A

day length (photoperiodism) and chilling (vernalization)

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103
Q

what is characteristic of a plant phase change?

A

the seed germinates and it is incapable of flowering (juvenile); after some period of growth it gains the ability to flower (adult)

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104
Q

what are advantages of the juvenile phase?

A

flowering is expensive, the flower could build up resources needed to successfully complete flowering and seed production

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105
Q

what are characteristics of the photoperiod in plant reproductive growth?

A

seasonal variation in flower production, temperature and water variability, and day length

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106
Q

what are short day plants?

A

they flower when days are short

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107
Q

what are long day plants?

A

they flower under long days

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108
Q

that are day neutral plants?

A

day length does not affect flowering time

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109
Q

what is the critical daylength?

A

a threshold that must be reached (days must be shorter than it for short day plants to flower, and longer than it for long day plants to flower); differs based on species

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110
Q

what organ perceives photoperiod?

A

the leaves

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111
Q

what are general characteristics of an animal?

A

multicellularity, heterotrophic metabolism, internal digestion, movement, nervous systems, lack cell walls, specialized cell junctions, conserved HOX genes

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112
Q

what do animals need to survive?

A

eat nutrients, take in oxygen, expel wastes, protect themselves, grow, reproduce, etc.

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113
Q

what is the closest outgroup of all animals?

A

colony of choanoflagellate protists

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114
Q

what are components of animal body plans?

A

symmetry, digestive system, coelom (body cavity), segmentation, appendages, and a nervous system

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115
Q

what are the 3 types of symmetry?

A

spherical, radial, and bilateral

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116
Q

what is spherical symmetry?

A

there is a single point from which any plant that bisects it results in similar halves (no apparent top/bottom)

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117
Q

what is radial/bilateral symmetry?

A

there is an anterior/posterior (anterior end typically the mouth)

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118
Q

what are 3 characteristics of bilateral symmetry?

A

true dorsal/ventral, right/left, and greater mobility on land

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119
Q

what are the 2 types of digestive systems?

A

sac design and tube

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120
Q

what is a sac design digestive system?

A

only one opening for both eating food and waste excretion; circulation, gas exchange, hydrostatic skeleton

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121
Q

what do sac design digestive systems lack?

A

specializations for ingestion/regurgitation, and organs for specialized digestion/absorption

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122
Q

what do organisms with sac digestive systems look like?

A

they remain small and thin

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123
Q

what is a tube digestive system?

A

a gut and 2 openings: mouth (eating) and anus (excreting)

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124
Q

what else is the tube digestive system used for other than digestion?

A

gas exchange across gut

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125
Q

what are tube digestive systems associated with, size-wise?

A

more complex forms and greater size and thickness

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126
Q

what is a coelom?

A

a body cavity

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127
Q

what are acoelomates?

A

no coelom (filled with masses of cells) and often lack complex organs; move by beating cilia

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128
Q

acoelomates sometimes refers only to _____blastic organisms, but often used for _____blastic organisms too.

A

triploblastic; diploblastic

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129
Q

what are pseudocoelomates?

A

have an interior sterile cavity that is not completely enclosed by the mesoderm; cavity is fluid-filled

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130
Q

why do we care what an organism has in their body cavity?

A

movement

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131
Q

what does segmentation allow for?

A

specialization of body regions that help changes in body shape

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132
Q

changes in segmentation can often result from what?

A

changes in the expression of Hox genes

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133
Q

what allowed the radiation of arthropods?

A

changes in segmentation

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134
Q

what are types of appendages?

A

feet, hands, and antennae

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135
Q

what does the nervous system do?

A

it allows for the coordination of movement and processes sensory inputs

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136
Q

what is a nerve net?

A

no central processing center, but can sense, relay, and react

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137
Q

what is a simple “brain”?

A

ganglia at the head end for integration and more complex actions

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138
Q

what is adherence of cells?

A

cells in an animal are arranged into tissues (cells must be able to stick to each other and to the extracellular matrix for tissues to be successful

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139
Q

what evolved to allow cells to “stick”?

A

cell adhesion molecules (CAMs) and integrins

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140
Q

what do integrins do?

A

attach cell cytoskeleton to collagen and other proteins in the extracellular matrix; it is often rearranged during cellular movement

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141
Q

what happens when integrin’s 3D structure changes?

A

it cannot bind to the extracellular matrix- the cell detaches

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142
Q

what are 3 types of animal cell junctions?

A

tight junctions, desmosomes, gap junctions

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143
Q

what are tight junctions?

A

prevent materials in extracellular matrix from leaking between the cells and proteins in the plasma membranes from migrating to other side of cell

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144
Q

what are desmosomes?

A

binds cells tightly but does not prevent movement of material between cells or within the cells’ membranes

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145
Q

what are gap junctions?

A

pores which flow adjacent cells to exchange material

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146
Q

what are the 4 animal tissue types?

A

epithelial, muscle, connective, nervous

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147
Q

what does epithelial tissue do?

A

barriers, exchange (secretion/absorption), storage, communication (chemical signal), reproduction, coordination

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148
Q

what are the 3 types of muscle?

A

skeletal, cardiac, smooth

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149
Q

what is characteristic of skeletal muscle?

A

multinucleate, striated, voluntary, fast

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150
Q

what is characteristic of cardiac muscle?

A

cells coordinated by gap junctions, some striations, myogenic, and rhythmic

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151
Q

what is characteristic of smooth muscle?

A

some tissues coordinated by gap junctions, while others not; not striated, many regulated unconsciously by enteric nervous system, involuntary and slow

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152
Q

what types of muscle is involuntary?

A

cardiac and smooth

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153
Q

what is connective tissue?

A

typically has fewer cells and more solid/liquid extracellular matrix, often with protein fibers like collagen and elastin in matrix

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154
Q

what are the types of connective tissue?

A

adipose (fat), cartilage, bone, and blood

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155
Q

what do neurons do?

A

fast electrochemical communication, sensory and communication

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156
Q

what are organs?

A

2+ different tissue types arranged spatially to perform a particular function or a particular set of functions

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157
Q

what is an organ system?

A

individual organs are usually part of a system that works together for a particular function

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158
Q

what is cephalization?

A

concentration of sensory organs and nervous tissues at the anterior end

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159
Q

why is an organisms motion important?

A

finding a mate, acquiring food, avoid predators, finding a suitable habitat

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160
Q

what was the major split in primate phylogeny 90 million years ago?

A

wet nosed and dry nosed primates

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161
Q

what was the split in primate phylogeny 35 million years ago?

A

apes and old world monkeys

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162
Q

when did humans split from orangutans?

A

~22 million years ago

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163
Q

what is characteristic of hominin phylogeny?

A

bipedal locomotion (the ability to walk on 2 legs)

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164
Q

what is characteristic of a bipedal primate?

A

a larger bicondylar angle

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165
Q

what do muscles do?

A

they interact to develop forces to move (they are the basis for behaviors)

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166
Q

what makes up ~1/2 of our body mass?

A

muscles

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167
Q

what are skeletal muscles?

A

throughout the body; muscles attached by tendons to bones, packed with actin and myosin

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168
Q

what are cardiac muscles?

A

in the heart; shorter muscle cells that are branched and in an interlinked network

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169
Q

what are smooth muscles?

A

in excretory system and blood vessels; loose network of actin and myosin (no bundles)

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170
Q

what is the function of skeletal muscle?

A

locomotion- movement of body parts

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171
Q

what is the function of cardiac muscle?

A

pumping blood within circulatory system

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172
Q

what is the function of smooth muscle?

A

movement of internal organs

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173
Q

what is a contraction?

A

development of force in a muscle (not always shortening)

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174
Q

what is the sliding-filament theory?

A

during contraction, small filaments seem to slide past each other

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175
Q

what is the structure of a skeletal muscle

A

clusters of myofibrils make up a muscle fiber, and clusters of muscle fibers make up a muscle

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176
Q

what is the z line in a muscle?

A

the ends of each sarcomere

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177
Q

what is the H zone?

A

the area between the actin and myosin filaments (contains the M line)

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178
Q

what is the A band?

A

the entire length of myosin in one sarcomere

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179
Q

what is the I band?

A

the area between the myosin filaments (contains the Z line)

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180
Q

what is a muscle fiber?

A

a muscle cell

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181
Q

what is actin?

A

a contractile protein in a muscle fiber; filaments are organized and thin

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182
Q

what is myosin in the muscle?

A

a contractile protein in a muscle fiber; filaments are organized and thick

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183
Q

what are myofibrils?

A

long, longitudinally oriented internal component of a muscle fiber made of actin and myosin

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184
Q

what is a sarcomere?

A

contractile unit of muscle cells; repeating units of myofibril

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185
Q

what is titin?

A

molecules of a protein that hold together the thick myosin filaments and returns the sarcomere to shorter length after stretching

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186
Q

what is tropomyosin?

A

protein that twists around each actin chain that controls interactions between actin and myosin; blocks or unblocks myosin-binding sites

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187
Q

what is troponin?

A

protein molecules that are attached to tropomyosin that help control position of tropomyosin; plays a role in controlling actin and myosin

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188
Q

what are cross-bridges in muscles?

A

bridge-like links between actin and myosin filaments, connected by myosin heads

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189
Q

what does it mean that a skeletal muscle fiber is “innervated”?

A

a nerve provides it a neural input

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190
Q

what is a neuromuscular junction?

A

a synapse where a motor neuron axon makes contact with a muscle fiber

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191
Q

what is excitation?

A

when a nerve impulse arrives at a neuromuscular junction and initiates an action potential

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192
Q

what is excitation-contraction coupling?

A

a process where electrical excitation of membrane leads to contractile activity by proteins

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193
Q

what is a transverse tubule (T tubule)?

A

indentations of the cell membrane at regular intervals over the surface of the muscle cell that conduct electrical excitation into the cell’s interior

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194
Q

what is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

endoplasmic reticulum of a muscle cell that is used for Ca2+ storage and release

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195
Q

how is a muscle contraction conducted?

A

Ca2+ is released from sarcoplasmic reticulum, which binds troponin and exposes myosin-binding sites on actin, allowing myosin to bind to actin and a power stroke begins

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196
Q

after a power stroke, how does a muscle contraction end?

A

ATP binds to the myosin head which unbinds it from the actin, and then the ATP is hydrolyzed and releases energy from myosin

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197
Q

what is the endoskeleton?

A

skeleton inside other tissues

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198
Q

what is the exoskeleton?

A

skeleton encases the rest of the body

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199
Q

what is bone?

A

made of extracellular matrix of collagen crystals among them

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200
Q

what is cartilage?

A

a flexible skeletal tissue that gives flexibility

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201
Q

what are joints?

A

the place where bones and muscles work together

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202
Q

what are tendons?

A

flexible connective tissue that attach muscles to bones

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203
Q

what is an antagonistic pair?

A

muscles that work together in opposite actions (one contracts, the other relaxes)

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204
Q

in a fish, where are the swimming muscles located?

A

the middle of the body, but they connect to the tail via tendons so only the tail moves during swimming

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205
Q

what are slow oxidative cells in fish?

A

slow-twitch cells that are red

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206
Q

what are fast glycolytic cells in fish?

A

fast-twitch cells that are white

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207
Q

how are exoskeleton muscles different from endoskeletal muscles?

A

they pull on the interior surface (on the apodeme, which is a part of exoskeleton that projects inside of the body in which muscles attach to)

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208
Q

what is a hydrostatic skeleton?

A

when a part or the whole body can become stiff like a skeleton due to a high fluid pressure inside

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209
Q

what is power, in relation to muscles?

A

the rate at which work is done

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210
Q

what is an oxidative system?

A

production of ATP by aerobic metabolism ramps up in the first minute and can be indefinitely sustained (citric acid cycle and e- transport)

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211
Q

what is a glycolytic system?

A

anaerobic glycolysis accelerates its synthesis of ATP to its peak rate within seconds, but is self limiting

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212
Q

what is an immediate system?

A

performed ATP is immediately available but quickly exhausted

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213
Q

what is endurance exercise?

A

steady, long-duration exercise

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214
Q

what is resistance exercise?

A

generates large forces in a few repetitions of movement in a short time

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215
Q

what type of muscle cells are more common in a long distance runner?

A

slow oxidative cells

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216
Q

what type of muscle cells are more common in a sprinter?

A

fast glycolytic cell

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217
Q

what are slow-twitch fibers better adapted for?

A

sustained aerobic activity

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218
Q

what are fast-twitch fibers better adapted for?

A

generating maximum tension quickly, but also fatiguing quickly

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219
Q

what type of muscle cell has a lot of mitochondria?

A

slow-twitch fiber

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220
Q

what type of muscle cell has few mitochondria?

A

fast-twitch fiber

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221
Q

in which type of muscle fiber is partial contraction possible?

A

slow-twitch fiber

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222
Q

what is the source of ATP in fast-twitch fibers?

A

fermentation

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223
Q

what is the source of ATP in slow-twitch fibers?

A

aerobic respiration

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224
Q

how much does genetics explain the difference in muscle performance?

A

2-3%

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225
Q

what is involuntary movement?

A

contraction and relaxation of internal muscles

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226
Q

how many nuclei are in one skeletal muscle fiber?

A

many

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227
Q

how many nuclei are in one cardiac muscle fiber?

A

one

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228
Q

True or False: Cardiac muscle is not striated.

A

False- actin and myosin filaments are arranged in patterns in sarcomeres

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229
Q

what are intercalated discs?

A

the location where two cardiac muscle cells are connected (gap junctions)

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230
Q

what is the general shape of one smooth muscle cell?

A

spindle-shaped

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231
Q

how many nuclei are in one smooth muscle fiber?

A

one

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232
Q

are there striations in smooth muscle?

A

no (actin and myosin aren’t in the same pattern)

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233
Q

what controls smooth muscle?

A

the autonomic nervous system

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234
Q

what are asynchronous flight muscles?

A

each excitation causes many contractions in invertebrate muscles

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235
Q

what is a catch muscle?

A

adductor muscles able to sustain contraction forces that close the 2 sides of the shell together in invertebrates (ex: clams)

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236
Q

where is most of the water in mammals?

A

inside cells

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237
Q

what is the purpose of extracellular fluid?

A

gives cells nutrients and removes cellular wastes

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238
Q

what is the definition of homeostasis?

A

the stability of the internal environment of an individual, such as a constant body temp and the physiological or behavioral feedback responses that maintain that stability

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239
Q

what is Walter Cannon’s definition of homeostasis?

A

the coordinated physiological processes which maintain most of the constant states in the organism

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240
Q

what are 2 general approaches of homeostasis?

A

conformation and regulation

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241
Q

how is heat exchange regulated in the skin?

A

blood vessels constrict or dilate depending on the temperature

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242
Q

what happens to blood vessels near the surface when it is too cold?

A

they constrict

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243
Q

what happens to blood vessels near the surface when it is too hot?

A

they dilate

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244
Q

what are a few parameters of homeostasis?

A

thermoregulation*, pH, blood glucose, behavioral feedback responses, [O2], [CO2], [Na+], blood pressure, heartbeat, body fluids, etc.

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245
Q

why is homeostasis important for an organism?

A

organisms need to maintain stable environments inside because its likely that they live in a different type of environment, requiring some work or energy (or physical mechanism) to keep stability

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246
Q

why is thermoregulation important?

A

temperature affects rates of enzyme catalyzed reactions, and effects of these reactions vary so coordinating the metabolism at different temps is challenging

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247
Q

what is the Q10 temperature coefficient?

A

a measure of sensitivity of a reaction or physiological process to a change in temp (within a limited range)

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248
Q

what is a homeotherm?

A

an animal that keeps a steady internal body temperature

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249
Q

what are examples of homeotherms?

A

birds and mammals

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250
Q

what types of animals are regulators (in terms of temp)?

A

regulators

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251
Q

what are poikilotherms?

A

animals that vary their body temperature along with the environment

252
Q

what are examples of poikilotherms?

A

frogs, lizards, fish (most aquatic animals)

253
Q

what types of animals are conformers (in terms of temp)?

A

poikilotherms

254
Q

what type of animal has a higher metabolic rate, no matter the external temperature?

A

homeotherms

255
Q

which type of animal can survive in extreme temperature environments?

A

homeotherms and poikilotherms

256
Q

how can reindeer survive in extreme environments?

A

they have a natural insulation- thick fur and hollow hairs full of nonmoving air

257
Q

what is an endotherm?

A

an animal that gets heat primarily from internal sources (metabolism)

258
Q

what type of animal tries to maintain constant temps- endotherms or ectotherms?

A

endotherms

259
Q

what is an ectotherm?

A

an animal that obtains heat primarily from external sources

260
Q

what type of animal can have higher or lower body temps than normal- endotherms or ectotherms?

A

ectotherms

261
Q

what type of animal often have membranes that leak ions more often?

A

endotherms

262
Q

why do endotherms often have membranes that leak ions?

A

to maintain ion gradients they spend more energy, and have higher metabolic rates and generate more heat

263
Q

what types of adipose tissue is found in homeotherms?

A

brown and white adipose tissue

264
Q

what type of adipose tissue produces heat?

A

brown adipose tissue

265
Q

what is nonshivering thermogenesis?

A

when an animal produces heat without needing to expend more energy from shivering

266
Q

what is a behavioral strategy that allows small animals to keep warm?

A

protective microenvironments

267
Q

what are animals that try to maintain parameters at optimal levels?

A

regulators

268
Q

what are animals that, for at least some parameters, allow the internal level to vary with the environment?

A

conformers

269
Q

what is often lethal for conformers?

A

extreme environmental changes

270
Q

True or False: All parameters will vary drastically in each organism.

A

False- some parameters are more important to keep constant, and others don’t change much in the environment so they don’t change much in the organism

271
Q

True or False: There are different degrees of homeostasis.

A

True

272
Q

what is the difference between acclimatization and acclimation?

A

acclimation- adjustments to lab-based environments or adjustments after prior exposure
acclimatization- adjustments to natural environments/seasonality

273
Q

what is regional hypothermia?

A

one localized area on an animal can be cold while the remaining parts of the body stays warm

274
Q

which type of animal can regulate their behavior- endotherms or ectotherms?

A

both endotherms and ectotherms

275
Q

what is an example of temperature regulation?

A

lizards moving to a sunny rock

276
Q

what is countercurrent flow used for in physiological acclimatization in Grant’s Gazelle?

A

keeps the brain cool by 2-3 degrees Celsius

277
Q

what is an example of physiological acclimatization?

A

sweating and panting releases heat by evaporation

278
Q

what 4 ways can heat exchange occur?

A

radiation, convection, conduction, and evaporation

279
Q

how does evaporation cool the body?

A

it comes off the body surfaces or breathing passages

280
Q

what is radiation?

A

warmer objects lose heat to cooler objects

281
Q

how is heat lost by convection?

A

a stream of wind is cooler than the body surface temp

282
Q

what is conduction?

A

the direct transfer of heat when objects of different temps come into contact

283
Q

why is a larger surface area an issue with heat loss?

A

more surface means more heat is usually lost, but it can also be gained

284
Q

where is heat generated particularly in endotherms?

A

volume

285
Q

what is hibernation?

A

a state with low body temps and thermal conformity

286
Q

what types of animals hibernate (most often)?

A

small mammals

287
Q

what are heterotherms?

A

homeothermic during summer, but hibernate in winter

288
Q

how do bees thermoregulate?

A

the flight muscles keep the thorax warm; they collect water and spread it on the hive, then fan it to encourage evaporation

289
Q

what likely drives adaptations for thermoregulation?

A

changes in DNA

290
Q

what is a large difference between types of barracuda depending on the temperature they live in?

A

metabolic enzymes

291
Q

why do we need to eat?

A

each cell in your body needs to break down and rebuild 2-3% of its protein molecules daily

292
Q

how much ATP does each cell use daily?

A

10^14 ATP molecules

293
Q

what are different types of feeding?

A

predation, suspension feeding, and symbiosis

294
Q

what is suspension feeding?

A

an animal pulls in water and strains out the food

295
Q

what is a food web?

A

map that shows the direction of energy flow through animal populations (who eats who)

296
Q

what are the components of a homeostatic mechanism?

A

stressor, sensor with receptor, integrator, effector

297
Q

what is a stressor in homeostasis?

A

causes deviation from a set point

298
Q

what is a sensor with receptor in homeostasis?

A

detects the error signal produced by the deviation from the set point

299
Q

what is an integrator in homeostasis?

A

receives info from sensor and sends compensatory signals to effectors

300
Q

what is an effector in homeostasis?

A

produces changes to the internal environment

301
Q

True or False: A homeostatic component can have one or more mechanistic role.

A

True

302
Q

what is feedback?

A

info about the relationship between the set point of the system and its current state

303
Q

what is feedforward?

A

feature of a regulatory system that changes a set point in anticipation (amplifies a response)

304
Q

what is positive feedback?

A

type of control that acts to increase differences that arise between levels; speeds up an earlier process in a system

305
Q

what is negative feedback?

A

type of control that acts to reduce differences that arise between levels; slows down a process

306
Q

what type of feedback usually destabilizes a system?

A

positive feedback

307
Q

what type of feedback usually stabilizes a system?

A

negative feedback

308
Q

homeostasis does not have _______ feedback.

A

positive

309
Q

when does feedback occur?

A

when the rate of an early process is affected by the amount of a later product

310
Q

what is the homeostatic sensor in animals?

A

hypothalamus

311
Q

what type of feedback is mammalian birth an example of?

A

positive feedback

312
Q

what is a feedforward system?

A

organism reacts to stimulus that is not the end product of the pathway by changing downstream responses to the stimulus

313
Q

what is an example of a feedforward system in plants and animals?

A

circadian rhythms

314
Q

what is the central nervous system?

A

brain and spinal cord

315
Q

what is the peripheral nervous system?

A

nerves in the rest of the body

316
Q

what are spinal nerves?

A

nerves that come in pairs with one on each side of the body along the length of the spinal cord

317
Q

what actions does the nervous system allow for?

A

sensing, integration, analyzation, homeostasis, motor

318
Q

what are neurons?

A

cells of the nervous system that are small and elongated

319
Q

what are nerves?

A

bundles of neurons (100s-10,000s)

320
Q

what are sensory neurons?

A

neurons that carry signals from sense organs to the CNS

321
Q

what are motor neurons?

A

neurons that carry signals to muscle

322
Q

what is the pathway for sense integration?

A

sensing a stimulus at sensory organ –> CNS –> PNS –> muscle for response

323
Q

how fast can mammal neurons transmit signals?

A

20-100 meters per second

324
Q

what does a fast nervous system allow for?

A

the ability to quickly perform tasks

325
Q

nervous systems are fast and & ______.

A

addressed (meaning go to a specific location)

326
Q

what does it mean that neurons are excitable?

A

the cell membrane can generate and conduct impulses or action potentials

327
Q

what is an action potential?

A

state of reversed polarity of the cell membrane

328
Q

what does it mean when a cell can be depolarized?

A

when the electrical polarity is less negative

329
Q

what is a membrane potential?

A

charge difference across the cell membrane

330
Q

at rest, the inside of a cell membrane has a _____ charge.

A

negative

331
Q

at rest, the outside of a cell membrane has a _____ charge.

A

negative

332
Q

what is the resting membrane potential?

A

membrane potential when not firing an action potential when at rest

333
Q

what separates the charges inside and outside a cell?

A

cell membrane

334
Q

what produces an electrical potential in a cell?

A

charge imbalance across the membrane

335
Q

what is the direction of propagation down a neuron?

A

from the cell body down to the postsynaptic terminals

336
Q

what is a current in a neuron?

A

flow of electric charges from place to place

337
Q

what is voltage in a neuron?

A

positive charges are connected in one place and negative charges are connected in a different place

338
Q

what is the process of generation of an action potential?

A

Na+ enters cell, depolarizing portions of the membrane; Na+ voltage-gated channels nearby open when the membrane reaches a threshold needed for the AP to fire

339
Q

what hyperpolarizes a neuron?

A

K+ voltage-gated channels open after the Na+ channels inactivate after a section of the axon is depolarized

340
Q

how do action potentials jump along axons?

A

it starts at the beginning, then moves to the next node on the axon

341
Q

what are the common anatomical features of neurons?

A

dendrites, cell body, axon, set of presynaptic axon terminals

342
Q

what do dendrites do?

A

major site of synaptic input from other neurons

343
Q

what does the cell body do of a neuron?

A

contains neuron’s nucleus and organelles; integration

344
Q

what is the axon hillock?

A

the spot where the cell body transitions to the axon, and is where a signal is integrated

345
Q

what does the axon do?

A

propagates axon potentials over long distances to the axon terminals

346
Q

what is a synapse?

A

junction that allows a neuron to communicate with its target cell

347
Q

what does a presynaptic cell do?

A

conducts signals into the synapse

348
Q

what does a postsynaptic cell do?

A

conducts signals away from the synapse

349
Q

what is myelin?

A

concentric layers of the cell membrane wrapped around axons

350
Q

what are some glial cells that act as myelin?

A

oligodendrocytes and schwann cells

351
Q

what is white matter?

A

parts of nervous system with mostly myelinated axons (named for glistening white appearance)

352
Q

what is the process of an action potential?

A

resting membrane potential becomes depolarization and leads to the peak of action potential, then the cell becomes repolarized and the resting membrane potential is restored

353
Q

what are sensors in the nervous system?

A

sensory cells and sense organs

354
Q

what are effectors in the nervous system?

A

cells or tissues that carry out orders from the control system

355
Q

what are 3 types of neurons?

A

interneurons, afferent (sensory) neurons, efferent neurons

356
Q

where are interneurons found?

A

neurons that are confined to CNS that connect other neurons together

357
Q

what do interneurons do?

A

integration, command, and information-storage functions

358
Q

what are the most abundant neurons in the CNS?

A

interneurons

359
Q

what do afferent (sensory) neurons do?

A

carry signals from sensory cells to CNS

360
Q

what do efferent neurons do?

A

convey signals from CNS to effectors (like muscles)

361
Q

what are glial cells?

A

another cell type in the nervous system that is not excitable

362
Q

what do glial cells do for the brain?

A

metabolic support for neurons, regulate extracellular fluid composition, and immune system

363
Q

what do glial cells do during development?

A

guide growing neurons in CNS

364
Q

what types of glial cells are in the CNS?

A

oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, and microglia

365
Q

what is the most abundant cell in the brain?

A

astrocyte glial cells

366
Q

what occurs at a chemical synapse?

A

neurotransmitter release and transmission that can excite or inhibit the postsynaptic cell

367
Q

what is a neurotransmitter?

A

a chemical that can excite or inhibit a postsynaptic cell that is secreted at an axon terminal

368
Q

what are common neurotransmitters?

A

acetylcholine (ACh), norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin, GABA, glycine, nitric acid

369
Q

is acetylcholine inhibitory or excitatory?

A

excitatory to vertebrate skeletal muscles; inhibitory at other sites

370
Q

is norepinephrine inhibitory or excitatory?

A

both excitatory or inhibitory

371
Q

is dopamine inhibitory or excitatory?

A

generally excitatory, but can be inhibitory

372
Q

where does a neuron connect to a muscle?

A

neuromuscular junction

373
Q

what channels are voltage-gated?

A

Na+, K+, and Ca2+

374
Q

how does the muscle work in terms of sensory response?

A

receptor protein detects stimulus, and this results in an AP in the receptor’s cell or results in release of a signal that eventually produces an AP in a neuron

375
Q

what are sensory receptor cells?

A

cells (neurons) that transform energy of a stimulus into an electric signal

376
Q

what is transduction?

A

a sensory receptor cell produces an electric signal from stimulus energy

377
Q

what is characteristic of the cell membrane in a rod cell in the eye?

A

it is highly folded, allowing for more surface area for more photoreceptor molecules to be present

378
Q

what is a sensory receptor protein?

A

membrane protein in sensory receptor cells that first detects a stimulus and produces a graded change in receptor cell’s membrane potential

379
Q

what is receptor potential?

A

graded change in membrane potential

380
Q

what are the 2 receptor cell types?

A

ionotropic and metabotropic receptor cells

381
Q

what is an ionotropic receptor cell?

A

a receptor protein that is a stimulus-gated Na+ channel

382
Q

what is a metabotropic receptor cell?

A

receptor protein that activates a G-protein

383
Q

what are mechanoreceptors?

A

cells that respond to mechanical distortion of their cell membrane, usually ionotropic

384
Q

what are thermoreceptors?

A

cells that detect heat and cold, usually ionotropic

385
Q

what are chemoreceptors?

A

cells that respond to presence or absence of specific chemicals

386
Q

what is characteristic of moth olfactory cells?

A

they are highly specific and respond to 1 odorant

387
Q

how does the auditory sense work?

A

sound pressure waves are alternating high and low pressures and the ear detects this

388
Q

what kind of noises do high frequencies produce?

A

high pitch and notes

389
Q

what kind of frequencies do low frequencies produce?

A

low pitch and notes

390
Q

how does a sound wave move into and through the ear (steps)?

A

tympanic membrane, ossicles, oval window, cochlea, basilar membrane, organ of corti

391
Q

what is the tympanic membrane?

A

part of the ear that vibrates when sound pressure waves travel through

392
Q

what are the 3 ossicles in the ear?

A

stapes, incus, and malleus

393
Q

what do the ossicles do?

A

transmit vibrations of tympanic membrane to oval window

394
Q

what is the oval window?

A

where ossicles connect to the cochlea

395
Q

what happens in the cochlea?

A

vibrations at oval window create pressure waves in the cochlear fluid

396
Q

what is the basilar membrane?

A

when it is flexed, it bends stereocilia on hair cells in organ of Corti

397
Q

what is transduced into APs in the auditory nerve?

A

movement of stereocilia

398
Q

where are the lowest frequencies transduced on the basilar membrane?

A

at the apical end (the inside of the coil)

399
Q

what do fibers in the membrane vibrate in response to?

A

different frequencies of sound/different pitches

400
Q

what is the most simple function of visual systems?

A

sense and respond to light

401
Q

what is a more complex function of visual systems?

A

more detailed images of the environment

402
Q

what are photoreceptors?

A

sensory receptor cells that are light sensitive

403
Q

what is a sensory receptor protein?

A

member of a family of closely similar membrane pigments- visual opsins

404
Q

what is the cornea?

A

outer layer of the eye made of connective tissue

405
Q

what is the pupil?

A

where light enters the light-sensing part of the eye

406
Q

what is the iris?

A

small muscles that change diameter of pupil

407
Q

what is the lens?

A

crystal clear proteins behind the iris

408
Q

what is the retina?

A

space at the back of the eye with a photosensitive layer for focusing images

409
Q

what is the pathway of light in the eye?

A

light enters eye, absorbed by rods and cones that send info to nuclei, of which converges on ganglion cells, which send. theAP to the brain

410
Q

what are the layers of integrating neurons, from the back of the retina to the front?

A

photoreceptors (rods and cones), then bipolar cells (horizontal cells and amacrine cells), and then ganglion cells which axons combine to lead to the optic nerve

411
Q

what are the types of photoreceptor cells?

A

rods and cones

412
Q

which type of photoreceptor cell is responsible for color vision?

A

cones

413
Q

True or False: Rods and cones produce APs just like neurons.

A

False- they do not produce APs but they make a graded membrane

414
Q

what are compound eyes?

A

each eye has many optical units (ommatidia)

415
Q

what type of organism have compound eyes?

A

arthropods

416
Q

how can bats find prey and navigate?

A

sonar (sound echoes)

417
Q

how do bats use sonar?

A

they use larynx (voice box) to make high frequency sound waves that bounce off surfaces

418
Q

how do tiger moths “jam” bats echolocation?

A

produce bursts of ultrasonic sound at high intensity

419
Q

what is a lateral line system?

A

a sensory organ that detects changes in pressure and movement in water

420
Q

what types of sensory cells are ionotropic?

A

mechanoreceptor, thermoreceptor, and electroreceptor

421
Q

what types of sensory cells are metabotropic?

A

chemoreceptor and photoreceptor

422
Q

what are taste buds?

A

clusters of chemosensory receptor cells

423
Q

what is centralization?

A

tendency for neurons to be clustered into centralized, integrating organs

424
Q

what is cephalization?

A

trend toward increasing concentration of nervous tissue and sensory organs at the anterior end of an animal

425
Q

what makes up the central nervous system?

A

large structures made mostly of integrating neurons and glial cells where most info processing, storage, and retrieval happens

426
Q

what makes up the peripheral nercous system?

A

part of the nervous system that isn’t the CNA, made of neurons and parts of them

427
Q

what types of animals have simple nervous systems?

A

sea anemones and sea stars

428
Q

what is the neuronal signaling pathway?

A

stimulus from sensory system enters PNS, CNS processing and integration of info, and the response is sent to effectors

429
Q

what are the divisions of the autonomic nervous system?

A

enteric, sympathetic, and parasympathetic

430
Q

what is the enteric division of the autonomic nervous system?

A

it is inside the gut wall and helps with digestion

431
Q

where does the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system connect?

A

thoracic and lumbar spinal nerves

432
Q

where does the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system connect?

A

cranial and sacral nerves

433
Q

what does the sympathetic division of the nervous system do?

A

immediate responses (fight or flight)

434
Q

what does the parasympathetic division of the nervous system?

A

more restful responses (rest and digest)

435
Q

what are spinal reflexes?

A

responses that don’t use the brain and the signals come from the spine initiate motor neuronal signals in response to sensory neuronal signals in the spinal cord

436
Q

what does the dorsal root of the spinal nerves do?

A

receive signals from sensory organs

437
Q

what does the ventral root of the spinal nerves do?

A

sends signals out to the muscle

438
Q

how is the body represented in the brain?

A

somatosensory and motor cortices in the brain

439
Q

what is binocular vision?

A

2 eyes show overlapping visual fields (and how we can see objects in 3D)

440
Q

what is the optic chiasm?

A

where the optic nerves meet

441
Q

what is the cerebral cortex?

A

outermost layer of cerebral hemispheres, thin layer of cell bodies

442
Q

what does the cerebellum do?

A

integrates sensory and motor info

443
Q

what are the 3 divisions of vertebrate brain evolution?

A

forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain

444
Q

what does the forebrain become in development?

A

cerebrum

445
Q

what does the hindbrain become in evolution?

A

pons, medulla, and cerebellum

446
Q

what is the amygdala?

A

brain center responsible for emotion and memory of fear

447
Q

what does ecstasy/MDMA do to the brain?

A

causes continual release of serotonin, causing cell overstimulation

448
Q

what can ecstasy/MDMA do to the body?

A

rapid breathing/heart rate/BP/temp –> organ system failure –> death

449
Q

what do addictive drugs trigger?

A

the release of dopamine (and can stop the uptake)

450
Q

what does naloxone do?

A

blocks opioid receptors in CNS and periphery

451
Q

what type of drug (Na+ or K+ blocker) prolongs the AP?

A

K+ blocker

452
Q

what type of drug (Na+ or K+ blocker) decreases speed of conduction?

A

Na+ blocker

453
Q

what type of drug (Na+ or K+ blocker) prolongs the refractory period?

A

K+ blocker

454
Q

what type of drug (Na+ or K+ blocker) suppresses the ability to reach threshold?

A

Na+ blocker

455
Q

what type of drug (Na+ or K+ blocker) increases the threshold?

A

Na+ blocker

456
Q

what type of drug (Na+ or K+ blocker) prolongs repolarization?

A

K+ blocker

457
Q

what is the path of oxygen in the respiratory system?

A

O2 enters lungs and crosses 2 simple epithelia, then goes into the blood and down to the muscle; then crosses epithelial wall into muscle cell, then into cytoplasm and enters mitochondria

458
Q

how does dog ventilation work?

A

bulk flow ventilation

459
Q

why do our cells need oxygen?

A

cell works to break down glucose and other food molecules to get energy for making ATP; electrons are released from food to oxygen

460
Q

what are respiratory gases?

A

oxygen and carbon dioxide

461
Q

how does air move?

A

bulk flow and diffusion

462
Q

what is bulk flow?

A

flow of gases from one place to another, from an area of high pressure to low

463
Q

what is diffusion?

A

particles move toward a state of equilibrium at random

464
Q

what are the steps of alternation of bulk flow and diffusion?

A

breathing in oxygen (BF), oxygen does into lungs and blood (Diff.), circulation of blood (BF), oxygen out of capillary, into cell membrane, cytoplasm, then mitochondria (Diff.)

465
Q

what are gas exchange membranes?

A

location where respiratory gases move between animals environment and thin internal tissues

466
Q

what is breathing?

A

external respiration- moving oxygen in and carbon dioxide out of lungs

467
Q

True or False: All animals need specialized breathing organs.

A

False- some can breathe through their skin

468
Q

what is similar in the structure of gills and lungs?

A

tissue folding and branching

469
Q

how is gill tissue folded?

A

folded outward (evaginated)

470
Q

how is lung tissue branched?

A

folded inward (invaginated)

471
Q

what is tidal airflow?

A

air flow changes direction in same air passage

472
Q

what does unidirectional airflow?

A

airflow is in one direction in air passages

473
Q

what are elements of specialized breathing organs?

A

ventilation system, thin gas exchange membranes with large surface area, high rate of blood perfusion

474
Q

what is perfusion?

A

fast blood flow through capillaries or smaller blood vessels of a tissue

475
Q

why do we need a fast rate of blood perfusion provided by circulatory system?

A

to get oxygen distributed quickly to cells

476
Q

True or False: Diffusion happens faster in air than liquid.

A

True

477
Q

what are the 2 gas exchange methods?

A

countercurrent and cocurrent

478
Q

what is cocurrent gas exchange?

A

water and blood moves in the same direction

479
Q

what is countercurrent gas exchange?

A

water and blood move in different directions

480
Q

what kind of gas exchange is more efficient?

A

countercurrent gas exchange

481
Q

what are systemic tissues?

A

non breathing organ tissues

482
Q

what type of airflow do most vertebrates use?

A

tidal because there is nowhere else for the air to go

483
Q

what type of airflow do most birds and crocodiles use?

A

unidirectional- rigid airways that don’t change volume during inhalation/exhalation

484
Q

how are airways distributed in insects?

A

they are throughout their bodies- gas filled invaginated tubules

485
Q

what type of breathing system do insects have?

A

tracheal breathing system (gas-filled tubules)

486
Q

what are internal gills?

A

gills within body chambers providing a covering for protection and prevents drying

487
Q

what are external gills?

A

extend outside body, so no protection

488
Q

what types of animals have no specialized breathing organs?

A

flatworms and sponges

489
Q

what is the trachea?

A

windpipe that branches into 2 tubes, which further branches even more

490
Q

what are alveolar sacs?

A

located at the end of each final branch and allows for a high surface area for gas exchange

491
Q

what are conducting airways?

A

airways that are not directly involved in oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange

492
Q

what are respiratory airways?

A

where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between air and blood via diffusion

493
Q

what is tidal volume?

A

how much air can be moved in and out in a mammal’s lung

494
Q

what is the diaphragm?

A

muscle below lungs connected to ribcage

495
Q

what are intercostal muscles?

A

muscles between ribs

496
Q

what is exhalation?

A

elastic recoil of lung tissues (results in relaxed lung muscles)- breathe. out

497
Q

what is inhalation?

A

muscles of diaphragm and some intercostal contract- breathe in

498
Q

what part of breathing, inhalation or exhalation, is passive?

A

exhalation

499
Q

what type of feedback control is breathing under?

A

negative-feedback

500
Q

what would happen if we were somehow able to generate less carbon dioxide?

A

breathing would slow since it is negative-feedback

501
Q

in rodent brains, where does the breathing rhythm originate?

A

pre-Botzinger complexes

502
Q

in human brains, where does the breathing rhythm originate?

A

the medulla, but the entire brainstem is needed to breathe

503
Q

what is the circulatory system?

A

a pump made of the heart, blood, and blood vessels

504
Q

what does it mean for the circulatory system to be closed?

A

the blood is always contained

505
Q

what does it mean for the circulatory system to be open?

A

the blood leaves the vessels into the body

506
Q

what is the primary function of the circulatory system?

A

transportation of oxygen

507
Q

what is the primary function of the circulatory system in insects?

A

nutrients

508
Q

what types of animals have closed circulatory systems?

A

vertebrates, mollusks, and annelids

509
Q

what are arteries?

A

large blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart

510
Q

what are veins?

A

large blood vessels that carry blood toward the heart

511
Q

what is the lumen in an artery?

A

the space in the center that allows blood flow

512
Q

what is vascular endothelium?

A

simple epithelium that surrounds the lumen

513
Q

what allows arteries to stretch and withstand high pressure?

A

the elastic tissue and smooth muscle

514
Q

what is microcirculation?

A

beds of small blood vessels made of arterioles, capillaries, and venules

515
Q

what systems is microcirculation not found?

A

open systems

516
Q

what are capillary beds?

A

web-like structure or capillary network where oxygen and nutrient exhange occurs

517
Q

how does exchange occur in capillaries?

A

pores (gaps) between endothelial cells

518
Q

what is vasoconstriction?

A

contraction of muscles to make the lumen smaller

519
Q

what is vasodilation?

A

relaxation of muscles to make lumen larger

520
Q

what is the order of bloodflow?

A

heart –> arteriole –> capillary –> venule –> heart

521
Q

what types of animals have open circulatory systems?

A

arthropods and most mollusks

522
Q

what are the components of blood?

A

respiratory pigments (iron in human hemoglobin), plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets

523
Q

what are respiratory pigments?

A

proteins that help carry oxygen

524
Q

what is the human respiratory pigment?

A

iron in hemoglobin

525
Q

what is another respiratory pigment in other animals?

A

copper in hemocyanin

526
Q

what is blood plasma?

A

solution in blood with no blood cells- made of water and other materials

527
Q

what do platelets do?

A

blood clotting

528
Q

what type of protein is hemoglobin?

A

a tetramer

529
Q

what does it mean that hemoglobin is a tetramer?

A

each hemoglobin molecule can hold 4 oxygen molecules

530
Q

what is myocardium?

A

muscle tissue in the heart

531
Q

what is cardiac output?

A

volume of blood pumped per minute

532
Q

what is stroke volume?

A

volume of blood pumped per beat

533
Q

what is the breathing-organ circuit?

A

blood vessels that carry blood to and from breathing organ

534
Q

what is the cardiac cycle?

A

cycle where the heart contracts and relaxes

535
Q

what is blood pressure?

A

point when the pressure in the blood exceeds the pressure in the animal’s environment

536
Q

how is the heart’s elecrical activity monitored?

A

EKG, or electrocardiogram

537
Q

what is systole?

A

during each repetition of the cardiac cycle, period of contraction of the heart chambers

538
Q

what is diastole?

A

portion of the cardiac cycle when the heart muscle relaxes

539
Q

in an EKG, what does the P wave correspond to?

A

depolarization of atria

540
Q

in an EKG, what does the QRS complex correspond to?

A

depolarization of the ventricles

541
Q

in an EKG, what does the T wave correspond to?

A

repolarization of the ventricles

542
Q

what is the atrioventricular (AV) node?

A

area of the heart where the signal is conducted to after the atria begin to contract (passes on signal to ventricle)

543
Q

how is systolic measured via blood pressure?

A

no blood flow heard through artery at all

544
Q

how is diastolic measured via blood pressure?

A

max pressure that allows continuous flow

545
Q

what is the cardiovascular system composed of?

A

blood vessels and heart

546
Q

what is a simple type of circulatory system?

A

single circuit- heart, gills, body, heart

547
Q

what is a more complex type of circulatory system?

A

double circuit- heart, lungs, heart, body, heart

548
Q

what circulatory system has evolved to be most similar to humans?

A

birds

549
Q

what are critical characteristics of the circulatory system?

A

mean blood pressure, total cross-sectional area of blood vessels, and linear velocity of blood flow

550
Q

when does blood pressure drop in the cardiac cycle?

A

after leaving the heart

551
Q

where is the surface area highest in the cardiac system?

A

capillaries

552
Q

where is the velocity highest in the cardiac system?

A

arteries

553
Q

what do parallel arrays of blood vessels do?

A

creates large differences of temperature from place to place

554
Q

what are autoregulatory mechanisms?

A

each tissue controls its own blood flow

555
Q

what does regional autoregulation do?

A

sets up a problematic positive feedback loop, which can be counteracted by systemic regulatory mechanisms

556
Q

what is atherosclerosis?

A

buildup of lipids in vessels

557
Q

what does clotting do?

A

helps maintain homeostasis after an injury

558
Q

what are the ways that animals can eat?

A

predation, suspension feeding, and symbiosis

559
Q

what is a fluid feeder?

A

animal that eats liquids that contain organic molecules

560
Q

what is a suspension feeder?

A

animal that ingests small organisms in water (such as bacteria)

561
Q

what is a deposit feeder?

A

animal that picks up or scrapes food particles

562
Q

what is a bulk feeder?

A

animal that eats another animal whole or in large parts

563
Q

what are some main minerals we need in our diets?

A

calcium, phosphorus, potassium, sodium

564
Q

what do we need calcium for?

A

bones

565
Q

what do we need phosphorus for?

A

nucleic acids and ATP

566
Q

what do we need potassium for?

A

nervous system

567
Q

what do we need sodium for?

A

nervous system

568
Q

why do we need energy?

A

to do work and maintain self and organization

569
Q

what type of energy doesn’t do any work?

A

heat

570
Q

what is nutrition?

A

how animals ingest to meet their chemical substance and energy needs

571
Q

what is an essential nutrient?

A

type of molecule that an animal requires but can’t make by itself

572
Q

what are some types of essential nutrients?

A

amino acids, fatty acids, vitamins, essential minerals

573
Q

what vitamins are water soluble?

A

B1-12, Folic acid, and C

574
Q

what vitamins are fat soluble?

A

A, D, E, K

575
Q

what does a vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency cause?

A

pellagra, skin disorders, diarrhea, mental disorders

576
Q

what does a vitamin C deficiency cause?

A

scurvy, slow healing, poor bone health

577
Q

what happens when we don’t get enough food?

A

the body starts to metabolize it’s own molecules (self-consumption), which starts in the blood plasma; the fluid in the body shifts, leading to edema, starvation, and death

578
Q

what is a metabolic rate?

A

amount of energy the animal converts to heat each day

579
Q

what type of animals have a high need for oxygen?

A

homeotherms

580
Q

how can you measure the energy cost of exercise?

A

measure the rate of oxygen consumption to the rate of heat production

581
Q

what is the difference between the metabolic rate in humans and birds?

A

in humans, the faster you move increases the metabolic rate; in birds, slow and fast speeds have higher metabolic rates, while medium speeds have a low metabolic rate

582
Q

what is basal metabolic rate?

A

standardized measure of metabolic rate

583
Q

what is the general trend in animals’ BMR?

A

smaller animals have a higher basal metabolic rate

584
Q

what is a calorie?

A

the amount of heat required to raise the temp of 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius

585
Q

what type of molecules can’t be absorbed?

A

proteins

586
Q

what does the mouth do?

A

chews food and produces an enzyme to start digesting carbohydrates

587
Q

what does the liver do?

A

stores glucose as glycogen and releases glucose as needed, and synthesizes bile salts

588
Q

what do the sphincter muscles do?

A

keeps food from entering or leaving midgut or stomach, except when it relaxes

589
Q

what does the hindgut (colon/large intestine) do?

A

reabsorbs large quantities of water and minerals; forms and stores feces

590
Q

what does the rectum do?

A

stores and expels fully formed feces

591
Q

what does the esophagus do?

A

muscles undergo waves of contraction to move food to the stomach

592
Q

what does the stomach do?

A

serves as a place for food to accumulate during a meal, and secretes HCl and protein-digesting enzymes

593
Q

what does the pancreas do?

A

synthesizes digestive enzymes responsible for carbohydrate, lipid, and protein digestion; alpha and beta cells secrete insulin and glucagon

594
Q

what type of pancreatic cells secrete glucagon?

A

alpha cells

595
Q

what type of pancreatic cells secrete insulin?

A

beta cells

596
Q

what does the midgut do?

A

principal location of food digestion and absorption by means of pancreatic digestive enzymes and liver bile emulsifying lipids

597
Q

what is digestion?

A

breakdown of ingested food molecules into smaller chemical components that an animal is capable of absorbing and distributing to the tissues of the body

598
Q

what are the functions of the digestive system?

A

digestion, absorption of nutrients, storage, and elimination of wastes

599
Q

what makes up the foregut?

A

mouth, esophagus, and stomach

600
Q

what makes up the midgut?

A

small intestine

601
Q

at makes up the hindgut?

A

large intestine, rectum

602
Q

what type of animals have tube gut systems?

A

bilaterians

603
Q

what do canine teeth do?

A

ripping and tearing

604
Q

what do incisor teeth do?

A

cutting

605
Q

what do premolar teeth do?

A

shearing

606
Q

what do molar teeth do?

A

grinding

607
Q

what is the difference in intestine length between herbivores and carnivores?

A

herbivores have long intestines to store large amounts of plant material, and carnivores have short intestines

608
Q

what is division of labor?

A

cells are specialized for a particular function

609
Q

True or False: glucose and amino acids require a carrier protein to enter the cell through the membrane.

A

True- they are cotransported through the cell with Na+ ions

610
Q

how is food processed through the digestive system?

A

mouth- salivary enzymes, stomach- acid and mechanical churning, intestine- small molecules and water absorption

611
Q

where do proteins begin to be broken down?

A

the stomach

612
Q

where do carbohydrates begin to get broken down?

A

the mouth (salivary amylase), then lumen of small intestine

613
Q

where do lipids begin to get broken down?

A

the mouth (lingual lipase), then lumen of small intestine

614
Q

what does the rumen do?

A

allows for cellulose digestion because of symbiotic relationship with microbes

615
Q

what is released when blood glucose gets too high?

A

insulin

616
Q

what is released when blood glucose gets too low?

A

glucagon

617
Q

what can happen if there is too much glucose?

A

kidney, retina, and brain damage

618
Q

why is the lac operon not always on?

A

it is energy expensive and because lactose is relatively rare sugar in nature

619
Q

what is the lac operon?

A

genes encoding enzymes and other proteins needed for lactose metabolism are found clustered together with common promoter and regulatory sequences in an operon

620
Q

what conditions are required for the lac operon to be expressed in high amounts?

A

lactose must be present, and glucose must be low

621
Q

what causes the feedforward response of the lac operon?

A

lactose is present

622
Q

what causes the feedback response of the lac operon?

A

glucose is low (because it is the end product of lactose metabolism)

623
Q

what is the cause of type 2 diabetes?

A

insulin resistance

624
Q

how many genes are shown to cause higher incidence of type 2 diabetes?

A

38+

625
Q

what proves that type 2 diabetes is not genetic?

A

when looking at Pima groups, those in the US have a much higher rate of type 2 diabetes than those in Mexico

BIOL1412- diversity of form and function (4 decks)

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