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pyschology > exam😡 > Flashcards

exam😡 Flashcards

1
Q

investigation aim

A

is the purpose of the study

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2
Q

hypothesis template

A

it is hypothesised IV experimental group, lowered or increased the DV compared to IV control group

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3
Q

hypothesis example

A

it is hypothesised that children who consume sugar will have lowered level of attention compared with those who do not consume sugar

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4
Q

independant variable

A

the variable that is being manipulated by the researcher

(cause of the change)

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5
Q

dependant variable

A

result of the change

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6
Q

operationalising the iv and dv

A

involves defining how they will be manipulated or measured in the experiment

be specific

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7
Q

controlled experiment

A

is an investigation methodology that aims to test the effects of an IV snd DV, with all other variables controlled

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8
Q

extraneous variables

A

variables other then the independant variable that may have unwanted effect on the dependant variable and results

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9
Q

examples of extraneous variables

A

age, sex, personality

difference in temp, noise level light level

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10
Q

controlled variables

A

variables that are held constant to ensure that only influence on the dependant variable is the independant variable

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11
Q

example of controlled variable

A

in a study effecting caffeine on subjects time reaction to imaging, they should control the vision impairment, comfort levels and screen brightness bc these are potential extraneous variables

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12
Q

confounding variables

A

unwanted variables that affect the DV and the results in an investigation and it cannot be determined whether the IV or the confounding variable cause the change

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13
Q

population

A

a population of interest is the wider group of people that a study is investigating

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14
Q

sample

A

the smaller group of people selected from the population who will be participants in the investigation

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15
Q

stratified sampling

A

is where the population is first divided into subgroups, and participants are randomly selected from each subgroup, in the proportion that they appear in the population

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16
Q

random sampling

A

involves selecting participants from the population in such a way that each member has an equal chance of being selected to participate in the study

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17
Q

strengths of random sampling

A

large enough random sampling likely to be representative of the population, improving external validity

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18
Q

limitations of random sampling

A

small random sampling may not be representative of the population, reducing external validity

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19
Q

what are the eight investigation methodologies

A

case study
classification and identification
controlled experiment
correlational study
fieldwork
literature review
modelling and simulation
product, process or system development

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20
Q

what occurs in controlled experiments

A

participants are randomly allocated to an experimental group and the results of the groups are then compared

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21
Q

what is the aim of a controlled experiment

A

to find whether an IV has an affect on the DV

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22
Q

what two groups are allocated in a control experiment

A

experimental group and control group

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23
Q

what is an experimental group (controlled experiment)

A

is exposed to the independant variable and receives experimental treatment

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24
Q

what is an control group (controlled experiment)

A

forms a baseline to compare with the experimental group. Members of the control group participate in the control conditions and are not exposed to the IV and do no receives experimental treatment

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25
Q

what are strengths of a controlled experiment

A

-controlled experiments can identify a cause and effect relationship between an IV and a DV

-controlled experiments can be repeated to gather more data and test reliability of results

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26
Q

what are limitations of a controlled experiment

A

-controlled experiments require strictly controlled conditions, which are difficult to maintain, results may be influenced by extraneous variables

-may be unethical or impossible to conduct a controlled experiment on a particular variable

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27
Q

investigation method: controlled experiment allocation

A

-participants from the sample are divided into two groups

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28
Q

investigation method-controlled experiment

choosing a experimental design
(investigation designs)

A

between subjects design
within subjects design
mixed design

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29
Q

between subjects design

A

when participants are randomly allocated to either the control or experimental condition

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30
Q

1st strength of between subjects design

A

-most time efficient because both groups can be tested at the same time and no pre testing is required

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31
Q

2nd strength of between subjects design

A

it has a lower rate of participant withdrawal then a within subjects design because participants only complete one condition

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32
Q

1st limitation of between subjects design

A

more participants are needed in a between subjects design than a within subjects design

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33
Q

2nd limitation of between subjects design

A

their is less control over the extraneous variable of the participant variables between groups, which may influence results in an unwanted way

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34
Q

within subjects design

A

involves all participants in the sample completing both the experimental and control conditions

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35
Q

1st strength of within subjects design

A

their is no extraneous variable of participant variables between groups, improving validity

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36
Q

2nd strength of within subjects design

A

fewer participants are needed than in a between subjects design

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37
Q

1st limitation of within subjects design

A

their is less control over participant knowledge of the study. The extraneous variables of prior participation in the first condition may influence their behaviour while completing the second condition

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38
Q

2nd limitation of within subjects design

A

it is more time consuming than a between subjects design because both conditions cannot be tested at the same time

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39
Q

mixed design

A

involves a combination between subjects design and within subjects design

-may also involves two independant variables

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40
Q

1st strength of mixed design

A

differences in participant variables between groups are controlled within subjects design elements

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41
Q

2nd strength of mixed design

A

can test effect of multiple IV’s on a DV in one investigation

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42
Q

1st limitation os a mixed design

A

their is higher rate of participant withdrawal from the study then using between subject design

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43
Q

2nd limitation of mixed design

A

their is less control over participant knowledge of the study. Prior to participation in the first condition may influence their behaviour while completing the second condition

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44
Q

investigation method: case study

A

an investigation of particular activity, behaviour, event or problem that contains a real or hypothetical situation

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45
Q

what can a case study be

A

historical
involve real situation
based on problem solving where developing new design or methodology

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46
Q

what are the strengths of a case study

A

they can provide rich qualitative data

-they can act as a basis for further research

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47
Q

what are limitations of case studies

A

-they may not be repeatable to gain more data or to test reliability of results

-they are typically time consuming

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48
Q

investigation method: classification and identification

A

-involves arranging phenomena, objects or events into manageable sets, and recognising phenomena as belonging to a particular part of a new set

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49
Q

classification and identification strengths

A

-classifications can allow for a narrowed focus on research

-using classifications can allow for efficient processing of large amounts of info

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50
Q

what are limitations of classification and identification

A

-classifications may be based on subjective criteria

-large amounts of information are required to create classifications

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51
Q

investigation method: correlational method

A

involved planned observation and recording of events and behaviours that have not been manipulated or controlled in order to understand the relationships or associations exisiting between variables

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52
Q

what can correlational NOT do

A

cannot find how changing one variable causes a change in another variable and therefore a cause and effect relationship is not found

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53
Q

what are strengths of a correlational study

A

the direction and strength of a relationship between variables can be determined using a correlational study

-secondary data can be used

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54
Q

what is the 1st limitation of a correlational study

A

-does not equal or imply causation, so even if a strong relationship is determined, you cannot assume that one variable causes a change in the other

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55
Q

what is the second limitation to correlational studies

A

a large amount of data is recquired

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56
Q

investigation method: fieldwork

A

involves collecting information by observing and interacting with a selected environment

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57
Q

what are some examples of fieldwork

A

participant observation: researcher becoming involved in the group studied

qualitative interviews

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58
Q

what are strengths of fieldwork

A

-information on sensitive topics can be obtained using fieldwork

-natural settings are more likely to show behaviour that reflects real life

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59
Q

what are limitations of fieldwork

A

-qualitative data can be difficult to summarise

-their are ethical concerns with the lack of informed consent in some cases

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60
Q

investigation method:literature review

A

involves collating and analysing secondary data findings and/or view points

literature reviews combine theories and results that evaluate a body of literature to answer a research question or provide a starting point for primary collection

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61
Q

how can information be summarised (literature review)

A

-discussing how knowledge has evolved over time

-acknowledging what research has already been completed

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62
Q

what are strengths of literature reviews

A

they help introduce exisiting understanding and context for primary research

-they can identify expert researchers in the field

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63
Q

what are limitations of a literature review

A

-only secondary data is acquired

-may describe multiple studies but lack a deeper analysis of the individual studies

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64
Q

investigation method: modeling and stimulation

A

involves constructing and/or manipulation a physical or conceptual model of a system

once a model is made, a simulation uses the models to replicate and study behaviour of a real or theoretical system

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65
Q

what are two strengths of modelling and simulation

A

-modelling can allow for unobservable events to be visualised

-modelling and simulations can test a product before it’s created

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66
Q

what are limitations of modelling and simulation

A

-complex models and simulations may be expensive

-large amount of valid source of data may be needed in the creation of the models

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67
Q

investigation method: product, process and system development

A

involves the design of a product a process or system to meet human needs.

these may involves technological application in addition to scientific knowledge

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68
Q

what is an example of process, product and system development

A

AI-powered chatbots can provide virtual support for our mental wellbeing

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69
Q

ethical concepts in psychological issue

A

general ethical considerations used to analyse the ethical and moral aspects of conduct surrounding psychological issues and psychological investigations

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70
Q

what are five ethical considerations

A

integrity
justice
non-maleficence
beneficence
respect

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71
Q

ethical concept: integrity

A

involves the commitment to searching for knowledge and understanding and the honest reporting of all sources of information and results

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72
Q

detail in integrity

A

whether the results are favourable or unfavourable to the initial intentions of a study, a researcher has an obligation to report them truthfully in a way that permits scrutiny and contributes to public knowledge and understanding

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73
Q

ethical concept: justice

A

involves the moral obligation to ensure that competing claims are considered fairly that they is no unfair burden on a particular groups from an action and that their is fair distribution and access to the benefits of the action

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74
Q

justice detail

A

however treating all people equally is not always fair and therefore justice means ensuring peoples differences are also accounted for

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75
Q

ethical concept: BENEFICENCE and non maleficence

A

beneficence: is the commitment to maximising benefits and minimising the risks and harm

something of positive value such as contributing to psychological knowledge

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76
Q

ethical concept: beneficence and NON MALEFICENCE

A

means to avoid causing harm.

-determining a position or conducting scientific research in psychology may lead to a degree in harm resulting from any positions to be scientifically justifiable

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77
Q

how does beneficence and non malificence relate

A

the two ethical concepts can be considered together, in an understanding that one must act in a manner that promotes benefit to other, while also minimising harm to others

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77
Q

ethical concepts: respect

A

involves considering the value of living things: giving due regard and considering the capacity of living things to make their own decisions

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78
Q

ethical guidelines

A

must follow guidelines set out by the NHMRC to ensure protection and welfare of all participants in research

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79
Q

ethical guidelines detail

A

once in investigation, the researcher must follow several additional ethical guidelines that are specifically relevant to research

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80
Q

ethical guidelines: confidentiality

A

involves ensuring that the participants remain anonymous and their personal information is kept private, protected and secure throughout the study

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81
Q

ethical guideline:voluntary participation

A

ensures that each participant freely agrees to participate in a study, with no pressure or coercion

it is normal for participants to accept money or compensation

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82
Q

ethical guidelines: informed consent

A

are conducted before a study begins, where participants agree to participate in the research after they have received all the details of the investigation, including nature and purpose, methods of data and potential risks

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83
Q

ethical guidelines: debriefing

A

is condcted at the end of the study and is when particpants are informed of the true aim, results and conclusions of the study

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84
Q

what does debriefing include

A

answering any questions
clarifying misunderstandings or deception
providing support to ensure no lasting harm occurs to partcipants

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85
Q

ethical guidelines: use of deception in research

A

involves withholding the true of nature of the study from participants if their knowledge of the true purpose may affect their behaviour and the subsequent validity

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86
Q

primary data

A

is the collected through the first hand experience for an internal purpose: for example a researcher using a questionnaire to conduct their own study

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87
Q

secondary data

A

is obtained through second hand research conducted or data collected by another person for another purpose

-may be used when not possible to use primary bc of costs and time

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88
Q

what are the two types of data

A

qualitative and quantitive

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89
Q

qualitive data

A

describes characteristics and qualities

can be in a form of words, photos, videos and audios

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90
Q

quantitive data

A

involves measurable values and quantities and can be compared on a numerical scale.

can be in a form of measurements such as length weight or time

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91
Q

how can you process quantitive data

A

percentage
measuring of central tendency
measures of variability

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92
Q

percentage change

A

a calculation of the degree of change in a values over time

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93
Q

measures of central tendency

A

category of statistics that describe the central value of a set of data

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94
Q

central of tendency: mean

A

the average value of a set of data. It represents a typical, central value and gives an overall idea of a data set

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95
Q

central of tendency: median

A

is the middle value in an ordered set of data. Is the values that splits the set of data in half

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96
Q

central of tendency: mode

A

is the value that occurs most frequently within a set of data

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97
Q

measures of variability

A

category of statistics that describe the distribution of data

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98
Q

the standard deviation

A

shows the spread of the data around the mean

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99
Q

organising and presenting data

A

charts and graphs
tables

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100
Q

analysing the quality of the data

A

true value
accuracy
precision
repeatability
reproducibility
validity

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101
Q

true value

A

is the value or range of values that would be found if the quantity could be measured perfectly

-obtaining a true value would require no error to occur when using instruments to take measurements

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102
Q

accuracy

A

relates to how close a measurement is to the true value of the quantity being measured

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103
Q

precision

A

refers to how close a set of measurement values are to each other

describes how a exact measurement is and how much a value is consistent within a set of values

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104
Q

repeatability

A

how close a successive measurement of the same quantity are when carried out under the same conditions

helps verify researcher findings

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105
Q

reproducibility

A

is how close a measurement of the same quantity are when carried out under different conditions

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106
Q

validity

A

refers to whether a measurement measures what is it and supposed to be measuring

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107
Q

what are the two types of validity

A

internal and external

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108
Q

internal validity

A

refers to a study investigation what it sets out or clean to investigate

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109
Q

external validity

A

refers to whether the results of the research can be applied to similar individuals in a different setting

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110
Q

how many errors are there

A

personal errors
measurement errors
systematic erros
random errors
uncertainty
outliers

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111
Q

personal errors

A

include mistakes, miscalculations and observer errors made when conduction research

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112
Q

measurement errors

A

is the difference between the measured value and the true value of what is being measured

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113
Q

systematic errors

A

affect the accuracy of a measurement by causing readings to differ from the true value by a consistent amount

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114
Q

random errors

A

affect the precision of a measurement by creating unpredictable variations in the measurement process

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115
Q

opinion

A

a judgement that is not necessarily based on proof

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116
Q

antecdote

A

a short personal account for an event

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117
Q

analysing and evaluating scientific ideas

A

distinguish between evidence, opinions and anecdote

evaluate the process used

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118
Q

what do add in a conclusion

A

limitations of conclusion and implications

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119
Q

limitations of conclusions

A

the faults or flaws in the degins of an investigation that may limit the conclusions of the investigations

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120
Q

implications

A

the impact a study might have on the population relevant theory and future research

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121
Q

scientific report

A

a report outlining why and how some research was conducted with an analysis of the findings

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122
Q

abstract

A

a section of scientific report that is a concise summary of the whole investigation

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123
Q

introduction section

A

a section of a scientific report or poster that provides an overview of what the investigation is trying to achieve and why it is important

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124
Q

mothodology section

A

section of the scientific report that describes participants, material and procedures used in the study

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125
Q

results section

A

a section that outlines the evidence and findings and concludes the research

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126
Q

discussion section

A

section of poster or report that analysis the findings and concludes the research

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127
Q

central nervous system

A

the brain and spinal cord; processes and coordinates responses to sensory stimuli

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128
Q

CNS detail

A

integrates and coordinated all incoming sensory information and initiates outgoing motor messages to be sent to the body

these can be un/conscious
voluntary and unvolvuntary

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129
Q

what are the three main functions of our nervous system

A

receive information
process information
coordination a response to information

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130
Q

brain

A

processes info received through neural pathways from the body, receives and analysis sensory information, controls all bodily action and functions

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131
Q

how does the brain communicate with the body

A

via the spinal cord and its nerves as well as cranial nerves that connect the brain directly to various organs and muscles of the body

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132
Q

nervous sytem processes

A

brain is kept informed of the ever changing external and internal environments of the body through sensory information received by receptor cells around the body

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133
Q

the spinal cord

A

def- think bundle of nerve tissue that runs from the brainstem to the lower middle section of the spine

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134
Q

spinal cord detail

A

allows the brain to communicate with the rest of the body conveying messages from the brain to the PNS and vice versa

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135
Q

what is the 1st major function of the spinal cord

A

receive sensory information from the body via the PNS and send to the brain for processing

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136
Q

what is the 2nd major function of the spinal cord

A

receive motor information from the brain and send it to the body via the PNS to control muscle, glands and organs

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137
Q

what occurs to the spinal cord if it gets damaged

A

if severed, the somatic nervous system below the point of severance becomes paralysed because of the bridge between the CNS and the PNS can not be crossed

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138
Q

damage to the spinal cord detail

A

such damage has permeant consequences because the nerves in the spinal cord can not regnerate

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139
Q

the peripheral nervous system

A

all the nerves outside of the central nervous system that carry messages between the central nervous system ad muscles, organs and glands throughout the body

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140
Q

the 1st function of the PNS

A

carries info to the CNS from the bodies muscle, organs and glands (about the internal environment) and from the sensory organs (external environment)

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141
Q

the 2nd function of the PNS

A

carries info from the CNS to the bodies muscle, organs and glands

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142
Q

what are the two nervous systems relating to the PNS

A

autonomic and somatic

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143
Q

PNS-the somatic nervous sytem

A

subdivision of the PNS that carries sensory info to the central nervous system and motor information to the body

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144
Q

somatic nervous system sensory function

A

transmission of information to the brain (CNS) from sensory receptors throughout the body

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145
Q

somatic nervous system motor function

A

voluntary movement of muscles (skeletal)

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146
Q

PNS- the autonomic system

A

sub division of the PNS that connects the CNS to the bodies internal organs and glands, providing feedback to the brain about their activities

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147
Q

what are the three sub divisions of the autonomic system

A

parasympathetic nervous system
sympathetic nervous system
enteric nervous system

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148
Q

sympathetic nervous system

A

a subdivision of the autonomic nervous system that increases our arousal, readying the body for a quick response and to deal with vigorous activity

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149
Q

sympathetic nervous system detail

A

activated by stressor or fear stimulus

-enhances survival by producing an immediate response-flight or fight

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150
Q

parasympathetic nervous system

A

a subdivision of the autonomic nervous system that controls the bodies internal environments in an autonomous or self regulated manner

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151
Q

what is the one main function of the parasympathetic nervous system

A

maintaining a balanced internal state, otherwise known as homeostasis, including regulation of blood sugar or energy levels

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152
Q

what is the second main function of the Parasympathetic nervous system

A

counterbalancing the energising function of the sympathetic nervous system by lowering arousal and restoring the body to a calm state after a threat has passes

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153
Q

enteric nervous system

A

is embedded within the walls of the gastrointestinal tract and is dedicated to its functioning

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154
Q

enteric system in detail

A

the ENS has extensive, two way connections with the CNS and works together with the CNS to control the digestive system in the context of local and whole body physiological demands

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155
Q

unconscious responses

A

any response of our nervous system that does not require awareness

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156
Q

unconscious response in detail

A

it is involuntary, unintentional and automatic ordinarily control its occurence

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157
Q

what are three examples of unconscious responses

A

blinking
heart rate
digesting our food

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158
Q

conscious responses

A

any response of the nervous system that requires awareness

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159
Q

conscious response in detail

A

the reaction, even if momentary is also likely to be goal directed and you will be able to exercise some degree of control over it

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160
Q

a spinal reflex

A

is an unconscious involuntary and automatically occurring response to certain stimuli without any involvement of the brain

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161
Q

spinal reflex 1st step

A
  1. sensory stimulus detected by sensory receptors
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162
Q

spinal reflex 2nd step

A

sensory neuron’s carry information via sensory afferent pathway to spinal cord

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163
Q

spinal reflex 3rd step

A

interneurons in spinal cord initiate an involuntary motor movement

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164
Q

spinal reflex 4th step

A

this is relayed to motor neurons and carried via a motor efferent pathway to muscles

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165
Q

spinal reflex 5th step

A

muscles perform response without input from the brain

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166
Q

neurotransmitter

A

is a chemical substance produced by a neuron that carries a message to other neurons or cells in the muscle, organs and other tissue

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167
Q

neurotransmitter detail

A

when neurons communicate with one another, they do so by sending neurotransmitters across the space between the terminal buttons of one neuron, and the dendrites on the other

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168
Q

neural transmission

A

an individual nerve cell that is specialised to receive, process and/or transmit information within the nervous system

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169
Q

synapse

A

the point of communication between two neurons and a target cell, such as a muscle or a gland called a synapse

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170
Q

synaptic vesicle

A

a membrane bound to sphere filled with neurotransmitter molecules

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171
Q

synaptic gap

A

the space between the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron and the membrane of the post synaptic neuron

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172
Q

receptor site

A

a membrane protein on the dendrites of neurons that receive and detect specific neurotransmitters

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173
Q

what are the 2 effect of neurotransmitters

A

excitatory

inhibitory

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174
Q

excitatory effect

A

the increased likelihood that post synaptic neuron will fire an action potential or neural impulse

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175
Q

what is the main excitatory neurotransmitter

A

glutamate

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176
Q

glutamate

A

the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the nervous sytsem, which is involved with learning and memory

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177
Q

what does glutamate play an important role in

A

in learning and the formation of memories in the brain, by stimulating essential structural and functional changes to connections in neurons

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178
Q

what does glutamate do

A

enhances information transmission by making postsynaptic neurons more likely to fire

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179
Q

inhibitory effect

A

the decreased likelihood that the post synaptic neuron will fire an action potential or neural impulse

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180
Q

what is the main inhibitory neurontransmitter

A

Gamma- aminobutyric acid (GABA)

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181
Q

GABA

A

the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the nervous system associated with anxiety, specific phobias and parkinsons disease

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182
Q

what occurs when their is in insufficent amount of GABA

A

activation of post synaptic neurons may get out of control because the excitatory effects of glutamate take over, leading to mental disorders such as anxiety

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183
Q

why does neurotransmitters need to be balanced

A

too much or too little can be harmful to the functioning of neurons

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184
Q

what is a neuromodulater

A

a subclass of neurotransmitters that alter the strength of neural transmission, by increasing or decreasing the responsiveness of neurons to neurotransmitter signals

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185
Q

agonists

A

mimic the effect of a neurotransmitter

e.g a GABA agonist may make it more likely that GAA inhibits neurotransmission

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186
Q

antagonist

A

slow down the effects of neurotransmitter

e.g a GABA antagonist will reduce its inhibitory effect

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187
Q

what is neuromodulaters role

A

to alter the neural transmission of neurons by controlling the synthesis and release of the neurotransmitters

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188
Q

what do neuromodulaters not do

A

they do not release their chemical messengers into a signal synapses. Instead they are released into far broader areas affecting a large number of neurons at once

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189
Q

where is the site of release for neurotransmitters

A

into the synapse

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190
Q

where is the site of release for neuromodulaters

A

outside the synapse into the neural tissue in the brain regions

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191
Q

dopamine

A

a multifunctional neurotransmitter with both excitatory and inhibitory effect, that is involved in many central nervous system such as movement, pleasure, attention, mood, cognition and motivation

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192
Q

why is dopamine considered a neuromodulaters

A

because it reinforces the neural activity in regions of the brain associated with these functions, for example the reward pathway

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193
Q

reward pathway

A

a group structure in the brain that are activated by rewarding or reinforcing stimuli

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194
Q

how is dopamine and the reward pathway linked

A

when we are exposed to rewarding stimuli, the brain increases the release of dopamine, which modulates the brain activity of the structure along with it

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195
Q

what does the reward pathway control

A

our responses to natural rewards such as food, sex and social interactions

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196
Q

what is the influence of dopamine in thirst and drinking

A

the gulping motion made by throat as liquid is swallowed sends a message to the brain that water has been consumed

-dopamine release is couple with gulping motion which suggests drinking a learnt behaviour

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197
Q

the influence of dopamine in hunger and eating part 1

A

the consumption of food release dopamine and gives us feelings of pleasure, therefore increasing our chance of eating food next time we experience hunger

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198
Q

the influence of dopamine in hunger and eating part 2

A

the brain receives signals from several hormones that indicate when food is needed or not

these signals modify dopamine output from the brains reward pathway, controlling motivation for food

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199
Q

the influence of dopamine in addiction

A

whenever seeing a reward worth chasing, our brain produces more dopamine, motivating us to complete the task

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200
Q

influence of dopamine in addiction part 2

A

the dopamine theory suggest that most addictions are caused by the brains inability to produce dopamine naturally without behaviour or the substance that someone is addicted to

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201
Q

seratonin

A

an inhibitory neurotransmitter that also acts as a neuromodulaters influencing a variety of the brain activities

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202
Q

why is serotonin a modulated

A

it modulates virtually all human behavioural processes, including mood, perception, reward and anger

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203
Q

the serotonin pathway

A

serotonins neuromodulatory system, which originated in the brainstem and extends to almost all areas of the cerebellum including the cerebral cortex

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204
Q

what happens if their is damage to the serotonin pathway

A

impairments to the serotonin pathway system have been linked to anxiety disorders and depression, as well as Parkinson disease

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205
Q

what is the role of serotonin in mood

A

when serotonin levels are high, mood improves, leads to more calm state

-however their is a lot of other chemical processes happening in the body, so it’s difficult to establish a cause and effect relationship

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206
Q

the role of serotonin in sleep

A

research generally shows that is the brain lacks serotonin, a person will have reduced pressure to sleep when required, thus increasing restlessness and wakefulness when they should be sleeping

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207
Q

role of serotonin in aggression and impulsivity

A

low levels of serotonin in the can brain can affect communication between specific structures within the limbic system responsible for regulating emotions

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208
Q

synaptic plasticity

A

specific changes that occur within the synapses between neurons

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209
Q

what are the two important processes of neural plasticity

A

long term potentiation
long term depression

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210
Q

what happens when we learn something new relating to synaptic plasticity

A

when we learn smth new and store a memory of it relatively permanent and stable connection between neurons is formed

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211
Q

what occurs when neurotransmitters are repeatedly activated together

A

changes the structure of the synapses, strengthening the connection between these two neuron synapses

-when connection is strengthened, more likely to fire together and signals become more efficient

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212
Q

long term potentiation

A

the relatively permanent strengthening or the synaptic connections as a result of repeated activation of neural pathway

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213
Q

what is the effect of LTP

A

to improve ability of two neurons to communicate with eachother

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214
Q

long term depression

A

the relatively permanent weakening of synaptic connection as a result of repeated low level activation

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215
Q

what does LTD result from

A

lack of stimulation of pre and post synaptic neurons or prolonged low level stimulation

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216
Q

what are the three specific modifications resulting from LTP and LTD

A

sprouting
rerouting
pruning

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217
Q

sprouting

A

the growth of axon or dendrite fibres at the synapses

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218
Q

sprouting explanation

A

the creation of new extensions on a neuron to allow it to make new connection with other neurons, This occurs through the growth of axon or dendrite fibres

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219
Q

rerouting

A

the formation of new connections between neurons to establish alternative neural pathways

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220
Q

rerouting explanation

A

new connections are being made between neurons to create alternate neural pathways. These alternate route may be entirely new neural pathways or connections to other pathways in the brain

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221
Q

pruning

A

the removal of excess neurons and synaptic connections to increase the efficiency of neuronal transmissions

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222
Q

pruning explanation

A

experience determine which synapses will be retained and strengthened and which will be pruned

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223
Q

dendritic spine

A

a dendrite fibre that grows by sprouting on the post synaptic neuron

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224
Q

filigree appendage

A

a fibre that grows by sprouting from the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron

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225
Q

synaptogensis

A

the formation of new synapses that result from the process of sprouting

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226
Q

stressor

A

any event that causes stress or is perceived as a threat and a challenge to our ability to cope

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227
Q

stress

A

a state of mental, emotional and physiological tension, resulting from a stressor

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228
Q

what are the two processes of stress

A

psychological and biological

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229
Q

psychological process of stress

A

includes feelings such as fear, excitement and thoughts such as i can’t cope

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230
Q

biological processes of stress

A

including physical responses such as increased hr and increased muscle tension

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231
Q

what are the two sources of stress

A

internal and external

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232
Q

what are two example internal sources of stress

A

psychological and biological

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233
Q

what are two examples of external sources of stress

A

environmental and sociocultural

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234
Q

what are example of environment sources of stress

A

loud noises
extreme temperatures

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235
Q

what are examples of sociocultural sources of stress

A

daily habits
life events
loss of significant relationships

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236
Q

internal stressor

A

a cause of stress that originates within an individual can be both psychological and biological and psychological

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237
Q

external stressors

A

a cause of stress that originates from outside an individual, such as an event or environmental extreme

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238
Q

what can stress be categorised as

A

acute stress
chronic stress

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239
Q

acute stress

A

stress that usually occurs because of a sudden threat and only lasts a short time

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240
Q

how can acute stress be beneficial

A

it can help us deal more effectively with a challenge

-it can also be intense and involve life threatening situations such as being a victim to assault

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241
Q

chronic stress

A

involves a prolonged and constant feeling of stress

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242
Q

what are features of chronic stress

A

less intense and severe
generally more detrimental to out health
this can suppress our immune system and increase risk of heart attack

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243
Q

flight or fight or freeze response (acute stress)

A

an automatic biological response to a perceived stressor that increases out chance of survival in out environment

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244
Q

what is the flight fight freeze response considered

A

considered adaptative, in that it minimises possible harm and enables us to deal with the stressor most effectively

245
Q

a flight response

A

which involves evading or escaping the stressor

246
Q

a fight response

A

which involves dealing with the stressor directly

247
Q

a freeze response

A

which involves immobilisation of the body such as minimises movement or vocal sounds

248
Q

what occurs in the flight fight response

A

the subdivision of the autonomic nervous system works to regulate arousal and internal bodily functions

arousal is increased bc the threat was identified by the nervous system

249
Q

1st psychological change of fight and flight response

A

increased hr, breathing rate and blood pressure

250
Q

adaptive benefit of psychological change 1 (fight or flight)

A

to quickly transport oxygenated blood to the muscle in our extremities to prepare them for action

251
Q

2nd psychological change of fight and flight response (fight or flight)

A

dilated pupils

252
Q

adaptive benefit of psychological change 2 (fight or flight)

A

to increase the amount of light entering the eyes to potentially see more clearly

253
Q

3rd psychological change of fight and flight response

A

slowed digestion rate and decreased salivation

254
Q

adaptive benefit of psychological change 3 (fight or flight)

A

to divert energy to where it is needed most, such as the muscles in our extremities

255
Q

the freeze response

A

this is adaptative

-this can be referred as tonic immobility and includes motor and vocal inhibitions

-nervous system is preparing to switch into flight or fight

not considered passive state but rather the parasympathetic brake on certain body systems

256
Q

cortisol

A

a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that regulates a wide range of bodily processes, including metabolism and is releases in response due to stress

257
Q

chronic stress-cortisol

A

when stressor persists and the body continues to perceive it as a threat, cortisol is released from the adrenal cortex, the outer layer of the adrenal glands

258
Q

what does cortisol do

A

cortisol regulate a wide range of processes throughout the body, including metabolism and the immune response

259
Q

where is cortisol released

A

it is released directly into the bloodstream and transported throughout the body

260
Q

what are three benefit of cortisol

A

heightened alertness

increased ability to repair tissue

-increased energy

261
Q

what happens if cortisol is in our bloodstream for a prolonged period of time

A

cortisol suppresses our immune system, making us more susceptible to cold and contagious illnesses

this increases the risk of cancer and autoimmune diseases

262
Q

the gut brain axis

A

the connection between the central nervous system and the enteric nervous system, that enables bidirectional communication between the brain and the gastrointestinal tract

263
Q

what does the the ENS do regarding the gut brain axis

A

coordinates rhythms muscle contractions that move material along the digestive tract; also regulates gastric acid secretion

264
Q

where does the bidirectional communication between the CNS and the ENS

A

via the vagus nerve and gut microbiota

265
Q

vagus nerve

A

a nerve threat connects the brain ( CNS) to organs with the autonomic nervous system via nerve fibres that directly link organs such as the lungs, heart, oesophagus and intestinal tract

265
Q

gut

A

the gastrointestinal tract or long tube that starts at the mouth and ends at the anus

265
Q

what is the vagus nerve function

A

controls many bodily functions such as mood, immune response, digestion and hr

-establishes one of the connections between the brain and the gastrointestinal tract

266
Q

microbe

A

a microscopic living thing found in water soil and the air

266
Q

guy microbiota

A

the microbe population found in the guy (digestive system)

267
Q

what does the guy microbiota do

A

these microbes digest the components of our food to provide their own nutrition while also simultaneously providing us with energy and nutrients

268
Q

what is guy microbiota involved in

A

also involves in the production of some neurotransmitters in the production of the neurotransmitters in the brain.

certain microbiota in the gut are involved in regulating the production, storage and release of neurotransmitters

269
Q

what does stress cause in the gut microbioata

A

cause change in the gut microbiota and deficiencies in certain bacteria, which have been linked to anxiety and depression

270
Q

what disorder can stress in the gut microbiota cause

A

has been linked with anxiety disorders

271
Q

what can stress exposure do in early life

A

this can change an organism microbiota composition

272
Q

how can you reduce anxiety like behaviour with gut microbiota

A

treatment with healthy microbiota can reduce anxiety like behaviour and reduce stress responsiveness in humans and mice

273
Q

what is the biological model of stress

A

general adaptation syndrome (GAS)

274
Q

general adaptation syndrome (GAS)

A

a biological model of stress that proposes we have non specific biological response to stress that occurs in three stages

275
Q

what is the first stage of GAS

A

alarm reaction

276
Q

shock

A

the first phase of alarm reaction stage of the GAS in which the bodies ability to deal with the stressor falls below normal

276
Q

alarm reaction

A

the first general adaptation syndrome, in which we become aware of the stressor; it consists of two phases- shock and counter shock

277
Q

what is associated with the shock phase

A

also associated with a decrease in muscle tone, body temp and blood sugar levels

278
Q

what is the second phase of alarm reaction

A

countershock

279
Q

counter shock

A

the second phase of the alarm reaction of the GAS model which the bodies ability to deal the stressor rises above normal

280
Q

what is counter shock helped with

A

helped with the release of stress hormones adrenaline and cortisol, as well as the activation of the flight or fight or freeze response

sympathetic nervous system is activated

281
Q

what are the physiological changes associated the counter shock phase

A

increases muscle tension, heart rate and breathing rate

282
Q

how long does the alarm reaction stage last

A

does not usually last very long; sometimes just a few seconds, sometimes longer

283
Q

what is the second phase of GAS model

A

resistance

284
Q

is cortisol at its lowest or highest in the resistance stage

A

cortisol is at its highest, which helps repair any damage to the body and maximises the bodies resources to cope and adapt to the stressor over time

285
Q

stage 2: resistance

A

in which the stressors persists and the bodies resources are maximised to cope and adapt over time

286
Q

what occurs during the resistance stage

A

problems that occur and eventually the body begins to show physiological signs of wear and tear

-all unnecessary physiological process are shut down

287
Q

the exhaustion

A

in which continued depletion of energy stores and high levels of hormones such as cortisol decrease resistance to the stressor and impair of the immune system

288
Q

what happens in exhaustion stage

A

due to prolonged stress, the bodies resources have been depleted and it become vulnerable to diseases and mental disorders

289
Q

what are three characterisitcs of the exhaustion stage

A

extreme fatigue
high levels of anxiety
impaired sexual performance

290
Q

what is the first strength of the GAS model

A

the model suggests a predictable pattern of response that can easily be tested in a laboratory

291
Q

what is the second strength of the GAS model

A

it identifies various biological processes that occur as a part of the stress response , such as hormone secretion and immune system depletion

292
Q

what is the first limitation to the GAS model

A

humans and rates are physiologically different. Cannot be simply generalised to humans

293
Q

what is the second limitation to the GAS model

A

it does not acknowledge the physiological or cognitive processing involved in the human stress response which can affect how much an individual experiences the stress response

294
Q

Lazarous and folkmans transactional model of stress

A

a model that suggests a stress response is only elicited if an event is perceived to exceed our ability to cope or is based on our appraisal of the situation

295
Q

appraisal

A

the process of categorising an event on the basis of perceived significance and how it may affect their wellbeing

296
Q

what are the two forms of appraisal in the transactional model

A

primary and secondary appraisal

297
Q

primary appraisal

A

when an individual determines whether a situation or event is significant to them and stressful or not

298
Q

what happens if event is not deemed stressful after primary appraisal

A

categorised as either benign/positive, irrelevant

299
Q

irrelevant

A

describes a situations or event that has no implications for an individuals wellbeing because nothing will be gained or lost or they are not invest in the situation

300
Q

benign/positive

A

describes a situation or event that is perceived as having a positive outcome for an individual

301
Q

what happens if the event is deemed into irrelvant or benign/positive

A

they will not need to perforn any further appraisal

-if event is deemed stressful it will be categorised as a threat or harm/loss or challenge

302
Q

threat

A

the anticipated harm/loss in the future because of an event

303
Q

harm/loss

A

the damage to that individual that has already occurred as a result of a stressor

304
Q

challenge

A

the perceived potential for personal gain or growth from any event

305
Q

what if the event is still seemed stressfull

A

something must be done to manage the situation and so secondary appraisal occurs

306
Q

secondary appraisal

A

when an individual considers the available resources and their own coping strategies to decide the best way of dealing with a stressor

307
Q

what is the first strength of the transactional model

A

the model acknowledges the physiological determinants or causes of stress response

308
Q

what is the second strength of the transactional model

A

it emphasis the personal nature and individuality of the stress response, accounting for why individual responses to an event vary widely

309
Q

what is the first limitation of the transactional model

A

it is difficult to test through experimental research because of the subjective nature of an individual responses to stress

310
Q

what is the second limitation of the transactional model

A

individuals may not always be consciously aware of all factors causing them stress or the thought process that take place internally when experiencing stress

311
Q

coping

A

all the things we do to manage and reduce the stress we experience

312
Q

coping strategy

A

a method that we use to manage and reduce the stress we experience

313
Q

what is a coping strategy influenced by

A

copiing flexability
context specific effectiveness

314
Q

coping flexibility

A

the ability to modify our coping strategies to adapt and meet the demands of different stressful situations

315
Q

what does the coping flexibility dictate

A

when we physiologically and physically response to stressors, a richer coping flexibility tends to produce more adaptative outcomes

316
Q

what does coping flexibility include

A

recognise whether the use of coping strategy is appropriate for a specific situation

-select a coping strategy that suits the circumstances of the situation

317
Q

what do people with high coping flexibility have

A

quickly recognise and adjust their coping strategies i they are ineffective

match strategies to the demands of the situation

318
Q

what do individuals of low coping flexibility have

A

tend to rely on the sam limited coping strategies across different situations and persist with them

319
Q

context specific effectiveness

A

when a coping strategy matched or is appropriate to the stressful situation

320
Q

what does context specific effectiveness

A

considers whether a coping strategy is effective from aspects of the situation such as the physical environment, the stressor itself and the individual involved

321
Q

what is the approach strategy

A

an effort to confront a stressor and deal directly with it and its effects

322
Q

what are two examples of an approach strategy

A

seeking advice from an expert’

talking through your problems with a friend or family member

323
Q

1st benefits of an approach strategy

A

generally considered to be more adaptative and effective then avoidance strategies

324
Q

2nd benefit of an approach strategy

A

people who rely more on approach strategies to cope with a stressor ten to experience fewer psychological symptoms and can function more effectively

325
Q

what is the 1st limitation of a approach strategy

A

initially or in the short term, approach strategies may increase stress levels while the individual is directly engaged with the stressor and its causes

326
Q

what is the 2nd limitation of an approach strategy

A

an approach strategy may require a lot of the individuals energy and focus to deal with the streesors, which means they might neglect other aspects of their lives

327
Q

avoidance strategies

A

an effort to avoid a stressor and not deal directly with it and its effects

328
Q

what are two examples of an avoidance strategy

A

procrastination napping or oversleeping

substance use or abuse

329
Q

what is the first benefit of an avoidance strategy

A

selectively avoiding to deal with unchangeable aspects of a stressor by switching off may be considered an adaptative strategy

330
Q

what is the second benefit of a avoidance strategy

A

it allows you to conserve your energy to focus on other stressors that can be changed

331
Q

what is the first limitation of an avoidance strategy

A

avoidance strategies tend to be maladaptive

332
Q

what is the second limitation of an avoidance strategy

A

long term avoidance strategies can also contribute to other problems

333
Q

is exercise a avoidance or approach strategy

A

exercise is usually an avoidance strategy because it does not directly deal with the stressor a person is facing.

however this is not the case if the stressor is exercise

334
Q

what is one benefit of exercise

A

it increases demands on the body for energy and in the process uses up stress hormones

335
Q

what is a second benefit of exercise

A

it can also help work out tension that has built up in the muscles

336
Q

learning

A

the process of acquiring knowledge or skills resulting from experience; there are many approaches

337
Q

behaviourist approach

A

an approach to learning that states that behaviours are learned through interactions with the environment

338
Q

conditioning

A

the learning process by which the behaviour of an organism becomes dependant on an event occurring in its environment

339
Q

stimulus

A

an environmental event that triggers a response in an organism

340
Q

response

A

a behavioural reaction to a stimulus

341
Q

before conditioning

A

the first stage of classical conditioning at this stage no learning has occured

342
Q

unconditioned stimulus

A

a stimulus that consistently produces a naturally occurring automatic response

343
Q

unconditioned response

A

a response that occurs automatically involuntarily when the unconditioned stimulus is presented

344
Q

neutral stimulus

A

a stimulus prior to conditioning that doesn’t produce a response

345
Q

conditioned stimulus

A

a stimulus that was previously nei=utral but now as as a result of repeated association with the unconditioned stimulus, produces a conditioned response

346
Q

conditioned response

A

a learned behaviour that is similar to the unconditioned response and is now triggered by the conditioned stimulus as a result of conditioning

347
Q

classical conditioning answer template

A

before conditioning, the neutral stimulus (NS) of the…. elicit no response in…. The unconditioned stimulus (UCS) of the…. elicited the unconditioned response (UCR) of… in…. which elicited the UCR of…. in… After conditioning, the NS of… turned into the conditioned stimulus… The CS…. now elicits the conditioned response of… in…

348
Q

operant conditioning

A

a learning process in which the likelihood of a voluntary behaviour occurring is determined by it’s consequences

349
Q

what does the three phase model of operant conditioning include

A

antedecent
behaviour
consequence

350
Q

antedecent

A

an environmental stimulus that triggers an action

351
Q

behaviour

A

any observable action by an organism

352
Q

consequence

A

something that makes a behaviour more or less likely to occur again

353
Q

consequences in operant conditioning

A

reinforcement
positive reinforcement
negative reinforcement
punishment
positive punishment
negative punishment

354
Q

reinforcement

A

stimulus from the environment that increases the likelihood
of a response occurring in the
future

355
Q

positive reinforcement

A

when a behaviour is followed by adding a desirable stimulus, increasing the likelihood of the behaviour occurring again

356
Q

negative reinforcement

A

when a behaviour is followed by the removal of an undesriable stimulus, increasing the likelihood of the behaviour occurring again

357
Q

punishment

A

a stimulus from the environment that decreases the likelihood of a behaviour occurring again

358
Q

positive punishment

A

when a behaviour is followed by adding an undesirable stimulus decreasing the likelihood of the behaviour occurring again

359
Q

negative punishment

A

when a behaviour is followed by the removal or desirable stimulus decreasing the likelihood of the behaviour occurring again

360
Q

what is observational learning

A

a type of learning that occurs when a learner observes a models actions and their consequences to guide their future actions

is a social cognitive approach

361
Q

social cognitive approach

A

when an individual process, remembers and leans information in social contexts to explain and predict their behaviour and that of others

362
Q

what are the five stages of observational learning

A

attention
retention
reproduction
motivation
reinforcement

363
Q

attention

A

the first step of observational learning when the learner actively watched the models behaviour and the consequences

364
Q

retention

A

second stage when the learner stores a mental representation of the models behaviour

365
Q

reproduction

A

the third stage of observational learning when the learners physical and mental capabilities enable them to perform the models behaviour

366
Q

motivation

A

in observational learning, the learners desire to perform the models behaviour

367
Q

reinforcement

A

receiving a reward or desirable factor that increases the likelihood that the learner will reproduce the behaviour in the future

368
Q

what does each indigenous community have

A

has their own personalised system of thinking doing and knowing based on years of sharing, community and life with the environment around them

369
Q

global communities of indigenous communties

A

include indigenous people of each country

370
Q

national communities of indigenous communities

A

include the first people of specific countries

371
Q

non indigenous cultures

A

non indigenous school teach students how to learn in a way that is mostly from how to live day to day

372
Q

indigenous communities

A

australia culture combines both aspects in its teaching for knowing

373
Q

how do indigenous people share knowledge

A

their is potential for much knowledge transfer from indigenous communities to western communities

374
Q

connection to country

A

indigenous ways of knowing are rooted in a deep respect for the ecology and an understanding of the importance of the connected relationship with the land

375
Q

what is the 8 ways of knowing

A

story sharing
learning maps
non-verbal
symbols and images
non-linear
deconstruct/reconstruct
community links

376
Q

story sharing

A

approaching learning through narrative

Connect through stories they share

377
Q

learning maps

A

explicitly mapping/visualising processes. We picture our pathways of knowledge

378
Q

non verbal

A

applying intra-personal and kinaesthetic skills to thinking and learning. We see, think, act make and share without words

379
Q

symbols and images

A

using images and metaphors to understand concepts and content. We keep and share knowledge with art and objects

380
Q

land links

A

place based learning, linking and content to local land. We work with lessons from land and nature

381
Q

non linear

A

producing innovations and understanding by thinking laterally or combining systems. We. put different ideas together and create new knowledge

382
Q

deconstruct/reconstruct

A

modelling and scaffolding, working from wholes to parts (watch then do). We work from the wholes to parts, watching and then doing

383
Q

community links

A

entering local viewpoints, applying learning for community benefit. We bring new knowledge home to help our mob

384
Q

memory

A

an information processing system that actively receives, organises, stores and recovers information

385
Q

encoding

A

converting sensory information into a usable from that can be processed by the brain

-you must pay attention

386
Q

storage

A

retaining information over time

387
Q

retrieval

A

accessing information that has previously been stored

388
Q

the attinkson shriffin multi store model of memory

A

represents memory as consisting of three seperate stores cal sensory memory, short term memory

389
Q

what does each store do

A

process information in different ways and also differs in term of

function
capacity
duration

390
Q

role

A

the function of a memory store

391
Q

capacity

A

the amount of information held within a memory store

392
Q

duration

A

the length of time information is held within a memory store

393
Q

sensory memory

A

a memory store that receives and stores unlimited amount of incoming sensory information for a brief time

394
Q

what information enter sensory information

A
  • the information is in it’s raw form

-you must pay attention to important sensory information for it to be further processed and transferred into the next memory store

395
Q

what is the function of sensory memory

A

the entry point of sensory information from the environment enabled perceptual continuity for the world around us

396
Q

what is the duration of sensory memory

A

momentary 0.2-4 seconds

info only stays in the sensory memory long enough for us to select what to transfer to STM

397
Q

capacity of sensory memory

A

vast, potentially unlimited

398
Q

what happens if sensory memory is attended to

A

is sensory info is attended too-then it is transferred into the short term memory

399
Q

what happens is sensory info is not attended to

A

is the sensory info is not attended it is lost forever

400
Q

what are the two memories involved with sensory memory

A

iconic and echoic

401
Q

iconic memory

A

is used to describe visual sensory memory

402
Q

what is the duration of iconic memory

A

0.3-0.5 seconds

-however they last just long enough to recognise and process the sensory information

403
Q

echoic memory

A

is used to describe auditory sensory memory

404
Q

what does echoic memory do

A

registers and retains all kinds of sounds, such as speech, the barking of a dog

-the availability of auditory info for 3 or 4 seconds

405
Q

short term memory

A

a memory store that has limited capacity of short duration, unless the information is renewed

406
Q

what happens in short term memory

A

information is conscious and is actively manipulated so that we can retain the information for long enough to use it

407
Q

what could occur to information in short term memory

A

Since short term memory has limited duration and capacity, info can easily be lost unless it is renewed or manipulated in some way

408
Q

short term memory duration

A

18-30 seconds

after 12 sec recall starts to decline and by 18 seconds almost all the information disappears entirely if it has not been renewed in some way

409
Q

short term memory- maintenance rehearsal

A

a conscious effort to continually rehearse the info

410
Q

short term memory- elaborative rehearsal

A

giving meaning to new information and making association with other information stored in the LTM-more effective type of rehearsal

411
Q

short term memory capacity

A

STM has very limited capacity

7+2 unrelated items can be held by an adult

412
Q

STM- decay

A

the fading away of information in STM when no maintained through rehearsal

413
Q

STM- displacement

A

adding new single items to short term memory by pushing out old items

414
Q

how can capacity be extended in STM

A

chunking: grouping seperate items together to form a larger single of information

415
Q

STM- working memory

A

as our working memory, ATM enables us to actively work on and manipulate information while we undertake our everyday tasks

416
Q

long term memory

A

a memory that is relatively permanent and holds huge amounts of information for a long time possibly lifelong

417
Q

function of LTM

A

responsible for the storage of information for an extended period of time

418
Q

duration of LTM

A

indefinite, possibly permanent

419
Q

capacity of LTM

A

unlimited

420
Q

what are memories relating to LTM

A

explicit and implicit

421
Q

explicit memory

A

information that can be consciously retrieved and stated such as known facts

-we are AWARE of these memories

422
Q

what are the two sub types of explicit memory

A

semantic
episodic

422
Q

what happens when explicit memory is used

A

their is deliberate and conscious attempt to retrieve previously stored information

422
Q

semantic memory

A

the declaratives memory of facts and knowledge about the world

422
Q

what can episodic memories include

A

details of the time, place and our psychological and physiological state when the event occured

422
Q

episodic memory

A

the declrative memory of personally experienced events

422
Q

implicit memory

A

memory not requiring conscious retrieval such how to skills

423
Q

how can procedural memories be demonstrated

A

through behaviour and include skill, motor, body or muscle memories

423
Q

what are the two sub types of implicit memory

A

procedural memory
classical conditioned memory

423
Q

what does procedural memory involves

A

involves memories on how to do something following the procedure

423
Q

procedural memory

A

is the memory of motor skills and actions that have been learned previously

424
Q

cerebral cortex

A

a thin, outer layer of the brain: involved in complex, mental abilities, sensory processing, voluntary movements and the strorage of explicit memories

425
Q

hippocampus

A

a structure in the temporal midbrain: involves in formation of long term explicit memories and their transfer to the cerebral cortex for storage

426
Q

what is the first important role of the hippocampus

A

is it crucial for consolidation (encoding) of new explicit memories - semantic and episodic memories so they are neurologically stable and long lasting

427
Q

what does the hippocampus not do

A

does not store any explicit memories, but processes them, then transfers them to the cerebral cortex

428
Q

what is the second important role of the hippocampus

A

also transfers newly encoded explicit memories to relevant parts of the brain for permanent long term storage

429
Q

how to the hippocampus and amygdala relate to each other

A

both parts of the limbic systems, and work together in the formation of emotional memories, particularly the explicit memory component of an emotional event

430
Q

amygdala

A

a structure located deep in the temporal midbrain: involved in emotional relations and formation of emotional memories particularly relating to fear

431
Q

what does the amygdala do

A

responsible for encoding implicit memories relating to emotion

432
Q

example- bitten by a dog amygdala

A

amygdala encodes emotion of fear that you felt at the time that the dog but yours leg, then activated the hippocampus to encode the explicit event as significant

433
Q

neocortex

A

the top layer of the cerebral cortex that is involved in high order mental processes such as language, attention and memory

434
Q

what is generally stored in the neocortex

A

long term explicit semantic and episodic memories are widely distributed throughout the cortex

435
Q

what occurs in the neocortex when required

A

seperate parts are gathered together and reconstructed as a single, integrated memory for retrieval into our conscious awareness

436
Q

what does the neocortex does

A

storage of explicit memories

437
Q

basal ganglia

A

a group of structures deep within the cerebral hemispheres: involved in motor movement, procedural memory and learning

438
Q

what is one of basal ganglias main role

A

to encode implicit procedural memory, specifically habits

439
Q

what does the basal ganglia do

A

works to form habits by associating movement with reward reinforcement

440
Q

how does the basal ganglia achieve what it needs to do

A

does this by communication with other regions of the brain to acquire motor or cognitive skills gradually through practice

441
Q

cerebellum

A

structure at the base of the brain: coordinates timing and fluency of movements: encodes and temporarily stores implicit memories of simple conditioned reflexes

442
Q

what is cerebellums main role

A

encoding and temporary storage of implicit memory related movement

443
Q

autobiographical memory

A

a memory system consisting of episodes recollected from an individual life, based on the combination of episodic and semantic memory

444
Q

reconstruction

A

combining of stored information with other available to information to from what is beleived to be a more coherent or accurate memory

445
Q

episodic future thinking

A

projecting yourself forwards in time to pre experience an event that might happen in your personal future

446
Q

mental time travel

A

the capacity to mentally reconstruct past personal events and imagine possible future scenerios

447
Q

alzheimer disease

A

a neurodegenerative disease characterised by the progressive deterioration of brain nuerons causing memory loss, decline in cognitive and social skills and personality changes

448
Q

dementia

A

a collection of symptoms that ar caused by disorders affecting the brain

449
Q

symptoms of early stage (2-4 years) alzheimers disease

A

-forgets recently read material

-has trouble organising or planning

-has trouble managing money

450
Q

middle stage (2-10) alzheimers disease

A

experience delusions, compulsion and repetitive behaviour

451
Q

late stage 1-3 years alzheimers disease

A

has significantly personality and behaviour changes

-loses ability to hold a conversation

-has difficulty moving, eating or swallowing

452
Q

what are the five biologcal causes of alzheimers disease

A

brain lesion
amyloid plaques
neurofibrillary tangles
acetylcholine
brain atrophy

453
Q

brain lesion

A

any disruption of or damage to the brains normal structure

454
Q

amyloid plaques

A

an abnormal build up of beta amyloid proteins between the synapses of neurons that interfere with communication

455
Q

neurofibrillary tangles

A

an abnormal build up of proteins inside a neuron that is associated with cell death

456
Q

aphantasia

A

the inability to visualise imagery

457
Q

what people with aphantasia might do

A

-struggle to remember or relive autobiographical events

-have difficulty imagining future or hypothetical events

-have problems with. factual memory

458
Q

what is the cause of aphantasia

A

the visual cortex may be under active

459
Q

what are the two forms of aphantasia

A

congenital- present from birth

acquired- present after brain injury or significant psychological event, such as depression or anxiety

NO CURE

460
Q

what is a mnemonic

A

any technique used for improving or enhancing memory

461
Q

written cultures

A

a culture in which stories and information are shared and preserved through the process of reading and writing

462
Q

method of loci

A

a mnemonic system that commits a familiar location or sequence of locations to memory, then visually link them with information that needs to be recalled

463
Q

method of loci explanation

A

each location has a retrieval cue that makes it easier to retrieve the information when it is needed when it’s needed

464
Q

how many mnemonics are there

A

written culture
method of loci
acronyms
acrostics
mnemonics is oral culture
songlines

465
Q

acronyms

A

an abbreviation formed from the first letter of each word and pronounced as a single word

466
Q

what does the acronym need to be

A

when constructing an acronym, the mnemonic doesn’t have to be a real word but it needs to be pronounceable

467
Q

acrostics

A

a phrase in which the first letter of each word function as a cue to help with recall

468
Q

when are acrostics useful

A

when you need to remember information in sequential order, such as a set of history facts or list of information

469
Q

oral culture

A

a culture in which information and stories are communicated by word of mouth

470
Q

sung narrative

A

a story told through singing music and sometimes dance

471
Q

dreaming

A

a guide to life and living; determining is not just stories; it is art, songs, dances and it is written into the land itself

472
Q

songline

A

one of many sung narratvies of the landscapes that weave across country and able eery significant place in aboriginal dreaming to be known

473
Q

consciousness

A

the awareness of your own internal mental processes, including your thoughts, feelings, sensations and perceptions and your awareness of the external world around you

474
Q

what is your consciousness dominated by sometimes

A

internally focused thoughts and feelings; at other times it is dominated by sensations and perceptions from out external environment

475
Q

consciousness in depth

A

the contents of your consciousness constantly changes as you shift your focus of attention

-we also experience variations in the extent or degree of overall awareness at different times throughout each day

476
Q

psychological construct

A

a construct that cannot be objectively observe or measured directly through the collection of data but is widely understood to exist

477
Q

why is consciousness considered a psychological construct

A

because it cannot be objectively observed or measured through the collection of data, but is widely understood to exist

478
Q

states of consciousness

A

we experience are broadly categorised into normal waking consciousness and altered state of consciousness

479
Q

what are the two state of consciousness

A

normal waking consciousness

altered states of consciousness

480
Q

normal waking consciousness

A

a state of associated with being aware of our internal and external environments

481
Q

normal waking consciousness explanation

A

we experience normal walking consciousness in everyday activities when we are awake, and have a regular level fo awareness

482
Q

altered state of consciousness

A

any state that differs in awareness when compared to normal waking consciousness

483
Q

naturally occurring altered state of consciousness

A

an altered states of consciousness that occurs without any external influence

484
Q

induced altered state of consciousness

A

an altered state of consciousness that has been brought about on purpose

485
Q

sleep

A

a naturally occurring and reversible altered state os conscious characterised by a reduction in awareness and responsiveness to external surroundings

486
Q

non-rapid eye movement (NREM sleep)

A

a type of sleep characterised by a progressive declines in psychological activity

487
Q

how many sleep cycles will someone experience during an eight hour sleep

A

the average person will experience about five sleep cycles, each lasting approximately 90 minutes

488
Q

NREM stage 1 (N1)

A

when sleep begins in the first sleep cycle and is period of relatively light sleep

489
Q

what are psychological changes in NREM 1

A

changes that indicates lower level of bodily arousal

decrease in hr and rr and muscle tension

490
Q

how long does N1 last for

A

first sleep cycle of a healthy young adult lasts for about 5 minutes after falling asleep but as little as 1 minute for some

some could go up to 7 or 8 minute

491
Q

can you be easily awakened in N1

A

you can be easily awakened by a gentle nudge or sound such as a door closing

492
Q

NREM stage 2

A

is a period of light sleep, sometimes described as moderate because it gradually becomes deeper

493
Q

NREM 2 deeper understanding

A

about midway through N2 however we are unlikely to response to anything except extremely strong or loud stimuli indicating that our sleep has become noticeable deeper

494
Q

NREM stage 3

A

period of deep sleep. Our hr and breathing rate are at their lowest levels. our muscles are completely relaxed and we barely move

495
Q

NREM stage 3 explanation

A

delta waves become permanent
they occur more then 50% of the time

496
Q

how much does NREM stage 3 make up in sleep

A

as the night progresses, less and less time is spent in N3 deep sleep and it may disappear altogether. Overall, N3 make ups about 10-15% of total sleep

497
Q

REM sleep

A

a type of sleep characterised by quick darting of the eyes behind closed eyelids and an increase in physiological activity

498
Q

what occurs in REM sleep

A

brain is active and internal functioning is more active

499
Q

what are the techniques to measure consciousness

A

measurement of pyshsioligcal responses (EEG, EMG, EOG)

-sleep diaries to obtain self reports

-video monitoring

500
Q

electroencephalograph (EEG)

A

a technique that detects, amplifies and records electrical activity of the brain

501
Q

what happens in an EEG

A

electrodes are attached to a persons scalp or through a cap or headset with wires

502
Q

what do electrodes do

A

detect the synchronised electrical impulses of many neurons communication together just beneath the scalp at the surface of the cortex

503
Q

frequency

A

refers to the number of brain waves per second

high frequeny= more per second

504
Q

amplitude

A

refers to the intensity of the brain waves and can be measured through peaks and troughs visually seen in an EEG

high amplitude= higher peaks and thoughts

505
Q

what are the four types of brain waves

A

beat
alpha
theta
delta

BATD

506
Q

beta

A

frequency=highest
amplitude=lowest

507
Q

what is the state of people with beta brainwaves

A

normal waking consciousness

-awake, alert and focused

-high environmental stimulation

508
Q

alpha

A

frequency: high

amplitude: low

509
Q

what is the state of people with alpha brainwaves

A

-lower alertness

-awaked by relaxed

-quiet and calm

510
Q

theta

A

frequency: low
amplitude: high

511
Q

what is the state of people with theta brainwaves

A

-low alertness

-light sleep

-sense withdrawn from the external environment

512
Q

delta

A

frequency: lowest
amplitude: highest

513
Q

what is the state of people with delta brainwaves

A

-lowest alertness

-deep N3 sleep

-dreamless sleep

514
Q

electromyography (EMG)

A

a technique that detects, amplifies and records the electrical activity of the skeletal muscles

515
Q

what does EMG show

A

EMG recording show that our muscle relax as we change consciousness (e.g fall asleep)

516
Q

electro-oculargraph (EOG)

A

a technique that detects, amplifies and records the electrical activity of the muscles controlling the eyes

517
Q

what does EOG do

A

electrodes are attached to areas surrounding the eyes. It is most used to measure changes in eye movement over time during different stages of sleep

518
Q

self report

A

is the participants written or spoken responses, statement or instructions presented by the researcher. This is considered subjective

519
Q

sleep diary

A

a subjective self report tool used by a person to track their own sleep wake patterns

520
Q

video monitoring

A

a sleep study tool used to collect qualitative visual and audio information about a person sleep

521
Q

what are the four types of biological rhythms

A

circadian rhythm
ultradian rhythm
melatonin
SCN

522
Q

ultradian rhythm

A

biological processes that coordinate the timing of body activities over a period of less than 24 hours

522
Q

what is a circadian rhythm

A

are biological processes in all animals that coordinate the timing of activity of body systems over a 24 hour period

522
Q

what happens when we are out of sync with our sleep wake cycle

A

a participants cycle quickly adjusts to match the 24 hour day night cycle of the normal environmental time cues

522
Q

what is our sleep wake cycle influenced by

A

our sleep wake cycle is influenced by environmental time giving cues or stimuli

523
Q

melatonin

A

a hormone that induces drowsiness and decreases cell activity

524
Q

the suprachiasmatic nucleus

A

a master body clock in the hypothalamus that regulates body activities to daily schedule of sleep and wakefulness

525
Q

what happens where there is less light

A

the suprachiasmatic nucleus signals pineal gland

pineal gland release more melatonin

increase in melatonin makes a person more drowsy

if darkness low levels o flight continues, person remains sleepy

526
Q

what is the 1st trend of change across the lifespan

A

the total amount of sleep decreases

527
Q

what is the 2nd trend of change across the lifespan

A

the proportion of REM sleep decreases significantly from birth until 2 years old

528
Q

neonatal period (1-15 days)

A

sleep duration is at it’s highest

-approximately 16 hours of sleep

-approx 50% REM and 50% NREM

529
Q

what occurs in the neo natal lifespan

A

sleep onset stage 1, through REM sleep, not NREM stage 1, and each episode only consists of 1 or two sleep cycles

530
Q

infancy up to 24 months

A

sleep duration decreases to approximately 13.5 hours

approx 35% REM and 65% NREM

531
Q

childhood 2-14 years

A

sleep duration is 11 hours
NREM 80% and REM 20%

532
Q

adolescents 14-18

A

sleep duration is 9 hours
REM 20 and NREM 80%

533
Q

what happens to adolescents

A

tend to get less sleep then they need to function at their best partly due to sleep wake cycle and how they experience biological delayed sleep onset

534
Q

adulthood 18-75

A

sleep duration is 7-8

REM 20% and NREM 80%

535
Q

older adults

A

average 6 hours a day but also experience a 30 minute nap a day

20% REM and 80% NREM

536
Q

partial sleep deprivation

A

the experience of achieving inadequate sleep in terms of quality and quantity

537
Q

sleep quantity

A

refers to the amount of sleep. This can be measured objectively using time

538
Q

sleep quality

A

refers to how well we feel after we have slept

539
Q

what are three factors that contribute to sleep deprivation

A

consuming caffeine, food, drugs or alcohol

-work or school requirements

-medical conditions

540
Q

affective functioning

A

a persons experience of their emotions

541
Q

total sleep deprivation

A

involves not having any sleep at all over a short term or long term period. The person stays awake for one or more days or weeks

542
Q

sleep debt

A

is the accumulated amount of sleep loss from insufficient sleep

543
Q

what is an example of affective functioning

A

a child who is sleep deprived, they may get overly annoyed when asked to clean their room

544
Q

behavioural functioning

A

a persons observable actions

545
Q

behavioural functioning

A

when sleep deprived, may have trouble controlling behaviour, participate in more risk taking or impulsive behaviour, take longer to finish tasks

546
Q

cognitive functioning

A

a persons mental processing

547
Q

what cognitive functioning issues will a person experience if sleep deprived

A

trouble with memory

decreased alertness

poor concentration

548
Q

blood alcohol concentration

A

the percentage of alcohol in the bloodstream

549
Q

what are the cognitive effects of sleep deprivation v BAC

A

17 hours of sleep deprivation equals to 0.05 blood alcohol concentration

24 hours of sleep deprivation is equivalent to that of someone with a BAC of 0.10%

550
Q

circadian rhythm sleep disorders

A

a category of sleep disorders in which sleep is disrupted because the circadian rhythm and a person sleep wake schedule are misaligned

551
Q

what are the three different circadian rhythm disorders

A

delayed sleep phase syndrome

advanced sleep phase disorder

shift work

552
Q

delayed sleep phase syndrome (DSPS)

A

a circadian rhythm sleep disorder characterised by a delay in timing of sleep onset and awakening compared with the time that is desired

553
Q

what does DSPS cause

A

the delay is usually for two or more hours

person falls asleep later then they should and wake up later

results in the person unable to achieve recommended amount of sleep

554
Q

how many months does a person need to experience symptoms before being diagnosed with DSPS

A

three months

555
Q

what is DSPS cause by

A

by a misalignment between external cues and internal cues that regulate the circadian rhythm

556
Q

what are the three predominant symptoms of DSPS

A

sleep onset insomnia

difficulty awakening at the desired or necessary time

excessive sleepiness

557
Q

advanced sleep phase syndrome

A

a circadian rhythm sleep disorder characterised by an advance in the timing of sleep onset and awakening compared to the timing that is desired

558
Q

what are the typical sleep time for people with advanced sleep phase disorder

A

6pm and 8pm and wake times are between 1am and 3am

559
Q

what occurs in individual with ASPD

A

still receives the external cues of light in the morning and dark at night, but their are internal cues are not being received properly in the morning or night

560
Q

what is the effect of ASPD

A

persistant sleep deprivation and daytime sleepiness. In turn, they experience significant distress and or impairments in important areas of everyday life

561
Q

shift work disorder

A

work that regularly takes a place outside of normal business hours, particularly at night and the very early morning can cause a circadian rhythm sleep disorder

562
Q

what are the two main symptoms of shift work disorders

A

sleep onset insomnia and excessive sleepiness

563
Q

night shift workers

A

major sleep episoide of the night shift worker is unrefreshing

excessive sleepiness if often experience during the night and may impair performance due to reduced alertness and can have consequences to safety

564
Q

fixed vs rotating shifts

A

generally, if rotating shifts have to be used, the longer a person works on their particular shift the more likely it is their sleep-wake cycle will make at least some adjustments and the better for the individual

565
Q

bright light therapy

A

a therapy to treat a sleep disorder in which the person is exposed to a bright light to reset the sleep wake cycle

566
Q

what is the intervention for circadian rhythms

A

blue light therapy

567
Q

how will bright light therapy be used as a treatment for delayed sleep phase disorder

A

individual exposed to bright light in the morning at appropriate waking time

this will act as an external cue and will signal the SCN to release cortisol and promote wakefulness

this will help SCN send single for melatonin release at an earlier time

568
Q

how will bright light therapy be used as a treatment for advanced sleep phase disorder

A

individual gets exposed in the evening when feeling sleep to act as external cue to the SCN and promote wakefulness

This will help SCN send signals to melatonin release later, more appropriate sleeping time

569
Q

how will bright light therapy be used as a treatment for shift work disorder

A

depends on the details and timing of the individuals work

should be shown blue light at beginning of their shift, when they need to be awake and alert

this will promote sleepiness at a later more suitable time

570
Q

sleep hygiene

A

involves practices that tend to improve and maintain good sleep and full daytime alertness. This include behaviours and with a good nights sleep and waking feeling rested and ready to take on the days activity

571
Q

what is the first good sleep hygiene practice

A

establish a regular relaxing sleep schedule and bedtime routine

572
Q

what is the second good sleep hygiene practice

A

associate your bed and bedroom with sleep

573
Q

what is the third good sleep hygiene practice

A

avoid activities that are stimulating in the hour before bed

574
Q

zeitgebers

A

an environmental cue such as light, temperature and eating patterns that can synchronise and regulate with the bodies circadian rhythm

575
Q

improving sleep- exposure to daylight

A

during morning hours and early afternoon advances the sleep wake cycle, pushing it forward to a slightly earlier time

daylight in the afternoon has the opposite effect

576
Q

blue light

A

a part of the visible light spectrum that is entitled from the smartphone, screens, computer etc

577
Q

ways to avoid blue light

A

blue light glasses

built in screen filter or the night mode settings on your smart phone

578
Q

what happens with an over exposure on light

A

to much exposure in the evening disrupts our circadian rhythm leaving us feeling alert instead of drowsy and ready to sleep

579
Q

improving sleep- temperature

A

body temp gradually falls during the night and rises during the wake phase

sleep is most likely to occur when core body temp decreases

580
Q

what temperature is a zeitgebur

A

air temperature as it signals and help get the body ready for sleep, but probably with a weaker strength than light

581
Q

improving sleep- eating and drinking patterns

A

for most people who routinely consume foo during active daylight phase of a 24 hour cycle, the SCN and the peripheral clocks remain synchronised

allowing for a more appropriate sleep wake cycle

582
Q

how to adjust eating and drinking patterns

A

bringing mealtimes back to normal schedule during the active, light phase of the day

583
Q

mental wellbeing

A

is a state of wellbeing in which an individual realises his or her own abilities can with the normal stresses of life, can work productively and is able to make a contribution to his or her community

584
Q

what does a person with good mental health have

A

-have a high level of functioning

-manage with their feelings and emotions

-can form positive relationships with others (high levels of social wellbeing)

585
Q

mentally healthy

A

the state of not having difficulty with everyday activities and displaying resilience

586
Q

resilience

A

the ability to recover from adversity

587
Q

high level of functioning

A

the ability to carry out a wide range of daily activities attend to self care, maintain interpersonal relationship and demonstrate resilience in the face of everyday challenges

588
Q

social wellbeing

A

relates to the connections you make with other people and your ability to get along with people in a community

589
Q

what does a person with high social wellbeing exhibit

A

develop and maintain healthy relationships

-socially interact with others in an appropriate way

-respects other individuals

590
Q

emotional wellbeing

A

relates to the ability to feel a range of emotions and express them in a positive way

591
Q

people with high level of emotional wellbeing exhibit

A

-develop awareness of their awareness

-regulate emotions and exercise control

-express a range of emotions

592
Q

life stressor

A

an everyday or conceivable event such as a relationship breakdown work, challenge or failing a test

593
Q

ATSI social and emotional framework

A

the term social and emotional wellbeing is used by aboriginal and torres straight islander people to describe the physical, social, emotional, spiritual and cultural wellbeing of a person

594
Q

what is the framework based on

A

its based on a holistic, multidimensional view of health that recognises their connection to country, culture and spirituality, ancestry, family and community

595
Q

aboriginals and torres straight islanders social and emotional wellbeing framework

A

many aboroginal and torres straight islander

pyschology (15 decks)

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