Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Pudendal nerve

A
  • Motor supply to: EAS + EUS in females + ischiocavernosus/bulbospongiosus/levator ani
  • Sensory supply to anal canal below pectinate line (bottom 1/3)
  • Sensory supply to perianal skin/labia minora, vestibule, posterior aspect labia majora.
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2
Q

Hormonal effects of prostaglandin

A

Paracrine

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3
Q

Origin of appendicular artery

A

Ileocolic artery

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4
Q

Estrogen produced in pre-menopausal/reproductive women

A

Estradiol (E2)

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5
Q

Estrogen produced in menopausal years

A

Estrone (E1)

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6
Q

Estrogen produced during pregnancy

A

Estriol (E3)

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7
Q

Type of atom released during MRI to generate image

A

Hydrogen

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8
Q

Risk of neonatal congenital CMV infection if mother contacts in pregnancy (2nd trimester)

A

30-40% in first/second trimester and 40-70% in third trimester. Affects 0.2-2.2% of all live births.

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9
Q

Step infection toxin type

A

Enterotoxin

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10
Q

Commonest fallopian tube malignancy

A

Serous (Papillary serous cystadenocarcinoma)
Adenocarcinoma if serous not option

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11
Q

Commonest feature of warfarin embryopathy

A

Nasal hypoplasia

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12
Q

Max score PUQE (Pregnancy Unique Quantification of Emesis)

A

Max score = 15
<=6 = mild
7-12 = moderate
13-15 = severe

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13
Q

Lung volumes decreased in pregnancy

A

Functional residual capacity by 20%
Total lung capacity by 5%
Expiratory reserve volume by 20%
PCO2 decreases

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14
Q

Lung volumes increased in pregnancy

A

Tidal volume by 50%
Minute ventilation by 50% during first trimester
PO2 increases
Oxygen consumption by 20%

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15
Q

Primary amenorrhea, normal secondary sexual characteristics, normal LH/FSH/E2/TSH, absent uterus and blind-ended vagina.

A

Karotype 46XX
MRKH syndrome (Müllerian agenesis)

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16
Q

LH half life

A

20 mins

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17
Q

Additional risk of miscarriage with amniocentesis

A

1%

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18
Q

Commonest tumor in newborn

A

Sacrococcygeal teratoma
2nd = neuroblastoma

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19
Q

Lithium associated with which anomalies:

A

Overriding right atrioventricular valve
Right ventricular obstruction outlet
Ebstein anomaly (The tricuspid valve is incorrectly formed and located lower than usual in the heart)

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20
Q

Ratio of T4:T3 in blood

A

14:1

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21
Q

Plasmodium species causing heaviest malaria burden

A

Falciparum

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22
Q

Frequency used in transvaginal ultrasound scans

A

5-10mHz (in TA 2-6 MHZ)
Often quoted as 7.5 mHz

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23
Q

Percentage of free T3 in circulation

A

1%

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24
Q

Chancroid causative agent

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

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25
Q

If one parent is a carrier for cystic fibrosis + other parent is unknown, what is the risk of child developing cystic fibrosis?

A

1%

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26
Q

Mode of inheritance for BRCA 1 & 2

A

Autosomal dominant

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27
Q

Psamomma bodies contain which ion?

A

Calcium

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28
Q

Origin of the appendix testis

A

Paramesonephric duct (Mullerian duct)

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29
Q

Where is the Ductus Arteriosus located?

A

Between pulmonary artery & aorta

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30
Q

How does clindamycin work?

A

inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis at the level of the 50S ribosome

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31
Q

How does Metronidazole work?

A

Binds covalently with DNA
Damage DNA and inhibit DNA synthesis

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32
Q

What is the recurrence rate of ectopic in a history of salpingectomy?

A

15-20%

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33
Q

What is the test for hemolytic anaemia in babies?

A

Direct coombs test

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34
Q

Which vitamin deficiency can cause homocysteine increase?

A

Folic acid or Vitamin B12

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35
Q

Most common benign ovarian tumor

A

Mature teratoma

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36
Q

Phase before mitosis

A

G2

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37
Q

RNA analysis is by

A

Northern blot

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38
Q

Heat stable enzyme used in PCR

A

Taq DNA polymeras

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39
Q

Largest cell in the body

A

Oocyte

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40
Q

BMI calculation

A

Weight (kg) / Height (m2)

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41
Q

Epidural anaesthesia given between which layers

A

Dura mater & vertebrae

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42
Q

Which enzyme in renal tubule cells is responsible for production of ammonia?

A

Glutamines

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43
Q

Brenner tumor consists of which kind of cell

A

Transitional + Squamous

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44
Q

Which layers do the sperm pass through during fertilization?

A

The sperm first burrow through the cells of the corona radiata. Then, upon contact with the zona pellucida, the sperm bind to receptors in the zona pellucida (acrosome reaction)

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45
Q

The urethral orifice is present in which space?

A

Superficial perineal pouch

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46
Q

What does methotrexate inhibit?

A

Dihydrofolate reductase

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47
Q

At term, fetus gets cholesterol from which source?

A

Fetal liver

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48
Q

which subtype of lichen planus causes the most symptoms?

A

Erosive

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49
Q

Chances of endometrial cancer with Lynch syndrome (HNPCC)?

A

60%

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50
Q

Vulval lesion on biopsy shows keratin pearls. What is likely diagnosis?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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51
Q

Most effective emergency contraception?

A

Copper IUD

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52
Q

During development of liver and biliary system, hepatic bud invaginates into which structure?

A

Septum transversum

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53
Q

Lung cancer + lethargy, fatigue and polyuria + depression. Most likely disturbance?

A

Hypercalcaemia

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54
Q

What vitamin supplement is given during hyperemesis/vomiting in pregnancy?

A

Vitamin B1 (thiamin)

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55
Q

Important cell of adaptive immunity

A

Lymphocytes

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56
Q

TSH mildly high but thyroid hormones normal, is which diagnosis?

A

Subclinical hypothyroidism

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57
Q

Previous pregnancy IGG negative for CMV. Now CMV IGG +ve, cytotoxic IGG value given, IGM -ve. What is the interpretation?

A

Previously infected, primary and secondary infection status can be assessed.
- Positive CMV IgG results indicate past or recent CMV infection.
- A negative cytomegalovirus (CMV) IgM result suggests that the patient is not experiencing acute or active infection. However, a negative result does not rule-out primary CMV infection.

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58
Q

NAAT (RNA) report for chlamydia takes how long?

A

21 days

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59
Q

Number of carbon atoms in estrogen, progesterone, aldosterone, cortisol and androgen?

A

18 21 21 21 19

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60
Q

Fluid filled area or black area on ultrasound scan

A

Anechoic

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61
Q

2,3 DPG in pregnancy, what happens to O2 dissociation curve?

A

Increase in 2,3 DPG shifts curve to the right

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62
Q

which organ will be affected by ACE inhibitors?

A

Kidney

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63
Q

Warfarin teratogenicity develops at which gestational age?

A

6-9 weeks

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64
Q

What is the level of dermatome for epidural at umbilical region?

A

T10

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65
Q

What ligament resists horizontal rotation of the pelvis?

A

Sacrospinous ligament

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66
Q

Cervical screening guidelines:

A

HR - HPV test

  • if negative, routine recall 25-49 3 years + > 50 5 years (25-64)
  • if positive –> cytology abornal at all, then for colposcopy.
  • If positive –> cytology normal, then re-screen in 12 months. If HPV negaive, then routine recall. If HPV positive + cytology normaly, re-screen in 12 months. If third HPV positive + cytology normal, then return to routine re-call.
  • Test for cure 6 months after treatment for any CIN.
  • Women with high-grade dyskaryosis or worse are referred straight to colposcopy i.e without HR-HPV test
  • For those with negative, borderline change (of squamous or endocervical type), or low-grade dyskaryosis a HR-HPV test is performed.
    If HR HPV Negative test then 3 year recall
    If HR HPV Positive referred back to colposcopy
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67
Q

Natural killer cells belong to?

A

Lymphocytes

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68
Q

Levonorgestrel IUS secretion in 24 hours?

A

20 ug

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69
Q

What is the term used for anti-cancer agent methotrexate?

A

Anti-metabolite

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70
Q

Hematopoietic function starts at which gestational age?

A

6 weeks

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71
Q

Cell lysis is by which complement?

A

C5

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72
Q

What is the risk of fetal loss for women who get parvovirus in first trimester?

A

10%

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73
Q

In girls, puberty is indicated by?

A

Thelarchae

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74
Q

Normal physiological changes in pregnancy?

A

Increase plasma volume
Decrease hematocrit
Decrease plasma protein
Increase in blood volume

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75
Q

Major contribution to amniotic fluid by fetal urine from?

A

18 weeks

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76
Q

Prostaglandins are synthesized from?

A

Unsaturated fatty acids

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77
Q

Which structure divides the paramedical and para-rectal pouches?

A

Uterine artery

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78
Q

Which anti-hypertensive should be avoided in pre-eclampsia and asthma?

A

Nifedipine

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79
Q

Which most accurately describes the mode of action of Letrozole?

A

Aromatase inhibitor

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80
Q

IUD in place with discharge

A

Don’t remove IUD, take vaginal swab and treat

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81
Q

Epithelium of fallopian tube

A

Columnar epithelium - ciliated

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82
Q

Hirshprung disease etiology

A

Abnormality in parasympathetic ganglia

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83
Q

Nature of heparin

A

Polysaccharide

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84
Q

Typical effective dose for CT chest

A

7mSv

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85
Q

The placenta is the lower anterior in
which it invades through the myometrium up to the uterine serosa’.

A

Placenta percreta

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86
Q

Placenta attachment definitions:

A

Accreta: chorionic villi attached to myometrium rather than decidua basalis

Increta: chorionic villi invade into the myometrium.

Percreta: chorionic villi invade through the myometrium

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87
Q

CT scan which shows
multiple circumscribed masses in the myometrium. Hysterectomy is performed and
histopathological examination shows spindles shaped cells in whorled bundles and the
mitotic figures are scarce. The most likely diagnosis is?

A

Leiomyoma

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88
Q

An 18-year-old woman has had pelvic discomfort for several months. On pelvic
examination, there is a right adnexal mass. Ultrasound picture of the right ovary shows cystic
lesion measuring 3.3x 2.5 cm with echogenic septae. What is the most likely finding?

A

Benign teratoma

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89
Q

What type of acid–base disturbance results in a case of Conn’s syndrome?

A

Metabolic alkalosis

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90
Q

Where does vulval cancer more commonly arise?

A

Labia majora

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91
Q

What percentage of T4 is free?

A

0.1%

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92
Q

Standard CXR is equivalent to what duration of natural radiation?

A

10 days

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93
Q

Which of the following drugs is used to suppress lactation postpartum in mothers who
suffers from stillbirth?

A

Cabergoline

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94
Q

The non-invasive, cell-free fetal DNA in maternal blood of prenatal diagnosis would best
be used on

A

Chorionic cells

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95
Q

What is used to calculate RMI score?

A

ultrasound score x ca-125 x menopause score

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96
Q

50 years old women with absent periods for 2years, has bilateral ovarian mass with
solid areas on scan and CA 125 of 100. What is her RMI score?

A

900

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97
Q

Which drug trial phase primarily assesses the safety of a drug?

A

Phase 1

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98
Q

Zika virus is

A

Ss RNA

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99
Q

Which substance is indicated by the letter ‘X’ in the diagram below?

A

Dihydrotestosterone

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100
Q

Endometriod - USS picture and laparoscopic picture

A

Jan 2023 exam

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101
Q

Pedunculated fibroid

A

USS picture

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102
Q

Which gene is defect in 21 hydroxylase deficiency

A

Gene mutation 6p 21

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103
Q

Vulvar ca 3a latest figo calcification 2021

A

<=5mm

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104
Q

Metaplasia definition

A

replacement of one differentiated somatic cell type with another differentiated somatic cell type in the same tissue (epithelial cells changes into other epithelial cells)

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105
Q

Dysplasia

A

Pleomorphism

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106
Q

Phenylketonuria - where does it deposit in fetus?

A

Brain

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107
Q

GBS positive with a UTI?

A

Treat UTI and given intra-partum antibiotics

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108
Q

Congenital abnormalities and with their rate - Edward, Turner and Translocation

A

Edwards = 1/10,000
Turner = 1/3000
Translocation = 1/500

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109
Q

How much folic acid should a mother have if her previous baby had anencephaly?

A

Folic acid 5000 mcg

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110
Q

Down syndrome biochemical markers?

A

Increased B-HCG and Inhibit, rest reduced

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111
Q

Most common vulval cancer

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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112
Q

Most common hyperthyroidism in pregnancy

A

Grave’s disease

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113
Q

MRI not suitable to use at which gestation?

A

10-12 weeks

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114
Q

Carbimazole embryopathy causes:

A

Choanal atresia

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115
Q

Cochrane risk of thromboembolic events:

A

2/100,000-6-12/100,000

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116
Q

Mechanism of action of raltegravir:

A

Integrase inhibitor

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117
Q

Mother has Galactorrhea. TSh 15 Fsh 20 lh 20. Cause?

A

Hypothyroidism

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118
Q

Pheochromocytoma signs and symptoms?

A

Headache, tachycardia and sweating

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119
Q

Obturator artery arises from

A

Internal iliac

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120
Q

Hyperaldosteronism with feminisation drug

A

Spiroletone

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121
Q

Granulosa cells produce:

A

Estrogen

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122
Q

Gonorrhoea image on Google

A

Granules!

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123
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum, which is the best fluid?

A

0.9% sodium chloride

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124
Q

Rate of expulsion of IUD?

A

1/20

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125
Q

Risk of fibroid to change to malignancy?

A

1/1000

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126
Q

Pelvic splenic nerve is what kind?

A

Pre-ganglionic parasympathetic

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127
Q

What is obliterated in the uterine cavity prevent developing pregnancy?

A

decidua capsularis merges with the decidua parietalis

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128
Q

Anti-D doses

A
  • Anti-D i not required for spontaneous miscarriage before 12 gestation, unless there is instrumentation or medical evacuation of the uterus.
  • In pregnancies <12 weeks , anti-D prophylaxis is only indicated following ectopic pregnancy, molar pregnancy, therapeutic termination of pregnancy and in cases of uterine bleeding where this is repeated, heavy or associated with abdominal pain.
  • <20 weeks gestation = 250 IU within 72 hours
  • > 20 weeks gestation = 500 IU within 72 hours
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129
Q

Muscles of scrotum?

A

dartos muscle and the cremasteric muscle

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130
Q

Half life of FSH

A

3-4 hours

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131
Q

Opsonization achieved by which compound of complement system?

A

C3b

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132
Q

Obturator artery arises from?

A

Anterior division of internal iliac artery

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133
Q

Pellagra occurs in deficiency of which vitamin?

A

Niacin (Vitamin B3)

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134
Q

Left uterine vein drains into:

A

Left internal iliac

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135
Q

Inferior rectal vein drains into:

A

Internal pudendal vein

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136
Q

HPV vaccine is:

A

Recombinant/ Subunit Vaccine
subunit (polysaccharide)

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137
Q

Vaccines to be avoided in pregnancy?

A

Live vaccines

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138
Q

Artery which is ligated to reduce PPH in cases of morbid adherent placenta (accreta)?

A

Internal iliac artery

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139
Q

Site of glycolysis?

A

Cytosol

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140
Q

Site of urea cycle?

A

Liver

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141
Q

Marfan’s syndrome (mother affected, father not)?

A

50% - autosomal dominant

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142
Q

X-ray image with pointer at SI joint - what structure passes anterior to it?

A

Ureter

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143
Q

Image question: Ilacus muscle marked. What is nerve supply?

A

Femoral nerve

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144
Q

Obturator nerve root values?

A

L2, L3, L4

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145
Q

Lateral wall of ischiorectal fossa formed by:

A

Obturator internus

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146
Q

Nd-YAG, type of laser:

A

Solid laser

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147
Q

Power sensitivity: 90%. What is value of B?

A

Power = 1-B
0.9 = 1 - B
B = 1 - 0.9
B = 0.1 or 1/10

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148
Q

Type of necrosis in brain?

A

Colliquative (Liquefactive)

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149
Q

E-coli urine infection in pregnancy but no symptoms?

A

Nitrofurantoin for 7 days

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150
Q

Which antibiotic should be avoided at term?

A

Nitrofurantoin

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151
Q

What is the site for filtration in kidneys?

A

Glomerulus

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152
Q

SI unit of magnetic field?

A

Tesla

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153
Q

MRI acts by:

A
  • Aligning protons
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154
Q

History of old inferior MI on ECG?

A

Q wave in lead 2, 3, and AVF

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155
Q

ECG changes in N pregnancy?

A

T wave inversion Lead 3

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156
Q

What is blood supply to kidney in non-pregnant woman?

A

20-25%

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157
Q

Increase in cardiac output in second stage of pregnancy?

A

50%

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158
Q

Antigen presenting cells in cervix?

A

Langerhans cells

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159
Q

Secretions attack pathogens by? conjunctival secretions protect from bacteria by secreting?

A

Lysozymes

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160
Q

Standard error of mean calculation:

A

SD/square root of N (sample size)

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161
Q

What is a Type 1 error?

A
  • False positive
  • occurs if an investigator rejects a null hypothesis that is actually true in the population
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162
Q

What is Type 2 error?

A
  • False negative
  • investigator fails to reject a null hypothesis that is actually false in the population.
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163
Q

What occurs at gastrulation?

A

Formation of 3 germ layers

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164
Q

Cytotrophoblast forms on which day?

A

Day 8

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165
Q

Carbon atoms in estrogen?

A

18

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166
Q

Carbon atoms in testosterone?

A

19

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167
Q

Incidence of rhesus negative population in UK?

A

15%

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168
Q

When does hemolytic disease of newborn occur?

A

When father is homozygous Rhesus positive + mother is rhesus negative

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169
Q

What is the basis of the Kleihauer-Betke test?

A

Fetal RBCs are resistant to denaturation by acid as compared to maternal RBCs (acid elution test)

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170
Q

Brunner’s glands are located in?

A

Duodenum

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171
Q

What is the unit for electrosurgery?

A

300 Hz - 5 MHz

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172
Q

Which nerve passes below the inguinal ligament and medial to ASIS?

A

Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve/lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

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173
Q

Incidence of which cancer is increased with endometriosis?

A

Clear cell carcinoma

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174
Q

Most common clinical feature of uterine fibroids?

A

Heavy menstrual bleeding

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175
Q

A girl with dysmenorrhea - which treatment is not effective to treat dysmenorrhea?

A
  • Progesterone from Day 21 to Day 28 of cycle.

Treatments that work:
NSAIDs
COCP Pills
GnRH analogues
Progesterone from Day 5 to Day 28 of cycle.

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176
Q

Retinol causes teratogenicity during pregnancy due to:

A

Hypervitaminosis of Vitamin A

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177
Q

IgG passes through the placenta via:

A

Pinocytosis

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178
Q

Amino acids transferred across the placenta by which method?

A

Active transport

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179
Q

What is the co-factor for DNA synthesis?

A

Folic Acid

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180
Q

How long do you continue LMWH for patients with hyperemesis gravid arum?

A

Until patient discharge

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181
Q

What is the treatment for patient with hyperemesis and ketonuria +++ who cannot tolerate oral fluids and feeds?

A

Anti-emetics + 0.9% saline

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182
Q

What drug is used for the treatment of herpes simplex?

A

Aciclovir

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183
Q

zidovudine belongs to which class of drug?

A

Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor

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184
Q

Sexually active girl presents with dome shaped ulcers on her vulva and thighs. Likely diagnosis?

A

Molluscum contagiosum

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185
Q

Patient at booking visit tested for rubella antibodies. IgM -ve + IgG -ve. What is the next step?

A

Give her MMR vaccine after delivery.

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186
Q

Acute hemolytic reaction following blood transfusion occurs because of;

A

ABO incompatibility

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187
Q

Progesterone receptors are?

A

Nuclear transcription factor

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188
Q

Lacunae develops into which layer?

A

syncytiotrophoblast

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189
Q

What is the karyotype of complete mole?

A

46XX

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190
Q

What is the karotype of Turner’s syndrome?

A

45XO

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191
Q

Karotype of male Edward syndrome?

A

47XY (also written as 47,XY,+18)

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192
Q

What are the features of Turner’s Syndrome?

A

Short stature
Neck webbing
Decreased fertility

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193
Q

Dalteparin monitored using which test?

A

Anti-Xa levels

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194
Q

Additional features of Warfarin Embryopathy?

A

nasal hypoplasia
Slipped epiphysis
IUGR

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195
Q

What are the consequences of fetal anticonvulsant syndrome?

A
  • Neural tube defects (spina bifida), particularly with sodium valproate & carbamazepine.
  • Congenital heart defects, particularly with phenytoin.
  • Orofacial clefts.

What is not associated: hyperplasia of corpus collosum.

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196
Q

What epithelium lines the endosalpinx?

A

Simple columnar

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197
Q

Methotrexate acts in what way?

A

Reversible DHFR inhibitor

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198
Q

Arias-Stella phenomenon occurs where?

A

Endometrium - benign change in the endometrium associated with the presence of chorionic tissue.

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199
Q

What change in the endometrium poses a high risk for endometrial carcinoma?

A

Atypical hyperplasia

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200
Q

What test denotes menopausal status?

A

FSH

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201
Q

What test is for ovarian reserve?

A

AMH

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202
Q

Drugs cross across the placenta via which method?

A

No-ionization

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203
Q

The size of the uterus in pregnancy increases due to?

A

Hypertrophy

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204
Q

Cystoscopy done for haematuria - papillary growth seen. What is the likely malignancy?

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

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205
Q

Sequence of events in wound healing

A

Hemostasis
Inflammation
Proliferation
Maturation
Remodelling

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206
Q

pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia due to HIV. At what CD4 count is prophylaxis to be given?

A

CD4 < 200

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207
Q

What cells are affected by HIV?

A

CD4 + T-cells

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208
Q

Plasma cells originate from?

A

B lymphocytes

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209
Q

In which site are prostaglandins inhibited?

A

Lungs

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210
Q

Discoloration of teeth due to which antibiotic?

A

Tetracycline

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211
Q

Birth weight is which type of data?

A

Ratio variable

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212
Q

Patient complains of greenish discharge and cervix erythematous on examination. Cells under microscope show characteristic HALO around nucleus in shed cells. pH 6 What is the diagnosis?

A

Trichomonas Vaginalis

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213
Q

Patient has yellow discharge and gram negative cocci seen. Diagnosis?

A

N. Gonorrhoea

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214
Q

Fungal agent responsible for UTIs?

A

Candida

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215
Q

What drug causes kernicterus?

A

Sulfonamide

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216
Q

IUCD related infection with sulfur granules seen. Causative organism?

A

Actinomyces israelii

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217
Q

Mechanism of action of IUCD

A

Inhibits implantation/fertilization

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218
Q

Mechanism of action of Fluconazole?

A

Inhibits Lanosterol 14 alpha-demethylase enzyme and hence ergosterol synthesis.

interruption of the conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol via binding to fungal cytochrome P-450 and subsequent disruption of fungal membranes.

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219
Q

Patient develops rash and joint pain. USS shows fetal hydrops/fetal ascites. Likely diagnosis?

A

Parvovirus B19

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220
Q

Patient had infection during pregnancy, baby delivered normal. After 1 year, developed notching of incisors + deafness. Likely diagnosis?

A

Treponema pallidum

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221
Q

Patient comes in with heavy painless vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks pregnant. What should not be done immediately?

A

Vaginal examination PV

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222
Q

Sequence of vessels from left to right: aorta, pulmonary artery, SVC?

A

SVC, aorta, pulmonary artery

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223
Q

What is the screening test fr iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Hb

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224
Q

Patient presents with irregular periods + Normal FSH/TSH + raised Prolactin (1500) + low serum progesterone. Diagnosis?

A

Pituitary microadenoma

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225
Q

Patient post-op with output post-surgery 300 mld. mildly raised urea + creatinine. Diagnosis?

A

Dehydration

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226
Q

Most common cause of hyperthyroidism?

A

Grave’s disease

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227
Q

HPV 16 + 18 responsible for what percent of cervical cancers?

A

70%

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228
Q

Which HPV strains cause genital warts?

A

HPV strains 6 + 8 + 11

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229
Q

Patient presents at 8 weeks pregnant with hyperemesis. Decreased TSH + normal free T4. Diagnosis?

A

Normal fr 8 weeks pregnancy + repeat later

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230
Q

The anterior pituitary develops at:

A

6-7 weeks

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231
Q

What enzyme is used for androgen synthesis in ovary?

A

3β-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

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232
Q

Most common degranulation in a fibroid?

A

Hyaline

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233
Q

What is the steroid synthesis pathway?

A

DHEA (Dehydroepiandrosterone)–> Androstenedione –> Testosterone

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234
Q

The vestibule is between?

A

Vagina + labia minora/ between two labia minora

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235
Q

Patient with amenorrhea + increased FSH/LH + TSH. Diagnosis?

A

Premature ovarian failure

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236
Q

Which is a second generation progesterone?

A

Levonorgestrel

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237
Q

Drospirenone has what special property compared to other synthetic progesterones?

A

Much higher antiandrogenic potency .

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238
Q

Surfactant synthesis in pneumocytes, due to which organelle?

A

lamellar bodies

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239
Q

Technique of bonding for conventional chromosomal analysis?

A

G-banding

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240
Q

GnRH chemical structure

A

decapeptide

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241
Q

Ondansetron acts as antagonist to which receptor?

A

5HT

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242
Q

What is the male equivalent of round ligament in females?

A

gubernaculum

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243
Q

The lower border (lower 2/3) of the vagina develops from:

A

Urogenital sinus

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244
Q

What is the source of fetal cholesterol in late pregnancy?

A

Fetal liver

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245
Q

Mutations in 21-hydroxylase (Congenital adrenal hyperplasia) involves which chromosome?

A

6p21

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246
Q

In Cushing’s disease, what happens to the level of ACTH, cortisol and growth hormone?

A

Low ACTH, high cortisol, low growth hormone

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247
Q

What is down-regulated in cases of recurrent pregnancy losses?

A

HLA-G

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248
Q

Detrusor muscle receptor type?

A

M3

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249
Q

Which muscle doesn’t attach to the perineal body?

A

Ischiocavernosus

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250
Q

The hepatic phase of hematopoiesis begins at what gestational age?

A

6 weeks

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251
Q

Atropine exerts its antagonist action on which receptors?

A

Acetylcholine

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252
Q

striae gravidarum in pregnancy occur due to which hormone?

A

Cortisol

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253
Q

The Kolmogorov–Smirnov is used for?

A

Non-parametric test used for indifferent data that is unrelated; compare two distributions to determine if they are pulling from the same underlying distribution

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254
Q

What is used for delivery of head at pelvic floor?

A

Outlet instrumental delivery

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255
Q

Complications associated with retroverted uterus in pregnancy:

A

Incarceration of the gravid uterus

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256
Q

What term is used for endometrium which is thin?

A

Atrophic

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257
Q

Hyperprolactinemia in PCOS occurs due to:

A

Unopposed oestrogen

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258
Q

During fertilization, sperm penetrates which layer?

A

Zona Pellucida

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259
Q

Caput medusa due to dilation of which embryonic structure?

A

Umbilical vein

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260
Q

Itching in pregnancy at 37 weeks affecting palm + sole + raised AST + bile acids. Diagnosis?

A

Obstetric cholestasis

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261
Q

UTI scenario: drug to be given at 8 weeks. Which to avoid in first trimester?

A

Trimethorpim

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262
Q

UTI scenario: patient given Cephalexin and not responded. Which drug to be given? 37 weeks pregnant.

A

Trimethoprim

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263
Q

What is the mechanism of action of oxytocin?

A

Activation of phospholipase C and increase in intracellular calcium

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264
Q

Most common cause of delayed puberty in males?

A

Constitutional

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265
Q

Pregnant patient at 18 weeks with HIV. Increased AST + low platelets + peripheral smear of fragmented RBCs. Diagnosis?

A

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenia Purpura

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266
Q

Which electrocautery system attaches to a ground plate?

A

Monopolar diathermy

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267
Q

HIV transmission to the baby from other is maximum during:

A

Delivery

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268
Q

what is the most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Chronic renal failure

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269
Q

What releases calcitonin?

A

Thyroid

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270
Q

LDH is increased in which ovarian tumor?

A

Dysgerminoma

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271
Q

Condyloma lata seen in which stage of syphilis?

A

Secondary syphilis
1 = chancre
2 = condyloma lata
3 = gumma

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272
Q

What is the haldane effect on facilitating exchange at placenta?

A

Carbon dioxide transfer from the fetus to the mother is facilitated by the Haldane effect (the increased capacity of deoxygenated blood to carry carbon dioxide compared with oxygenated blood).

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273
Q

Previous delivery > 4kg baby. Now patient develops prolapse. Which ligament likely to be involved?

A

Uterosacral/cardinal ligaments

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274
Q

Atosiban is:

A

Oxytocin antagonist

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275
Q

The antibacterial action of BenzylPenicillin is due to its effect on?

A

Cell wall synthesis

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276
Q

Warfarin acts where in the clotting cascade?

A

Vitamin K antagonist

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277
Q

Grade B recommendation of RCOG means?

A

well controlled studies but non randomized

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278
Q

RCOG recommendations of evidence.

A

A = At least one randomized controlled trial
B = well controlled studies but non randomized
C = requires evidence obtained from expert committee reports or opinions and/or clinical experience of respected authorities.

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279
Q

What is the most common cause of the female urethral caruncle?

A

Hypoestrogenism

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280
Q

What type of variable is ABO Blood Group ?

A

Nominal

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281
Q

Which is a precursor of Serotonin?

A

Tryptophan

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282
Q

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome Deficiency disease of vitamin?

A

Vitamin B1

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283
Q

Incidence of “RARE” disease when translated into mathematics is?

A

1:1000- 1:10,000

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284
Q

Which protein is coiled in DNA?

A

Histones

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285
Q

A 65-year-old nulliparous women presents with vaginal spotting. A hysterectomy is
performed, and pathologic examination of the removed uterus reveals heterologous
components of a malignant tumor of the endometrial glands and metaplastic cartilage. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Carcinosarcoma

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286
Q

Which is the single
mechanism of action for Mirabegron?

A

Selective Beta-3 antagonist

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287
Q

Side effect of Terbutaline:

A

Maternal tachycardia

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288
Q

In ECG which lead reflects the inferior wall of heart?

A

II, III, aVF

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289
Q

What is the embryological origin of Gartners duct cyst?

A

Mesonephric duct

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290
Q

What is the SI unit for the activity of radioactive decay?

A

Becquerel

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291
Q

What is the contrast dye used in MRI scans?

A

Gadolinium

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292
Q

Which hormone increases the excretion of calcium in Kidney?

A

Calcitonin

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293
Q

When Choriocarcinoma metastasizes, it has a predominantly spread by which route ?

A

Hematogenous

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294
Q

What drug can be given in methotrexate toxicity?

A

Folinic acid

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295
Q

40-year-old woman had bilateral silicone breast implants placed two years ago. Since that
time, she has noted increased firmness with slight deformity of the breast on the left. The
implants are removed, and there is evidence for leakage of the implant contents on the left.
Which of the following cell types is most likely to be most characteristic of the inflammatory
response in this situation?

A

Giant cells

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296
Q

Which of the following is contraindication of the use of oxybutynin?

A

Narrow angle glaucoma

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297
Q

A neoplasm of the female genital tract occurring in an 18-year-old girl whose mother was
treated with diethylstilbestrol during the pregnancy is likely to be a:

A

Clear cell carcinoma of vagina

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298
Q

Active form of Vit-D is produced in which organ?

A

Kidney

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299
Q

Patau syndrome karotype:

A

Trisomy 13

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300
Q

Lancefield grouping of streptococci is based on the presence of ?

A

Carbohydrate antigen on cell wall

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301
Q

Antihypertensive which causes postnatal depression, when used in permpartum period?

A

Methyl dopa

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302
Q

Clomifene citrate mechanism of action ?

A

Selective estrogen receptor modulator

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303
Q

Which Antineoplastic drug causes hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

Cyclophosphamide

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304
Q

Luteinizing hormone (LH) is structurally related to what other glycoprotein hormones?

A

HCG, FSH and TSH

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305
Q

Mechanism of action of ulipristal acetate ?

A

Selective progesterone receptor modulator

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306
Q

Which one of the following is the termination of round ligament?

A

Labia majora

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307
Q

Ductus venosus is completely obliterated after birth to form what adult
structure?

A

Ligamentum venosum

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308
Q

A 60-year-old with erythematous erosive lichen planus on the vulva. What type of cancer is linked to lichen planus?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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309
Q

Which of the following organisms Colonize copper IUD?

A

Actinomyces species

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310
Q

Bacterial vaginosis is diagnosed with depletion in numbers of which
organism?

A

Lactobacillus

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311
Q

The most common in Utero infection causing fetal anemia in the UK is

A

Parvovirus B19

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312
Q

Sheehan syndrome affects?

A

Anterior pituitary

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313
Q

A 25-year-old woman presents with right-sided pelvic pain for more than one year. An
ultrasound scan is arranged which shows a 5 cm well-defined cystic lesion in the right adnexa
with mixed echoes. There is no fluid in the cul-de-sac

A

Benign cystic teratoma

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314
Q

Cori cycle

A

metabolic pathway in which lactate, produced by anaerobic glycolysis in muscles, is transported to the liver and converted to glucose, which then returns to the muscles and is cyclically metabolized back to lactate

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315
Q

BMI classes:

A

Healthy weight — BMI of 18.5-24.9 kg/m2.
Overweight — BMI of 25-29.9 kg/m2.
Obesity class 1 — BMI of 30-34.9 kg/m2.
Obesity class 2 — BMI of 35-39.9 kg/m2.
Obesity class 3 — BMI of 40 kg/m2 or more.

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316
Q

A 33-year-old woman is admitted with surgical wound infection after emergency
caesarean section for suspected fetal compromise. Culture of the wound demonstrates
methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). She has no known allergies. Which is
the most appropriate treatment?

A

Clindamycin and vancomycin

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317
Q

APGAR Score:

A

Activity Absent (0) Flexed limbs (1) Active (2)

Pulse Absent (0) <100 (1) >100 (2)

Grimace Floppy (0) Minimal response to stimuli (1) Prompt response to stimuli (2)

Appearance Pale/blue (0) Pink body + blue extremities (1) Pink (2)

Respiration Absent (0) Slow and irregular (1) Vigorous Cry (2)

Max score = 10

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318
Q

What is affected in Horner syndrome?

A

Loss of Sympathetic supply

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319
Q

What is the most common cause of cushing’s syndrome?

A

Iatrogenic Steroid Administration

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320
Q

Glucocorticoids are secreted from which region of the adrenal gland?

A

Zona fasciculata

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321
Q

Which cells produce mullerian-inhibiting substance in fetal testis?

A

Sertoli cells

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322
Q

Which enzyme found in red blood cells which buffers blood CO2?

A

Carbonic anhydrase

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323
Q

Urogram interpretation:

A

Detrusor muscle overactivity

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324
Q

Calculation of maternal mortality ratio:

A

(Number of maternal deaths / Number of live births) X 100,000

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325
Q

Calculation of perinatal mortality:

A

number of stillbirths (from 22 weeks) + deaths in the first week of life per 1,000 total births

Calculation: (stillbirths + neonatal deaths) / (live births + still births)

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326
Q

A 67-year-old woman attends for a preoperative assessment. She has been taking
bendroflumethiazide for several years for hypertension. Her ECG shows:

A

Hypokalaemia

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327
Q

A Couple with primary subfertility , who have been trying to conceive for over 12 months
, attends a reproductive medicine clinic , the male partner has already give a semen sample
for analysis which return back showing : 32 million spermatozoa , morphology >5 , vitality
>5% , live spermatozoa 63% , PH 7.2 , What is the correct interpretation of this result ?

A

Normal semen analysis

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328
Q

Regarding Insulin, it gets activated by removing ?

A

C-peptide

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329
Q

What represent the 2 axis of ROC curve ?

A

Sensitivity Vs 1-Specificity

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330
Q

What hormone secreted by placenta leading to fetal diuresis ?

A

Vasopressinase.

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331
Q

A 55 year old presents to clinic due to vulval itch and discolouration. examination reveals
pale white discoloured areas to the vulva. A biopsy shows epidermal atrophy with
subepidermal hyalinization and deeper inflammatory infiltrate. What is this characteristic of?

A

Lichen Sclerosus

332
Q

What is the Action of mRNA?

A

Transcription

333
Q

From Which structure inhibin is produced ?

A

Granulosa cells

334
Q

At what level ovarian artery arise?

A

L2

335
Q

Which of the muscles leaves the lesser pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen?

A

Piriformis

336
Q

To reduce postoperative pain after caesarean section, an obstetrician performs ilioinginaliliohypogastric
nerve block (IINB) on his 25-year-old patient. What is the nerve root of
ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerve?

A

L1

337
Q

What is the anatomical location of Bartholin’s gland?

A

Superficial perineal pouch

338
Q

What do the bottom and top represent on the box-and-whisker plot?

A

Lower and upper quartile

339
Q

Which hormone prevent regression of corpus luteum?

A

HCG

340
Q

A 14-year-old girl is treated with radiotherapy. Which of following tissues is most
radioresistant?

A

Cerebral nuerons

341
Q

Which pattern of endometrium do simple endometrial hyperplasia most likely resemble?

A

Proliferative endometrium

342
Q

Which class I major histocompatibility complex human leucocyte antigen (HLA) is
expressed only in extravillous trophoblast?

A

HLA-G

343
Q

Botulinum toxin is now used to treat neurogenic bladder because of its ability to

A

Inhibit the release of acetylcholine

344
Q

What is the embryonic origin of the trigone of urinary bladder?

A

Mesonephric duct

345
Q

In the development of the oocyte, when does the second meiotic division occur?

A

When sperm penetrates the zone pellucida

346
Q

A 28-year-old woman has undergone emergency hysterectomy due to obstetric
haemorrhage during her 3rd pregnancy. The previous pregnancies were both term C-section
deliveries. Examination of the uterus shows the placenta has not invaded the myometrium.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Placenta accreta

347
Q

The rate of growth hormone secretion follows a circardian rhythm. When is the highest
peak of growth hormone release?

A

Deep sleep

348
Q

The most biologically active form of vitamin D is

A

1, 25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol

349
Q

Which muscles form the pelvic diaphragm?

A

Levator ani and coccygeus

350
Q

A 23-year-old woman who is six weeks by dates is referred to EPU with vaginal
spotting, which continuous today. Ultrasound shows a fetal pole with a CRL of 4 mm. There
is no fetal heart action noted. The ovaries and adnexa appear normal. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A

Could be a viable pregnancy

351
Q

A 23-year-old woman attends the antenatal clinic in her first pregnancy. Booking bloods
reveal her Blood group O and her rhesus status to be cde/cde; her long-standing partner is
also tested at her request and his blood group A with rhesus status CDe/CDe. What is the
expected blood group of her fetus?

A

A positive or O positive

352
Q

The probability of sarcomatous change occurring in fibroid is

A

0.1%

353
Q

What part of the embryo is the origin of primordial germ cells?

A

Yolk sac endothelium

354
Q

The greater omentum is derived from which of the following embryonic structures?

A

Dorsal mesogastrium

355
Q

What electrolyte imbalance can cause paralytic ileus?

A

Hypokalemia

356
Q

Vasopressin act on increasing water re-absorption at

A

collecting duct

357
Q

Placement of cup during ventose delivery when the neck is flexed

A

Sagittal

358
Q

Schiller Duval Bodies is found in

A

endodermal sinus tumor

359
Q

Second line drugs in hyperemesis:

A

Metoclopramide, Ondansetron, Prochlorpromazine

360
Q

Most common endocrine disorder in reproductive age group

A

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

361
Q

Structural diagram to which carbon number base will attach? Check photo

A

1

362
Q

How much in the UK population has RH negative blood group?

A

15%

363
Q

In Horseshoe Kidney what is the structure preventing the kidney to ascend from pelvis
to abdomen?

A

inferior mesenteric a.

364
Q

Angle of the vagina with the horizontal while standing

A

60%

365
Q

Joint which resist horizontal rotation of the pelvis

A

Ileolumbar

366
Q

Two Most common dermatitis in pregnancy

A

Polymorphic (PUPP) + Obstetric Cholestasis

367
Q

Most common protozoan causes zoonotic infection(cerebral calcification, retinitis)

A

Toxoplasma

368
Q

Paroxetine is teratogenic to which organ

A

Cardiovascular system

369
Q

Which electrolyte is involved in central pontine mylenosis due to fluid overload?

A

Sodium

370
Q

Vitamin E toxicity

A

hemorrhage

371
Q

Origin of obturator artery

A

Internal Iliac

372
Q

At Term G2 wearing seat belt has car accident she has abdominal pain and consults you
for anti D

A

anti D 500iu

373
Q

Congenital conjunctivitis organism. Purulent discharge 36 hours after birth

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

374
Q

Piezoelectric used in

A

USS

375
Q

Transformation Zone

A

Squamous to glandular metaplasia

Change is: glandular epithelium replaced by squamous epithelium.

376
Q

Alternate complement pathway initiation

A

C3b

377
Q

Infertility case, Male 190 cm wt 60 kg, testicular volume 5 ml. What is the possible
karyotype

A

47xxy

378
Q

Target Hgb with oral and IV iron

A

0.8g/dl/ml

379
Q

18 y/o non penetrative intercourse, + painful ulcers in the vagina

A

Behchet’s disease

380
Q

Incomplete early miscarriage, bleeding PV, refuse surgical intervention.

A

Ergometrine

381
Q

HSG is done on what day of cycle

A

6-12

382
Q

In ECG, T wave represents

A

Ventricular repolarization

383
Q

Herpes simplex is what type of virus

A

DsDNA

384
Q

Abnormal LFTs, HbsAg -ve, HbeAg -ve, HbeAb +ve, HbsAb 3miu/hr,HbcAb +ve

A

Chronic infection ( low infectivity)

HBeAb reactive indicates your body has a high level of antibodies against the hepatitis B virus.

HbeAg It is an indicator of active viral replication; this means the person infected with Hepatitis B can likely transmit the virus on to another person.

385
Q

25 y/o first papsmear , low grade dyskaryosis, next step?

A

Repeat after 6 months

386
Q

Cauterization of large area with appearance of smoke

A

Fulguration

387
Q

Pregnancy rate with COCP if perfectly compliant and non perfectly compliant

A

0.1 perfectly compliant to 5-6 non-compliant

388
Q

INH (Isoniazid) Metabolism is by

A

Acetylation

389
Q

Risk of VTE with COCP?

A

3–9 per 10,000 people/ yr

390
Q

Muscles of internal sphincter derived from?

A

Circular Muscle

391
Q

Cardiac output after delivery

A

60-80%

392
Q

Where does the inferior rectal vein drain?

A

Internal pudendal vein

393
Q

IUD+ Pregnancy. What is the risk of Ectopic Pregnancy

A

1/20

394
Q

Cannon bell mets associated with which tumor marker?

A

HCG
cannonball metastases is classically seen in germ cell tumor, choriocarcinoma and endometrial cancer.

395
Q

Rate of miscarriage in couples with balanced translocation?

A

2-5%

396
Q

Lifelong immunity

A

Adaptive

397
Q

AMENORRHEA with raised TSH, FSH, LH - what is the cause?

A

Premature ovarian failure

398
Q

Which screening test has high negative predictive value for detection of pre-term pre-labour rupture of membranes?

A

Fetal fibronectin test

399
Q

The epithelial lining of cervix exterior to transformation zone is whcih tissue time?

A

stratified squamous non-keratinized

400
Q

Level of the gonadal artery

A

L2

401
Q

During the inflammatory phase of wound healing what is the predominant cell type
found in the wound during the first 48 hours?

A

PMNs

402
Q

Glucose transported across the placenta via?

A

Facilitated Diffusion

403
Q

Gonads are derived from which embryonic layer?

A

Intermediate Mesoderm

404
Q

Which of the following is true for a patient whose pre-transfusion blood type is group
O?

A
  • AB antigen +ve Anti A and Anti B antibodies
405
Q

Which immunoglobulin is a key to passive neonatal immunity?

A

IgG

406
Q

What is the normal rate of urine output per hour?

A

0.5ml/kg/hr

407
Q

Tetanus toxoid vaccine

A

Toxoided protein

408
Q

Which clotting factors are unchanged in pregnancy?

A

Factors 11 + 13

409
Q

Which kind of cells secrete calcitonin hormone?

A

Parafollicular cells

410
Q

What type of cell is a natural killer cell?

A

Lymphocyte

411
Q

80 y/o no subjective complaints came in for pessary change then with profuse vaginal
discharge. Culture result moderate beta hemolytic streptococcus with coliform and anaerobic
bacteria .

A

Metronidazole + Clindamycin p.o. X 7 days

412
Q

Why ramifentanyl used in patient controlled analgesia?

A

Short acting easily metabolized by serum esterase
191.

413
Q

Patient Hypertensive, Gravida 2 in labor 4cm dilated, membranes ruptured
spontaneously clear liquor, CTG showed Baseline FHR 120-130 bpm, good beat to beat
variability, no acceleration, no deceleration. She was on Oxytocin. After 2 hours, Baseline

A

FBS

414
Q

Diagonal conjugate is the only diameter that can be measured clinically. How is it
measured ?

A

From Lower border of Symphsis pubis to sacral promontory.

415
Q

During which phase DNA synthesis and chromosome duplication take place

A

S phase

416
Q

Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is

A

Adenomyosis

417
Q

Which of the following depression screening questionnaire are frequently used during
pregnancy?

A

Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale

418
Q

Pain due to ovarian irritation is felt through which spinal segment ?

A

T10

419
Q

In which phase of oocyte development does zona pellucida apear around ovum ?

A

primary oocyte

420
Q

Which adverse reaction is common and usually dose related in patients taking misoprostol?

A

Diarrhea

421
Q

Terbutaline has the following mechanism of action

A

Beta 2 agonist

422
Q

The ureteric buds is derived from which of the following structures ?

A

Mesonephric duct

423
Q

Allantois embryonic origin

A

Endoderm

424
Q

Which of the following antibodies is found as a dimer?

A

IgA

425
Q

Magnesium excretion

A

Excreted Unchanged in urine

426
Q

Vitamin A has 2 diet sources. Plant source is carotene and the animal source is…

A

vitamin A is found as retinol, the ‘active’ form of vitamin A. Liver, including fish liver, is a very good source.

427
Q

Klinefelter’s Syndrome karotype

A

47,XXY

428
Q

Case of a male with azoospermia and loss of smell(anosmia) diagnosis?

A

Kallman’s Syndrome

429
Q

A 30 year old women comes to see you and advises she has felt a little unwell with
diarrhoea and flu like symptoms. She is 28 weeks pregnant. A blood culture confirms listeria
infection. What is the appropriate treatment (she has no known dug allergies)?

A

Amoxicillin

430
Q

CNS is the most affected during teratogenesis. What is the first sensation developed in the
fetus?

A

Touch

431
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Dibagatran?

A

Thrombin inhibitor

432
Q

Warfarin acts where in the clotting cascade

A

factor V precursor

433
Q

Pyramidalis is supplied by which nerve?

A

Subcostal nerve

434
Q

The pathway of piriformis muscle??

A

Pelvic surface of sacrum,greater sciatic notch,greater trochanter

435
Q

Which hormone has a structure similar to Prolactin?

A

Growth Hormone

436
Q

Reciprocal translocation

A

occur when part of one chromosome is exchanged with another.

437
Q

Robertsonian translocation

A

one in which, effectively, the whole of a chromosome is joined end to end with another. This type of translocation involves only chromosomes 13, 14, 15, 21 and 22

438
Q

Coronal suture is located in?

A

between frontal and parietal

439
Q

A pregnant woman desires screening test for down’s syndrome and the following report is
obtained :
Age related risk; 1:1000MoM
AFP; 1.05MoM
β-hCG; 0.85
Test risk; 1:10000
What will you counsel this woman?

A

It is low risk for down’s syndrome

440
Q

LDH elevates in which type of ovarian ca ?

A

Dysgerminoma

441
Q

Infection with which one of the following human papillomaviruses (HPVs) is associated with
an increased risk of cervical cancer?

A

HPV 33

442
Q

Which group of viruses cause molluscum contagiosum?

A

Pox virus

443
Q

Which enzyme is present in granulosa cells but not in theca cells?

A

Aromatase

444
Q

Where in body is androgen produced?

A

Zona reticularis

445
Q

Mother has sickle cell disease married to sickle cell trait husband chance of baby to
having disease?

A

50%

446
Q

Aspirin and ibuprofen what is the difference in action?

A

Aspirin Irreversibly inhibit COX 1 and is more selective towards COX 1 than ibuprofen

447
Q

Grade A recommendation of RCOG means

A

at least one randomized controlled trial

448
Q

Sigmoid Colon - arterial supply + lymph drainage

A

Inf Mesenteric AND pre aortic LN

449
Q

Drugs readily cross the placenta because of which quality?

A

High lipid solubility

450
Q

HIV positive patient came with ruptured membranes 38 weeks. Already on HAART. Viral
copies 1450. Management?

A

Category 3 CS with IV Zidovudine

451
Q

Macrophages are derived from what type of cell?

A

Monocytes

452
Q

From which organ / system does the Krukenberg tumor of the ovaries originate from?

A

GIT

453
Q

What type of variable is BMI ?

A

Continuous

454
Q

Categorical variable

A

Categorical variable
Categorical variables contain a finite number of categories or distinct groups. Categorical data might not have a logical order. For example, categorical predictors include gender, material type, and payment method.

455
Q

Discrete variable

A

Discrete variables are numeric variables that have a countable number of values between any two values. A discrete variable is always numeric. For example, the number of customer complaints or the number of flaws or defects.

456
Q

Continuous variables

A

Continuous variables are numeric variables that have an infinite number of values between any two values. A continuous variable can be numeric or date/time. For example, the length of a part or BMI.

457
Q

Half life of Mifepristone?

A

25 to 30 hours

458
Q

In pregnancy, what is the total percentage increase in plasma volume by term compared to
a non-pregnant woman?

A

30 to 50%

459
Q

Motor fibers to detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder are derived from which of the
following nerves?

A

Pelvic splanchnic

460
Q

During laparoscopy, the remnant of theumbilical artery could be identified sometimes the
it is patent. In the adult the patent segment supplies which vessel?

A

superior vesical

461
Q

Which is the most common cause of the premature ovarian failure?

A

idiopathic

462
Q

A male came for infertility check up who was taking Finasteride for treatment of his male
pattern baldness. Finasteride exert its action by inhibition of which enzyme?

A

5-alpha reductase

463
Q

The enzyme involve in the final oxidation of uric acid?

A

xanthine oxidase

464
Q

Most enzymes that take part in Kreb’s cycle are located in?

A

mitochondria

465
Q

Which is precursor of dopamine/catecholamines? .

A

Tyrosine.

466
Q

What is the most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding?

A

Atrophic vaginitis and endometritis

467
Q

What is the function of DNA polymerase?

A

DNA repair

468
Q

Which of the following ovarian Cysts most prone to undergo Torsion ?

A

Dermoid cyst

469
Q

Patient came in with abdominal pain with history of heavy and painful periods. Exlap was
done which revealed the following:

A

Ovarian Endometrioma

470
Q

Telogen Effluvium (hair loss) is more pronounced in what stage of pregnancy?

A

after delivery

471
Q

Natural Killer Cells(NK) is increased significantly at which stage of menstrual cycle?

A

late secretory

472
Q

Sympathetic supply of bladder largely comes from which nerve?

A

Hypogastric +Inferior gluteal nerve

473
Q

Which structure in female is homologus to male prostate?

A

Skenes gland

474
Q

Rate limiting step in the synthesis of catecholamines?

A

tyrosine hydroxyla

475
Q

The anesthesiologist wanted to anesthesize the anterior andomen using TAP block. In this
procedure where are the nerves mostly located?

A

between internal oblique and transversus abdominis

476
Q

What is the chemical structure of Renin?

A

Protein

477
Q

The difference between the peak and the throughs of ultrasound wave is called?

A

Amplitude

478
Q

There are 3 components of interaction of ultrasound with the tissue medium: absorption,
scattering, and the third one is…

A

reflection

479
Q

Blood supply to the medial part of the anterior abdominal wall below the umbilicus?

A

Inferior epigastric artery

480
Q

A primigravida at 22 weeks is scared to have vaginal delivery. On examination she had
absent clitoris and normal labia majora. What type of genital mutilation is it?

A

Type 1 = (clitoridectomy) – removing part or all of the clitoris
Type 2 = (excision) – removing part or all of the clitoris and the inner labia (the lips that surround the vagina), with or without removal of the labia majora (the larger outer lips)

Type 3 = (infibulation) – narrowing the vaginal opening by creating a seal, formed by cutting and repositioning the labia

Type IV – Other

.All other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, eg, pricking, piercing, incising, scraping and cauterising (burning) the genital area..

481
Q

Ovarian CA associated with mutation of mismatch repair genes

A

endometriod CA

482
Q

What type of necrosis is seen in the heart after an acute myocardial infarction?

A

Coagulative necrosis

483
Q

Physiological variation in menstrual cycle between 21 to 35 days due to

A

estrogen fails to produce positive feedback on pituitary

484
Q

A 60-year-old woman with stage IIB cervical cancer is currently undergoing radiotherapy
by impact of gamma-emitting isotopes containing Casieum 137 on her vagina. This type of
therapy is best described by which of the following terms?

A

Brachytherapy

485
Q

Where is prolactin produced that is not under dopaminergic control?

A

maternal decidua

486
Q

You see a patient who is 35 weeks pregnant in your day assessment unit. She presents
with itching… more on the area of the abdominal striae. Lab results given which showed
normal ALP, normal bilirubin levels. Diagnosis?

A

Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy

487
Q

27-year-old woman after normal vaginal birth develops shortness of birth and seizures.
Despite resuscitation she died. At autopsy squamous cells and fetal hair are found in lungs.
What is the most likely cause of death?

A

Amniotic fluid embolism

488
Q

Which one of the following bacteria produces an exotoxin causing ‘toxic shock
syndrome’?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

489
Q

Which organism is the most common cause of sepsis in pregnancy?

A

Group A Streptococcus

490
Q

A lady was injured while walking in the garden barefoot. After that she developed
cellulitis.. What’s the possible cause?

A

Stap aureus

491
Q

There is difficulty in extracting blood in the upper arm, the intern decided to extract
from the femoral vein. What is the relation of the femoral vein to the artery and nerve from
lateral to medial?

A

Lateral - NAVY - medial

492
Q

Most important complement in opsonization

A

C3b

493
Q

23-year-old woman presents with fishy foul smelling vaginal odour. ‘Clue cells’ are found
in the smear. Which of the following cell types is belong to ‘Clue cells’?

A

Epithelial cells

494
Q

A 28-year-old woman with complete hydatidiform mole is found to have
bilateral multiple tiny ovarian cysts along with an enlarged uterus at 12 weeks’ gestational
age. The quantitative β-hCG level of 300,000 mIU/mL.What is the most likely type of these
ovarian cysts?

A

Theca lutein cyst

495
Q

What is the most common cause of acromegaly?

A

Pituitary adenoma

496
Q

Labetalol is:

A

Non selective beta blocker

497
Q

What is the mechanism of action of hydralazine?

A

Direct acting smooth muscle relaxant

498
Q

A woman experiences a postpartum hemorrhage after delivery and is administrated
carboprost to promote uterine contraction. What type of drug is carboprost?

A

prostaglandin F2

499
Q

Patient has heavy menstrual bleeding. She desires an endometrial ablation to stop
bleeding after failure of medical treatment. Which part of the uterus is destructed to stop
bleeding?

A

Basal layer of endometrium

500
Q

A 28-year-old woman has undergone emergency hysterectomy due to obstetric
haemorrhage during her 3rd pregnancy. The previous pregnancies were both term Csection
deliveries. Examination of the uterus shows the placenta had invaded through
the full thickness of the myometrium. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Placenta increta

501
Q

What is the new non invasive prenatal diagnostic test of cell-free fetal DNA of maternal
blood derived from?

A

Placental Trophoblast

502
Q

Which of the option correctly identified the embryological origin beginning and ending of
the round ligament of the uterus?

A

Gubernaculum ovarii , ant surface of uterine cornua, labia majus

503
Q

The most common site of endometriosis is?

A

ovary

504
Q

Which neoplasm is characteristically associated with paraneoplastic syndrome of
inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

A

Small cell lung carcinoma

505
Q

Which types of cells are phagocytic for residual bodies left over from the process of
spermiogenesis?

A

Sertoli cells

506
Q

Insensible loss of water from sweat and lungs in 70 yr old healthy woman is

A

450ml/kg

507
Q

Which kind of cell produce parathyroid hormone?

A

chief cells

508
Q

Which chromosomes are capable of robertsonian translocations?

A

13, 14, 15, 21, 22

509
Q

Which signaling molecule that stimulate the renin-angiotensin system to regulate the
sodium concentration?

A

Aldosterone

510
Q

Woman climbed up the hill with her friends suddenly felt breathless plus parasthesia in
her hands. What is the acid-base imbalance ?

A

Respiratory alkalosis

511
Q

What type of acid–base disturbance result in a case of Conn’s syndrome?

A

Metabolic alkalosis

512
Q

Trichomonas Vaginalis is what kind of protozoa?

A

flagelated protozoan

513
Q

174.25 y/o had lscs at term for breech presentation with spinal anesthesia After what time
you start low dose molecular heparin(LMWH)

A

No need for treatment only hydration and mobilization

514
Q

VIN3 is caused by which organism ?

A

HPV 16

515
Q

Zika virus is

A

Ss RNA

516
Q

Thrombosis in protein C deficiency is due to

A

Factor 5 and 8a

517
Q

Transport of iodide in the cells is associated with

A

Sodium

518
Q

Renal Calculus referred pain

A

Lumbar region

519
Q

CAH is caused by 21 hydroxylase the remaining is due to?

A

11b- hydroxylase

520
Q

Embryonic origin of oocytes

A

primordial germ cell

521
Q

Definition of Tidal Volume

A

amount of air that goes in and out of the lungs during normal respiration

522
Q

What type of compound is Histones?

A

Protein

523
Q

Most important function of Vitamin C

A

collagen formation

524
Q

Indirect Inguinal Hernia is lateral to which arteries?

A

inferior epigastric arteries

525
Q

Cells in the body produce hormones among them how many are lactotrophs?

A

10-15%

526
Q

What is the most common cause of endogenous Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Pituitary adenoma

527
Q

Trophoblast cells that invade the lumen of spiral arteries

A

endovascular trophoblast

528
Q

HPV proliferate in?

A

Basal Cell of endometrium

529
Q

Regarding Influenza vaccine , what type of vaccine?

A

Organism Subunit vaccine + inactivated

530
Q

Which drug antagonises the action of oxytocin?

A

Atosiban

531
Q

Misoprostol is analogue of which?

A

PGE1

532
Q

Urea transfer from fetal circulation to maternal circulation?

A

Passive diffusion

533
Q

Which class of immunoglobulin is primarily secreted in breast milk and protects the infant’s intestinal mucosa from infection?

A

IgA

534
Q

which Immunoglobin is a pentamer?

A

IgM

535
Q

What day of a regular 25-day menstrual cycle is a woman likely to ovulate?

A

11

536
Q

A 32-year-old woman 7 weeks pregnant. Her Chlamydia swab is positive. Which is the single most appropriate treatment?

A

Erythromycin 500 QDS

537
Q

Which anti-emetic drug has extrapyramidal side effect?

A

Metoclopramide

538
Q

Pregnant women with Nausea and vomiting. Which fluid should not be given?

A

5% dextrose

539
Q

Mechanism of action of ondansetrone?

A

Seretonin HT3

540
Q

A Doctor is making a discharge summary for a women who underwent a laparoscopic saplingo-oophorectomy for Ectopic pregnancy after 4days. You realise that her blood group is O-. What is the best course of action?

A

Check Partner Blood group & Rh

541
Q

A 19-year-old woman gives birth to her first child. She begins breast feeding the infant. She continues breast feeding for almost a year with no difficulties and no complications. Which of the following cellular processes that occurred in the breast during pregnancy allowed her to nurse the infant for this period of time?

A

Lobular hyperplasia

542
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)?

A

X-linked Recessive

542
Q

When should the prophylactic dose of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) be given post-c-section?

A

12 hours

543
Q

Remifentanil is an ideal controlled analgesia during labour because

A

It is rapidly metabolized by tissue estrases

544
Q

Lancefield grouping of streptococci is based on the presence of ?

A

Carbohydrate antigen on cell wall

545
Q

Mechanism of action of Neostigmine is

A

Anticholinesterase

546
Q

Coumarin drug antagonise which vitamin?

A

Vitamin K

547
Q

Which structures passes through the lesser sciatic foramen?

A

Tendon of obturator internus muscle

548
Q

Which Antineoplastic drugs causing hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

Cyclophosphamide

549
Q

Mechanism of action of ulipristal acetate ?

A

Selective progesterone receptor modulator

550
Q

A girl presented to your clinic requesting emergency contraception. LMP 20days ago. h/o unprotected intercourse 7days ago for which she took levonorgestrel. The couple had regular intercourse since then and last night the condom had breeched. What is the best course for action?

A

No need for additional contraception as levonorgestrel already inhibited ovulation this cycle

551
Q

The following image from ICSI procedure .

A

First polar body.

552
Q

Side effect of Aminoglycosides is mainly by affection of which of the following nerves?

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve ( 8th)

553
Q

Regarding Breech presentation, What is the Bi-trochanteric diameter?

A

10 cm

554
Q

The most common in Utero infection causing fetal anemia in the UK is

A

Parvovirus B19

555
Q

A 20 week GA women with h/o recent travel to India, presents with fever, chills. Blood test falciparum Vivax +VE. Best treatment?

A

Choloroquine

556
Q

The Lowest acceptable Hb in second trimester?

A

10.5 g/dl

557
Q

Pregnant women when exposed to sun, get pigmentation on cheeks & face?

A

Melasma

558
Q

Mechanism of Action of Indomethacin?

A

Cyclo-oxygenase Inhibitor

559
Q

Which of the following regions is represented by the arrows ?

A

Amniotic cavity

560
Q

What is Evidence based medicine?

A

Using current guidelines for treating individual patients.

561
Q

During laparoscopy you visualize medial umbilical folds. what structure it contains?

A

Medial Umbilical ligament

562
Q

What is the source for premenopausal Oestrogen secretion?

A

Granulosa cells

563
Q

41 years old women presents to clinic Complaining of galactorrhea. Labs show: FSH, LH and TSH raised.

A

Hypothyroidism

564
Q

80 years old women presents to clinic with dysuria, on Examination you notice a growth at urethral orifice exophytic with well circumscribed edges?

A

Uretheral caruncle

565
Q

which clotting factor does not rise in pregnancy?

A

XI & XIII

566
Q

You see a patient in antenatal clinic who is 14 week pregnant and is worried. Her 3 year old son has chicken pox. she does not remember if she had chicken pox in past? her lab reports are as follows: Varicella IgG negative Varicella IgM negative

A

She is not immune to Chicken pox

567
Q

Which cells secrete histamine and serotonin?

A

Basophils

568
Q

Which Type of Ovarian cancer occurs which BRCA 1 mutation ?

A

papillary serous cystadenocarinoma.

569
Q

Regarding Varicella Zoster , What its infectivity period?

A

2 days before rash until the crust appear.

570
Q

Gestation age is which type of data?

A

Interval

571
Q

Which type of electrosurgical circuits is safest in theatres?

A

Patient is Attached to pad

572
Q

The deep circumflex iliac artery is a branch of which artery?

A

External iliac artery

573
Q

Glucocorticoids are secreted from which region of the adrenal gland?

A

Zona fasciculate

574
Q

Which of the following essential amino acids not found in OMEGA 3 and should be taken from dietry intake ?

A

α-Linoliec acid

575
Q

Cervical cancer incidence in UK ?

A

1/3000

576
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Trimethoprim ?

A

Inhibit dihydrofolate reductase enzyme
Acts on nucleic acid

577
Q

Post-operatively , the nurse noticed an area of burn near attached diathermy plate , what is the mechanism of injury ?

A

High frequency current focused on small area.

578
Q

What is the measurement of Anteroposterior diameter of pelvic inlet in Engagement ?

A

11cm

579
Q

What is the site of production of Thromboxane A2 ?

A

Platelets.

580
Q

What is the site where Urea cycle occurs ?

A

Liver.

581
Q

What is the Nerve that most commonly injured during Gynecological laparotomy ?

A

Obturator nerve.

582
Q

The Umbilical artery is branch of ?

A

Anterior division of internal iliac artery.

583
Q

What is the best investigation to detect receptor status in breast cancer?

A

Immuno-histochemistry

584
Q

Regarding OOCYTE , when the second meiotic division is completed ?

A

fertilization

585
Q

Regarding Wound healing process , what is the first stage ?

A

Hemostasis.

586
Q

Regarding inferior vesical artery , where does it come from ?

A

Anterior division of internal iliac artery.

587
Q

A 22-year-old primiparous woman books her pregnancy at 11 weeks’ gestation. Her booking blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 10.1 g/dL. Electrophoresis reveals haemoglobin karyotype HbAS.

A

Sickle cell trait

588
Q

A study design is made with a Power sensitivity 90% and P = 0.05 .
What is the chance of type 2 error ?

A

10%

589
Q

describe Tidal volume ?

A

The normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation(in and out ) when extra effort is not applied

590
Q

A 28 years old women undergoing a D&C for a missed abortion , develop pain on cervical dilatation , what is the nerve supply of cervix ?

A

Pelvic splanchnic nerve.

591
Q

A condition where the uterus is bulky and endometrial glands are in myometrium is called ?

A

Adenomyosis

592
Q

From what structure does ligamentum Arteriosus come from?

A

Ductus arteriosus

593
Q

What is the incidence of pregnancies complicating by cancer ?

A

1/1000

594
Q

Which enzymes used in Transcription ?

A

RNA Polymerase.

595
Q

What is the Direct arterial blood supply of decidua ?

A

Spiral arteries.

596
Q

What is the component of Placental barrier at term pregnancy?

A

Syncitiotrophoblast and Endothelium

597
Q

Regarding sex differentiation , at what gestational age does the External genitalia of male and female is Identical/ remain undifferentiated?

A

6 weeks

598
Q

Which of the following is male homologous of bartholin gland ?

A

Bulbouretheral gland ( Cowper’s gland )

599
Q

What hormone secreted by placenta leading to fetal diuresis ?

A

Vasopressinase.

600
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters secreted onto adrenal medulla?

A

Acetylcholine

601
Q

A Multiparous women with prolapse , which muscle is most likely to be injured ?

A

Pubococcygeus.

602
Q

What is the site of production of Ammonia ?

A

Kidneys

603
Q

55 year old presents to clinic due to vulval itch and discolouration. examination reveals pale white discoloured areas to the vulva.
A biopsy shows epidermal atrophy with subepidermal hyalinization and deeper inflammatory infiltrate.
What is this characteristic of?

A

Lichen Sclerosus

604
Q

What is the most common solid benign tumour of ovary ?

A

Benign teratoma

605
Q

A Patient come complaining of a groin pain , a ureteric stone is suspected and Xray is requested , at what level you would expect to see the stone ?

A

Pelvic brim

606
Q

What is the Action of mRNA ?

A

Transcription

607
Q

From Which structure inhibin is produced ?

A

Granulosa cells

608
Q

Which of the following cells is considered the basis for the adaptive immune system?

A

Lymphocytes

609
Q

Which Immunoglobulin is a Dimer ?

A

IgA

610
Q

Diagram order of structures - inferior epigastric/medial umbilical/ median umbilical

A

See picture!

611
Q

What vein arises from the femoral vein and can get injured in subcutaneous tissue during suprapubic insertion?

A

superficial epigastric vein

612
Q

Superior vesical artery is a direct branch from:

A

Umbilical artery (branch from anterior division internal iliac)

613
Q

Which artery is most commonly absent?

A

Middle rectal artery

614
Q

At what point is the aortic bifurcation?

A

Highest point on iliac crests

615
Q

Ventouse is applied to which suture?

A

Sagittal suture

616
Q

What is the post-menopausal uterine body:cervical ratio?

A

1:1

617
Q

What is the embryological origin of the bladder trigone?

A

mesoderm derived wolffian ducts

618
Q

At 4 weeks, germ cells are present where?

A

Yolk sac

619
Q

Which cells invade spiral arteries?

A

Extravillous trophoblasts

620
Q

What is PCR used for?

A

DNA amplification

621
Q

What is northern blot used for?

A

Identify RNA sequences

622
Q

What is southern blot used for?

A

Identify DNA sequences

623
Q

Acute hyperventilation of the mother can cause what sort of fetal acid-base disturbance?

A

may lead to the development of fetal metabolic acidosis because it induces uterine vasoconstriction

624
Q

Where does paracrine action occur?

A

Adjacent cells : Paracrine signaling in which cells communicate over relatively short distances by the release (secretion) of small signaling molecules onto nearby cells

625
Q

Which protein forms gap junctions?

A

Connexins

626
Q

What causes pellagra (dermatitis, diarrhoea, and mental disturbance/dementia)?

A

Niacin (B3) deficiency?

627
Q

Which enzyme works in the urea cycle?

A

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

628
Q

What is the mechanism of action behind oxytocin causes uterine contractions?

A

Increase in intracellular calcium

629
Q

Which cells are involved in wound remodeling?

A

Myofibroblasts

630
Q

postmenopausal woman with ovarian cyst of 5cm - what tumor markers?

A

None needed - Women with simple ovarian cysts of 50-70 mm in diameter should have yearly ultrasound follow-up and those with larger simple cysts should be considered for either further imaging (MRI) or surgical intervention’

631
Q

What kind of damage does pre-eclampsia cause?

A

Vascular endothelial damage

632
Q

What is the epithelium outside of the cervical transformation zone?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

633
Q

When is the peak GFR in pregnancy?

A

13 weeks (Renal plasma flow increases by 50-70% in pregnancy), urea + creatinine levels are decreased

634
Q

When does HCG peak?

A

12 weeks

635
Q

When does HPL plateau?

A

35 weeks (3rd trimester)

636
Q

What is the major Hb at 32 weeks?

A

HbF

637
Q

When does adult Hb production start?

A

28 weeks

638
Q

What is the increase in total/minute ventilation during pregnancy?

A

40-50%

639
Q

What are the causative agents of bacterial vaginosis?

A

Gardenella Vaginalis, Mycoplasma genitalium, (third one except trichomonalis)

640
Q

Syphilis patient with positive EIA + TPPA and VDRL test with titre 1:2 (initial titre 1:120). What does this mean?

A

VDRL used to monitor for re-infection of syphilis or inadequate treatment, but patients might have low levels and not have condition. VDRL do not detect antibodies specific for
syphilis. This is likely past infection that was well treated.

641
Q

When is the test for cure in gonorrhea?

A

14 days

642
Q

Flu like symptoms in the mother and then baby has rash, hepatosplenomegaly and jaundice. condition?

A

Listerosis

643
Q

Trichomonas in pregnancy should be treated with what?

A

Metronidazole

644
Q

What type of bacteria is chlamydia?

A

gram-negative, anaerobic, intracellular obligates that replicate within eukaryotic cells

645
Q

HBsAG -ve
HbsAB +ve
HBcAB +ve
HbeAB +ve
Diagnosis?

A

Previous infection

HbsAG = current infection acute or chronic
HbsAB (anti HBS) = immunity due to infection/vaccination
HBcAB (anti HBC) = indicates current or past infection
HBeAB = indicates your body has a high level of antibodies against the hepatitis B virus.

646
Q

Peptide chains in IGG?

A

2, 4

647
Q

Antigen-antibody complexes are formed in which pathway?

A

classical pathway

648
Q

Image of direct coombs test

A

Antibodies are on RBCs

649
Q

What is the function of parathyroid hormone?

A

Decrease excretion of calcium

650
Q

What is the immediate pre-cursor of testosterone?

A

Androstenedione (+ Cholesterol)

651
Q

how many sequences do the TRH precursors have?

A

6

652
Q

Where is HPL produced?

A

Synctiotrophoblast

653
Q

What has direct action on aldosterone?

A

Angiotensin 2

654
Q

What is the main regulator of sodium?

A

Aldosterone

655
Q

Where is ADH + oxytocin synthesized?

A

Supraoptic + paraventricular nucleus of hypothalamus

656
Q

Main tumor causing hyperprolactinemia?

A

Adenoma

657
Q

Where is prolactin produced?

A

Maternal decidua

658
Q

Other than breast and ovary, what cancer is associated with the BRCA gene?

A

Pancreas

659
Q

What is a low risk screening for down’s syndrome?

A

1:10,000

660
Q

Oxybutynin side effects include:

A

Dry mouth, dry eyes, hypohidrosis

661
Q

Nature of Mifepristone:

A

Anti-progesterone

662
Q

Patient came 8 days after UPSI on Day 16 of her cycle. Which emergency contraception can she use?

A

No contraception effective

663
Q

Missed single dose COCP - advice?

A

Take missed pill + continue rest of pack

664
Q

Method of action of the POP?

A

Thickens cervical mucus

665
Q

Method of action of the IUD/copper IUD?

A

Inhibits implantation by altering endometrium + inhibition of sperm entry/ inhibits fertilization

666
Q

What is dinoprostone?

A

PGE2 analogue

667
Q

What is the method of action of botox?

A

Inhibits release of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junction.

668
Q

Therapeutic dose of LMWH - after how many hours is anesthesia safe?

A

24 hours

669
Q

Recreational drug use causing placental abruption?

A

Cocaine

670
Q

Tocolytic which prevents calcium influx?

A

Nifedipine

671
Q

Hepatitis C advice for breastfeeding

A

Can breastfeed but pump if nipples cracked/bleeding

672
Q

Diagnosis of diabetes in pregnancy?

A

FBS = 5.6 or above
2-hour post prandial sugar = 7.8 or above

673
Q

Chicken pox + rash management

A

STAT Aciclovir

Oral aciclovir should be prescribed for pregnant women with chickenpox if they present within 24 hours of the onset of the rash and if they are 20+0 weeks of gestation or beyond. Use of aciclovir before 20+0 weeks should also be considered
VZIG has no therapeutic benefit once chickenpox has developed and should therefore not be used in pregnant women who have developed a chickenpox rash.

674
Q

If varicella IgG negative and IgM positive, what does this mean?

A

Acquired varicella infection

675
Q

LMP 1st march with 35 day cycle. what is EDD?

A

15 december

Calculate due date: first day of LMP then subtract 3 months + add 1 year and 7 days + add difference from 28 day cycle (35- 28 = additional 7 days)

676
Q

Intraoperative cell salvage during CS blood loss?

A

20% blood loss

677
Q

Patient on anti-epileptics and contraception of choice?

A

IUS

678
Q

Ductus venosus connects:

A

umbilical vein + inferior vena cava

679
Q

PCOS biochemistry includes:

A

Insulin increases
Estradiol decreases
SHBG decreases
Leptin decreases

680
Q

Incidence of 45XO + its mosaicism?

A

1:3000

681
Q

Mode of inheritance for blood groups?

A

Co-dominant

682
Q

Which receptor does nicotine bind to that affects neurotransmitter in foetus

A

Acetylcholine

683
Q

Function of BRCA

A

Tumour suppressor gene

684
Q

Coagulation factors that increase during pregnancy

A

Factor VII, VIII, IX, X, plasminogen

685
Q

Structure lateral to internal iliac artery

A

Ureter

686
Q

Ovary originates from:

A

Mesoderm

687
Q

Cleft palate results from:

A

Failure of development of 1st pharyngeal arch

688
Q

Derivatives of 2nd pharyngeal arch:

A

stapedial artery, epiglottis, facial nerve

689
Q

Proximal internal carotid artery derived from :

A

3rd pharyngeal arch

690
Q

Phosphate excreted by:

A

Kidneys

691
Q

Site where active form of Vit D produced :

A

Kidney

692
Q

Nerve supply to structure below umbilicus :

A

Inferior hypogastric nerve

693
Q

You intend to prescribe COCP to 4 wks postpartum woman, not breastfeeding. How long should additional contraception be used:

A

7 days

694
Q

Source of Vit K1 :

A

Leafy green vegetables

695
Q

Pt came with fever, abdominal pain, hypotension, tachycardia. Worsening of sepsis and inflammation in pregnancy due to :

A

Up regulation of nitric oxide and PG

696
Q

Screening test for iron deficiency anaemia :

A

Serum iron

697
Q

40% of pt with PCOS have hyperprolactinemia because?

A

Estradiol excess leading to hyperprolactinemia

698
Q

Pregnancy 3 fold increase cortisol. Mechanism :

A

Cortisol increased by increased unopposed oestrogens

699
Q

Prolactin levels in pregnancy compared to pre-pregnancy :

A

50 fold increase (20-50 folds)

700
Q

Structure passing through deep inguinal ring visualised easily on laparoscopy :

A

Round ligament

701
Q

Ligament arising from lateral border of cervix and attached to endopelvic fascia :

A

Cardinal ligament

702
Q

Structure supplying majority of midgut branches from aorta at which level?

A

L1

703
Q

Structure supplying majority of hindgut branches from aorta at which level?

A

L3

704
Q

Main blood supply of transverse colon :

A

Middle colic artery

705
Q

Sutures enclosing largest fontanelle :

A

Frontal, coronal, saggital

706
Q

Diameter(s) widest in mid pelvis :

A

AP, oblique, transverse

707
Q

Foetus born with absence of mastoid process. Which structure is at increased risk of damage during delivery :

A

CN VII

708
Q

Alcohol group attached to which carbon atom of prostaglandin structure :

A

C 20/ C15 (best answer)

709
Q

Name the structure (picture)

A

Colle’s fascia

710
Q

Term for condition in which statistical difference occurs purely by chance :

A

Type I error

711
Q

Major estrogen produced by placenta :

A

Estriol

712
Q

Healthy normal adult, what is the response to a fall in blood glucose :

A

Decreased insulin, increased glucagon

713
Q

Type of treatment where a device is inserted into vagina to deliver radioactive substance :

A

Brachytherapy

714
Q

Type of electrosurgery used in laparoscopy where a pad is placed on patient :

A

Monopolar diathermy

715
Q

USG phase with best resolution :

A

Axial

716
Q

USG process causing lysis of cell and damage :

A

Heating/cavitation

717
Q

Pt with underlying Chron’s disease presented with had numbness. Had hx of bowel resection. Hb 10.5, MCV 122. Likely cause of symptoms :

A

Vit B12 deficiency

718
Q

Pt complained of perioral numbness and spasm over upper limbs. *Diagram showed pic of ECG : Prolonged QT interval. Likely electrolyte abnormality :

A

Hypocalcemia

719
Q

Hepadnavirus containing DNA, can be transmitted via needle sharing, blood transfusion :

A

Hepatitis B

720
Q

Lady with generalised fatigue. Non-pregnant. Done LFT
ALP 230 ( raised ). ALT, GGT, Alb, Bili within normal range. Possible dx :

A

Vitamin D deficiency

721
Q

Best sample for dx of chlamydia :

A

Endocervical swab

722
Q

Features of neonatal herpes :

A

pneumonitis + mucous membrane vesicles

723
Q

Dx criteria in Amsel’s criteria :

A

clue cells on wet mount, vaginal pH >4.5, amine odor when vaginal fluid is exposed to 10% potassium hydroxide, and abnormal vaginal discharge.

724
Q

Absolute contratindication in pt with hx of pulmonary embolism :

A

COCP

725
Q

20 y/o, had large complex ovarian cyst 30cm. Suggested tumour markers :

A

Ca-125
LDH
AFP
HCG

726
Q

Origin of Ca 125 :

A

Coelomic epithelial structures

727
Q

Ig that crosses placenta from mother to foetus :

A

IgG

728
Q

Likely test to give biological false +ve for syphilis :

A

VDRL

729
Q

Pt 22 y/o presented with prolonged heavy menses. Had heavy menses since menarche. Pt is otherwise well. Took CBC. Additional investigations :

A

Coagulation

730
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis less frequently flare up in pregnancy. Which mechanism contributes to this?

A

Suppression of T helper 1

731
Q

MoA nifedipine :

A

Decrease PVR

732
Q

E. coli belongs to :

A

Enterobacteriaceae

733
Q

Action of antibiotics that renders bacteria inactive, but does not kill bacteria :

A

Bacteriostatic

734
Q

Group of abx treatment for syphilis infection :

A

Penicillin

735
Q

Foetal head at level of pelvic floor, requires operative delivery. Type of delivery :

A

Outlet delivery

736
Q

% or Brenner tumour with malignant change :

A

5%

737
Q

Pt no known medical illness, not on meds. Has red papules over bilateral labia majora 20mm, 10mm until natal area. + lesions at umbilicus. Speculum examination normal. Hair, skin, nails normal. Likely dx :

A

Eczema

738
Q

Pt day 1 post hysterectomy. Na 123. K, Urea, Creat normal range. Possible cause :

A

Excessive IV dextrose

739
Q

Pt amenorrhea 5 wks. UPT strongly +ve. USG sac-like structure 2mm, eccentric location, ectopic pregnancy cannot be ruled out. Likely BHCG levels that correspond to the findings :

A

1200

740
Q

Anterior pelvic compartment prolapse. Pt underwent op, done sling via transabdominal route. Most important ligament for the procedure :

A

Iliopectineal

741
Q

HLA types that down-regulated in pregnancy

A

HLA-A + HLA-B

742
Q

PG with highest level pre-menstruation :

A

PGE2

743
Q

Advantage of PGE 2 vs PGE 1 analogue :

A

More effective at cervical ripening

744
Q

Defective structure in thalassemia :

A

Globin

745
Q

Baby with extra chromosome 18 with limb abnormalities :

A

Edward syndrome

746
Q

Rett syndrome associated with profound neurological impairment. Mode of inheritance :

A

X-linked dominant

747
Q

In males, FSH secreted by :

A

Sertoli cells

748
Q

Enzyme for androgen synthesis in ovary :

A

Aromatase

749
Q

Pt with primary amenorrhoea, scant pubic and axillary hair. Hx of bilateral inguinal hernia in her childhood. Dx :

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

750
Q

Treatment for central precocious puberty :

A

GnRH analogue

751
Q

Class of drugs associated with hyperprolactinemia :

A

Antiemetics

752
Q

Types of bile acid :

A

Cholic and chenodeoxycholic acid

753
Q

Methods that reduce risk of SSI during C-sec according to RCOG :

A

Antibiotics before skin incision

754
Q

Pt presents with hyperemesis, 8 wks amenorrhoea. T4 0.04 (↓), TSH 18 (N). Interpretation :

A

Normal findings for 8 wks pregnancy

755
Q

Pt experiencing PPH. Given oxytocin. Onset of action of oxytocin :

A

5 mins

756
Q

Pt presents with amenorrhoea, diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. BMI 18 dropped to
16. Likely cause of amenorrhoea :

A

Hypogonadism

757
Q

Structure on HIV allowing it to enter cells :

A

Glycoprotein

758
Q

What is the best way to perform intermittent auscultation during 1st stage of labour :

A

Immediately after contraction, for at least 1 minute, every 30 mins

759
Q

Minimum amount of sperm concentration per mL of ejaculate :

A

15 000 000

760
Q

Agent that cannot be used as tocolytic :

A

Prostacyclin

761
Q

Pain score is what type of variable :

A

Ordinal

762
Q

Measured blood loss type of variable :

A

Ordinal

763
Q

Adverse effect of COCP

A

Irregular bleeding

764
Q

In what active disease is COC contraindicated

A

SLE

765
Q

Rotterdam criteria requires biochemical evidence of :

A

Hyperandrogenism

Rotterdam criteria for PCOS:
oligo‐anovulation, hyperandrogenism and polycystic ovaries (≥ 12 follicles measuring 2‐9 mm in diameter and/or an ovarian volume > 10 mL in at least one ovary).

766
Q

Gestation at which differentiation of external genitalia occurs :

A

9-11 wks

767
Q

What substance is secreted by granulosa cells :

A

Oestrogen

768
Q

Erythrocytes formed from :

A

Pluripotent haematopoetic stem cells

769
Q

Percentage of non-epithelial ovarian Ca :

A

10%

770
Q

βHCG is a tumour marker for :

A

Choriocarcinoma

771
Q

Identify structure: umbilical artery/vein

A

Umbilical vein

772
Q

True statement regarding inheritance of achondroplasia :

A

Roughly equal number of males and females affected

773
Q

Non-ergot agent used to supress lactation postpartum :

A

Quinagolide

774
Q

Enzyme for conversion of testosterone to DHT :

A

5 alpha-reductase

775
Q

Histamine released from :

A

Mast cell, eosinophil, basophil

776
Q

Oxytocin cannot be given orally because :

A

Destroyed by gastric juice

777
Q

15 y/o British came to see you for contraceptive advice, does not wish to let parents know. Which guideline will you follow?

A

Fraser guideline

778
Q

Pt underwent surgery for ovarian mass. Histology showed benign spindle shaped cells. Dx :

A

Fibroma

779
Q

From what arch does the ligamentum arteriosum come?

A

6th arch

780
Q

What amount of hormone released from Mirena/24 hours?

A

20mcg/24 hours

781
Q

Patient has increased FSH, LH + TSH =

A

premature ovarian failure

782
Q

Patient complaining of cold intolerance + increase TSH

A

Hashimoto’s

783
Q

Type of ovarian cancer with association of mismatch repair?

A

Endometroid Ca

784
Q

Likelihood of pneumonitis with chicken pox?

A

1/400 = .25%

785
Q

HIV Pregnancy guidelines

A
  • Viral load should be checked at 36 weeks then delivery planned as follows:
  • < 50 HIV RNA copies/mL = vaginal delivery
  • 50–399 = PLCS considered
  • ≥400 HIV = PLCS

Zidovudine Infusion

  • Indicated for women with a viral load of >1000 HIV RNA copies/mL who present in labour or with ruptured membranes or who are admitted for planned CS
  • Indicated for women presenting in labour or with ruptured membranes in whom the current viral load is not known
  • Women taking zidovudine monotherapy

nfant Antiretroviral therapy(ART)

Very low risk =
Mother has been on cART for longer than 10 weeks and
Two documented maternal HIV viral loads <50 HIV RNA copies/mL during pregnancy
at least 4 weeks apart and
Maternal HIV viral load <50 HIV RNA copies/mL at or after 36 weeks
2 weeks zidovudine monotherapy

Low risk
maternal viral load <50 HIV RNA copies/mL at 36 weeks or
maternal viral load <50 HIV RNA at time of delivery if born prematurely
4 weeks zidovudine monotherapy

High risk = Combination PEP

786
Q

Post-menopausal woman had one episode of vaginal bleeding. ET 1.2mm

A

No further action + return if bleeding continues

787
Q

Post CS, absorbable sutures, nodule at stitch line, cells for inflammation

A

Neutrophils

788
Q

HIV patient with viral load > 16000, when should anti-viral HAART be started?

A

ASAP after 16 weeks

789
Q

Anti-epileptic affected by increased renal flow?

A

Lamotrigine

790
Q

Magnesium excreted by?

A

Excreted unchanged by kidneys

791
Q

Chlamydia transmittion from mother to her foetus via :

A

Direct contact

792
Q

Pseudomonas appear on macconey agar :

A

colourless

793
Q

Prophlaxis of malaria during pregnancy :

A

Mefloquin in 2nd and 3rd trimester

794
Q

Exotoxins:

A

Heat labile
Secreted by gram positive
Susceptible to antibodies
Higher toxicity

Endotoxins = gram negative

795
Q

Preg. With flu like symptoms & backache ,baby Delivered with resp. depression,jaundice & hepatosplenomegaly :

A

Listeria

796
Q

Treatment of vulvovaginal atrophy includes :

A

estriol and phytoestrogens

797
Q

Most common non-epithelial vaginal cancer:

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

798
Q

SI unit of diathermy power

A

Watt

799
Q

Cutoff of fibronectin level in screen of preterm labour

A

50ng

800
Q

Rate of recurrence of pre eclampsia

A

16%-20%

801
Q

Rate of CMV to be symptomatic for the baby:

A

10-15%

802
Q

Pendrin protein used in thyroid synthesis , which ion is exchanged for iodine:

A

Cl−/HCO3−

803
Q

Definition of minor PPH:

A

500-1000 loss without shock

804
Q

70 kg ptn,Maximum safest dose of lidocaine:

A

49 with adrenaline

805
Q

Doxazosin MOA

A

Alpha-1 antagonist

806
Q

Complement system , initial cascade that end by cell lysis

A

C3 complement

807
Q

Six differentiation is due to gene on:

A

Short am of y chromosome

808
Q

False and true data variable:

A

Nominal (binary)

809
Q

In sexual arousal engorgement of bulb of vestibule is dt:

A

Dorsal nerve of clitoris OR labial branch of perineal nerve.

810
Q

In male most of ejaculate come from:

A

Seminal vesicles

811
Q

Nerve supply of area over femoral triangle?

A

Genitofemoral nerve

812
Q

Percentage of DM type 2 after GDM

A

40-60%

813
Q

Dose of radiation to breast tissue used in CTPA

A

20

814
Q

Oncogenes in Lynch Syndrome:

A

MSH2/methylation MLH1/MSH6

815
Q

N.s of internal anal sphincter?

A

Sympathetic L5, parasympathetic S2, 3, 4

816
Q

USS has the best resolution in which plane?

A

Axial

817
Q

Semen analysis all normal except morphology 3%

A

Morphology > 4% = normal but morphology very unreliable measurement
Normal

Which numbers should we focus on?
Sperm concentration should be >20million <5: difficult to conceive naturally

Total motility should be >40%
< 20: difficult to conceive naturally

818
Q

What kind of junctions in the uterus?

A

Gap junctions

819
Q

GNRH secreted where other than hypothalamus?

A

Liver

820
Q

Painless ulcer & enlarged LN & diagnosed by serology

A

treponema pallidum

821
Q

Lower 2/3 of vagina developed from:

A

sinovaginal bulbs (derived from the pelvic part of the urogenital sinus)

822
Q

Non penetrative intercourse , shallow painful genital ulcer

A

Behçet disease

823
Q

Fetal hemolysis detected by:

A

direct Coombs’ test is the test usually used to identify hemolytic anemia. [The indirect Coombs’ test is used only in prenatal testing of pregnant women and in testing blood prior to a transfusion.]

824
Q
A