Exam 1 Module 1 cont.- general info Flashcards

1
Q

nurses should monitor the following medication effects:

A

contradictions and cautious use, therapeutic response, adverse side effects, therapeutic index, drug concentration, clients condition, interactions

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2
Q

tolerance

A

a decreasing response to repeated drug doses

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3
Q

dependence

A

either the physiological or psychological need for a drug

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4
Q

components of medication prescriptions

A
client full name
date/time of prescription
name of med
strength/dosage
route of admin
time/frequency of admin (exact times or # per day)
quantity to dispense and number of refills
signature of prescriber
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5
Q

rights of medication administration

A
right client
right medication
right dose
right time
right route
right documentation
right client education
right to refuse
right assessment
right evaluation
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6
Q

preventing medication errors

A

thorough assessment, verify patient information, confirm medication , avoid abbreviations,

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7
Q

three methods for dosage calculations

A

ratio and proportions, formula, dimensional analysis

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8
Q

1MG= Xmcg

A

1mg=1,000mcg

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9
Q

1g= X mg

A

1g=1,000mg

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10
Q

1kg= Xg

A

1kg=1,000g

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11
Q

1oz=xml

A

1oz=30ml

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12
Q

1L=Xml

A

1L=1,000ml

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13
Q

1tsp=xml

A

1tsp=5ml

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14
Q

1tbs=xml

A

1tbps=15ml

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15
Q

1tbsp=xtsp

A

1tbsp= 3tsp

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16
Q

1kg=xlb

A

1kg=2.2lb

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17
Q

1gr=xmg

A

1gr=60mg

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18
Q

rounding up guidlines

A

if the number to the right is = or > than 5, round up

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19
Q

rounding down

A

if number to right is less than 5, round down

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20
Q

rounding for doses less than 1.0

A

round to nearest hundredth;

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21
Q

round this .746ml

A

.75ml

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22
Q

round this .743

A

.74ml

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23
Q

desired dose

A

dose the nurse should administer

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24
Q

how is dosage calculated for neonates/pediatrics

A

weight based- milligrams per kilogram

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25
Q

absorption, distribution, metabolism, and exertion are ___ in neonates/pediatrics

A

decreased

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26
Q

drugs transfer through placenta by

A

diffusion

27
Q

when is the greatest danger for drug induced developmental defects in pregnant women?

A

first trimester

28
Q

drug transfer is more likely d/t enhanced BF in which trimester

A

last

= greatest % risk of maternally absorbed drug to fetus

29
Q

drugs in pregnancy rated A,B,C,D,X

A

a- no risk
b- no risk in animals
C- if benefit outweighs risk, harmful effects seen in animals
D- harm on fetus in humans, only use din life threatening situations
X- strictly prohibited in pregnancy

30
Q

ploypharmacy

A

use of many different medication and OTC meds; increasing interactions and ADRs

31
Q

why are there greater medication errors in older adults?

A

poor memory, polypharmacy, poor vision or dexterity,

32
Q

physiological changes for medications in older adults

A

absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion decreased/slowed

33
Q

drug polymorphism

A

the effects of a patients age, gender, size, body comp, and other charact have on a specific drug

34
Q

pharmakinetics and pharmacodynamics cultural aspects

A

different cultures have diff body reactions to certain medications, cytochrome T enzyme variation

35
Q

drug approval process

A

pre-clinical

clinical phases 1-4

36
Q

phase 1

A

done on health subjects, determines dosage range and need for further testing

37
Q

pre-clinical

A

in vitro and animal studies

38
Q

phase 2

A

sick subjects, determines effectiveness and ADRs

39
Q

phase 3

A

large groups, identifies rare ADRs and safety, controlled study/placebo blind studies to minimize bias

40
Q

phase 4

A

post market study, black box warnings

41
Q

black box warnings

A

strictest warnings from FDA, indicates serious adverse effects that have been reported

42
Q

3 classes of recalls

A

1-most serious- likely serious ARD or death
2-less severe- may result in temp or reversible health effects
3- least severe

43
Q

controlled substances catagories

A

schedule 1-5
1- most potential for abuse- no medical qualities
5- lowest potential

44
Q

nurse practice acts

A

state laws that define the scope of nursing practice

45
Q

American nurse association and international council of nurses (ICN)

A

developed standards that describe scope, fx, role of nurse and establish clinical practice standards

46
Q

HIPAA

A

health insurance portability and accountability act - protects patient information/standards for handling patient information

47
Q

autonomy

A

self-determination and ability to act on ones own, promotes decision making

48
Q

beneficence

A

ethical principle of doing or actively promoting good

49
Q

nonmaleficence

A

duty to do no harm to a patient, avoid any deliberate harm while tendering nursing care

50
Q

veracity

A

the duty to tell the truth

51
Q

idiosyncratic reaction

A

adverse reaction when med has unintended affect

52
Q

drug interactions

A

can result in incompatibility- commonly with parenteral drugs

53
Q

adverse drug event

A

undesirable occurrence r/t admin or failure to admin a med

54
Q

adverse drug reaction

A

unexpected, unintended or excessive response to med admin at therapeutic dose

55
Q

allergic reaction

A

immunologic reaction from sensitivity of patient

56
Q

idiosyncratic reaction

A

abnormal/unexpected response often d/t genetics

57
Q

medication errors def

A

preventable adverse drug event by patient or HC provider may or may not cause harm

58
Q

most common medication errors

A

most occur d/t breakdown in medication use system not the fault of individual

59
Q

near miss

A

almost made a error but didn’t follow through

60
Q

how to prevent medication errors?

A
check med order 3x
9 rights of medication administration
2 patient identifiers 
do not admin if you didnt draw it up
use generic names
check allergies, verify current meds
mand re-calculation of high risk drugs
educate patients
report errors 
medication reconciliation
61
Q

when do you complete medication reconciliation

A

admission, transfer w/in or between facilities, discharge, or status change

62
Q

3 steps of medication reconsilliation

A

verification (OTC and herbal)
clarification (dose/meds)- by doctor
reconciliation

63
Q

when does discharge planning and teaching begin?

A

upon admission