Exam 1: Important Words Flashcards

1
Q

Etiology

A

Cause of a disease

infectious disease: etiology is infectious organism

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2
Q

Pathogenesis

A

Biochemical and molecular mechanisms of disease development

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3
Q

Morphology

A

Appearance of cells/tissue/organs

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4
Q

Clinical features (manifestations)

A

Functional consequences of morphological changes

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5
Q

Hypoxia

A

Not enough oxygen

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6
Q

Modes of Cell Death

Necrosis

Signalling

Unregulated (pathological)

A

Cell breaks down/explodes and contents are released

Spread/damage neighboring cells

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7
Q

Modes of Cell Death

Apoptosis

Multiple

Regulated (physiological)

A

Cell disassembles and packages contents for phagocytosis

Avoids damage of surrounding cells

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8
Q

Modes of Cell Death

Necroptosis

A

Regulated necrosis

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9
Q

Modes of Cell Death

Anoikis

A

Detachment-induced cell death

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10
Q

Modes of Cell Death

Ferroptosis

A

Iron based cell death

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11
Q

Necrosis

Necrotic Tissue

A

Loss of nuclei
Breakdown of membranes
Cells have ruptured

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12
Q

Necrosis

Coagulative

A

Loss of cell architecture but not tissue architecture

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13
Q

Necrosis

Liquefactive

A

Digestion of cells results in viscous mass

Cells gone but more liquid

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14
Q

Necrosis

Caseous

A

Fragmented cells and granular debris surrounded by inflammation

Cells are gone but more solid; Cheese like

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15
Q

Necrosis

Fibrinoid

A

Immune complexes and fibrin in walls of blood vessels

Fbrin from blood gets into blood vessel wall and attaches to immune complexes

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16
Q

Apoptotic Signaling

Extrinsic

A

Death receptors on the plasma membrane are activated and transduce a signal through intracellular signalling pathways to activate caspases

Signal initiated from outside cell

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17
Q

Apoptotic Signalling

Intrinsic

A

Mitochondrial signals induce release of pro-apoptotic proteins that activate caspases

Signal initiated from inside cell

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18
Q

Apoptotic Signalling

Caspases

A

Specific proteases that disassemble the cell for packaging into apoptotic bodies
Biochemical markers of apoptosis
Inflammatory

Cysteine Aspartases

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19
Q

Caspases

Initiators

A

Autocatalytic

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20
Q

Caspases

Executioners

A

Cleavage

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21
Q

Bcl-2 Protein Family

A

B cell lymphoma 2

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22
Q

Stress and Death

p53-induced cell death

A

Critical in DNA damage repair
Activates negative regulators of cell cycle progression
Induces apoptosis promoting genes

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23
Q

Stress and Death

ER stress/UPR

A

Halts protein translation and upregulates chaperone expression to fold proteins properly or activate cell death

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24
Q

Stress and Death

PIDDosome

A

Formed in response to p53 signaling caused by DNA damage to repair or destroy damaged cells

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25
Q

Stress and Death

ER stress

A

Accumulation of misfolded proteins

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26
Q

Stress and Death

Unfolded Protein Response (UPR)

A

Stress response that promotes degradation of extra proteins and increased chaperone production to improve folding

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27
Q

Immune Response: Inflammation

Clinically

A

redness, swelling, pain

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28
Q

Immune Response: Inflammation

Histologically

A

Edema, WBC

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29
Q

Edema

A

Mediated by mast cells (immediate) and eosinophils (later response)

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30
Q

Immune Response: Inflammation

Pyogenic

A

Pur production

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31
Q

Immune Response: Inflammation

Granuloma

A

macrophages surrounded by T cells

Mass of immune cells

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32
Q

Immune Response: Inflammation

Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)

A

Important mediator (cytokine)

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33
Q

Immune Response: Inflammation

Acute Inflammation

A

Dilation of small blood vessels
Increased microvasculature permeability
Migration and activiation of immune cells

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34
Q

Immune Response: Inflammation

Chronic Inflammation

A

Infiltration by macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells
Increased tissue destruction
Attempts at healing

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35
Q

Meningitis

Meninges

A

Cover for CNS/protectant
1. Dura mater
2. Arachnoid/subarachnoid
3. Pia mater

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36
Q

Meningitis

Immunoglobulin A (IgA)

A

Produced by plasma cells associated with mucosa
First line of defense
Not inflammatory
Primarily acts thru exclusion

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37
Q

Meningitis

Ciliostasis

A

Prevents movement of bacteria out of bronchial tubes

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38
Q

Meningitis

Adhesie Pili

A

Projections from bacteria that can bind non-ciliated mucosal cells

Can cross epithelium once bound

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39
Q

Meningitis

Exotoxins

A

High antigenic (antitoxin neutralizes)
Highly Toxic (fatal in micorgram quantities)
Ususally do not insuce fever
Usually bind to specific receptors

Excreted by cell

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40
Q

Meningitis

Endotoxins

A

Weakly immunogenic
Toxic at 10-100s micrograms
Induce fever
No specific receptions

Part of cell wall

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41
Q

Trichinosis

Enteric Phase

A

Occurs in GI Tract
Strong immune response to larvae
Increased intestinal mobility

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42
Q

Trichinosis

Muscle phase

A

Larva exit blood vessels and enter skeletal muscle - infects muscle fibers

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43
Q

Integumentary Disorders

Growths

A

Cyst
Malformation
Benign/malignant neoplasm

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44
Q

Integumentary Disorders

Dermatitis

A

Non-neoplastic

Rash

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45
Q

Psoriasis

A

Inflammatory skin disease
Scaling skin condition

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46
Q

Psoriasis: Angiogenesis

VEGF

A

Released from keratinocytes
Stimulate epidermal hyperplasia vascular growth, leukocyte infiltration

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47
Q

Psoriasis: Verucae

Verrucae

A

Squamoproliferative
Generally self limiting

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48
Q

Pemphigus

A

Autoimmune formation of blisters

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49
Q

Foliaceus

A

Subcorneal lesion

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50
Q

Vulgaris

A

suprabasal lesion

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50
Q

Bullous Pemphigoid

A

Subepidermal, nonacantholytic lesion

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51
Q

Mendelian Disorders

A

Monogenic Disorders
Generally rare (usually incompatible with life)
Single gene defect causes disorder
High penetrance

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52
Q

Chromosomal Abnormalities

A

Uncommon
Extra chromosomal material (or lacking)

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53
Q

Complex Multigenic DIsorders

A

Far more common
Complex interaction of geentic defect with environmental factors

Predisposition

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54
Q

Autosomal

A

Located on chromosomes 1-22 rather than X or Y (sex linked)

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54
Q

Penetrance

A

Whether or not the variant genotype can be inferred on the basis of defined phenotypic criteria

Can you infer genotype from phenotype

Can you identify disorder based on appearance or clinical observation

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54
Q

Autosomal Recessive

A

Recessive need both copies to express

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54
Q

Nondisjunction

A

Failure of two homologus chromosomes (or two sister chromatids) to separate at metaphase of meiosis I (or meiosis II/mitosis)

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54
Q

Autosomal Dominant

A

Only need one copy of gene to express characteristic
If you have the gene you will express it

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54
Q

Sex-Linked

A

characteristics (or traits) that are influenced by genes carried on the sex chromosomes

Males will express because they only have one X

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55
Q

Phenylalanine Hydroxylase

A

Catalyzes conversion of Phe to Tyr
Mutated in PKU

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55
Q

Neurofibromin I (NF1)

A

GTPase (GAP) that is responsible for inactivating Ras
mutated in Neurofibromatosis I

56
Q

Hypopigmentation

A

Paler than normal due to lack of tyrosine

57
Q

Hemolytic Anemia

A

Lack of RBCs because they are being lysed

58
Q

Vaso-occlusive Crisis

A

Blockage of blood vessels results in hypoxic injury and infarcts

59
Q

Opsonization

A

Binding of antibodies and complement molecules to allow recognition of bacteria by phagocytes

60
Q

Familial Mental Retardation 1

A

Mutated gene in Fragile X Syndrome

61
Q

DNA Methylation

A

Represses DNA expression by reducing availability for transcription

62
Q

Fragile X

A

Cytogenetic abnormaility is constriction of long arm of X Chromosome

63
Q

FMRP

FMR protein

A

cytoplasmic protein highly expressed in the brain and testes
Binds RNA
Regulates protein synthesis at synapses

64
Q

Meiotic Non-disjunction

A

Improper seperation of chromosomes during meosis and/or mitosis

65
Q

Partial trisomy

A

Increase in part of a chromosome

66
Q

Thymis hypoplasia

A

Thymus is too small

67
Q

Parathyroid hypoplasia

A

Parathyroid gland is too small

68
Q

Type 1 Diabetes

A

Reduced insulin production due to autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells

69
Q

Type 2 Diabetes

A

Insulin resistance

Insulin is created but body doesnt respond to it

70
Q

Amyloid

A

Deposit that stains with iodine (starch)

71
Q

Serum amyloid P (SAP)

A

Binds to motifs common to all amyloid proteins
Ca2+ dependent
May protect amyloid from proteolysis or phagocytosis

72
Q

Tumors

A

Abrnomal masses
Growth is unlike surrounding tissues
Failure of cell death

73
Q

Parenchyma

A

Functional portion of an organ
In tumors, cancer cells themselves

Determines tumor behavior

74
Q

Stroma

A

Supportive protion of an organ
In tumors, CT, blood vessels, and lymphatic infiltrates that surround it

Affects parenchymal behavior

75
Q

-plasia

A

growth

76
Q

Dysplasia

A

Unregulated or irregular growth

Bad growth

Disordered

77
Q

Metaplasia

A

Replacement of one cell type with another

Transcending Growth

78
Q

Anaplasia

A

Dedifferentiation

Back or re growth - Lack of differentiation

Most likely to grow from stem cells present in the tissue

79
Q

Neoplasia

A

New growth

80
Q

Differentiation

A

Stem cell changes to form another (usually more specialized) cell type

81
Q

Cachexia

A

Progressive loss of both fat and lean tissue

82
Q

Paraneoplastic Syndromes

A

Cancer patient has symptoms unrelated to exisiting tumor

83
Q

Benign

A

Gross and microscopic appearance similar to surrounding normal tissue
usually localized

84
Q

Malignant

A

Incade and destroy adjacent structure

85
Q

Metastasize

A

Travel to distant sites (away from organ of origin)

86
Q

Invasiveness

A

Invades neighboring tissue within the same organ

87
Q

Mixed Tumor

A

Divergent differentiation of neoplastic clone

88
Q

Teratoma

A

Derived from totipotent cells
Mixture of adult tissue types

89
Q

Leiomyoma

A

Benign Smooth Muscle tumor

90
Q

Chondroma

A

Benign Cartilage tumor

91
Q

Fibroma

A

Benign Fibrous tumor

92
Q

Adenoma

A

Benign tumor of the glands

93
Q

Papilloma

A

Benign fingerlike projections

94
Q

Cystadenoma

A

Benign large cystic mass

95
Q

Polyp

A

Macroscopic projection out of the epithelial free surface into a lumen

Can be benign or malignant

96
Q

Sarcomas

A

Mesencymal origin malignant tumor

97
Q

Carcinoma

A

Epithelial origin malignant tumor

98
Q

Undifferentiated tumor

A

Malignant tumor of unknown origin

99
Q

Grading

A

Determined by cytology
Assumes behavior and differentiation are related

100
Q

Clinical Staging

A

Physical exam, imaging, lab tests

101
Q

Pathological Staging

A

biopsies; includes clinical information

Clinical + biopsy

102
Q

Restaging

A

After recurrence; usually just use original staging

103
Q

Staging

A

Determined by surgery or imaging
Based on
* Location of primary tumor
* tumor size
* lymph node spread (local vs. regional)
* Distant metastases

104
Q

TNM System

A

Numbers are assigned to each characteristic based on a scale for individual cancers
T = tumor size
N = lymph node mestastases
M = other metastases

105
Q

Hyperplasia

A

Excessive cell growth

106
Q

Hypoplasia

A

Not enough/reduced cell growth

107
Q

Atrophy

A

Excessive cell death

108
Q

Oncogene

A

Result in proliferation and cell growth
inhibit cell death

109
Q

Tumor Suppressor

A

Inhibit cell growth
Initiate cell death

110
Q

Growth factors

A

Integral membrane proteins cleaved by proteases
Can have juxtacrine effects

111
Q

Juxtacrine effects

A

Activate neighboring cells

112
Q

Ras

A

Membrane bound G protein immediately downstream of receptors
activated growth factors and cytokines to promote cell growth and prevent apoptosis

Activated form has GTP bound

113
Q

Src

A

Non-receptor tyrosine kinase
Regulates cytoskeleton, cell migration, adhesion and invasion

114
Q

Myc

A

Intracellular sensor and transducer of extracellular stimuli
Binds to E-box DNA recognition sequences

115
Q

S phase

A

DNA synthesis
Incomplete replication detected

116
Q

M phase

A

Mitosis
Improper spindle detected

117
Q

G1 and G2 phases

A

Growth phases
Damaged DNA detected

118
Q

G0

A

No cell division

119
Q

Cyclins

A

Activate Cdks
Synthesized and degraded at specific points in the cell cycle

120
Q

Cdks

A

activated by Cyclins
Kinases that regulate cell cycle progression by activating/inactiviating crucial proteins

121
Q

Cyclin D1

A

Activates Cdk4 and Cdk6
Mediates G1 to S phase transition

Activate/inactivate transcription factors to drive stages of cell cycle

122
Q
A
123
Q

NF2 (Merlin)

A

Inhbits RTKs and integrins at membrane
Inhibits E3 ubiquitin ligase in nucleus

124
Q

p53

A

Activated by genotoxic stress (dsDNA breaks)
Inhibits cell cycle progression to allow repair
PIDDosome

125
Q

Rb protein

A

Regulates differentiation of cells by interacting with transcripton factors
Inhits cell cycle progression

Discovered in children w/ retinoblastoma

126
Q

BRCA 1/2

A

Mediators of DSB repair and replication fork collapse

Associated with inherited breast cancer susceptibility

127
Q

BRCA 1

A

Acts in both checkpoint activation and DNA repair

128
Q

BRCA 2

A

Acts in homologous recombination

129
Q

Von Hippel Lindau protein (VHL)

A

Ubiquitin ligase that targets HIFIα for destruction

130
Q

HIFIα

A

Under hypoxic conditions, activates alternative metabolic pathways
Induces VEGF
Counteracts Myc activity

131
Q

The Warburg Effect

A

Excessive glycolysis in the presence of oxygen

132
Q

Angiogenesis

A

Development of new vasculature

133
Q

Primary Immunodeficiency Syndromes

A

Genetic

134
Q

Secondary Immunodeficiency Syndromes

A

Effect of other disease like cancer, infection, or malnutrition

135
Q

Hypersensitivity

A

Stimulated by antigens
Imbalance between effectors and limitors

136
Q

Exogenous

A

Environmental
Nonpathogenic

137
Q

Endogenous

A

Self

138
Q

Immediate (Type 1) hypersensitivity

A

Productin of IgE antibody

Allergies

139
Q

Antibody-mediated (Type II) Hypersensitivity

A

Production of IgG, IgM

140
Q

Immune complex-mediated (type III) hypersensitivity

A

Deposition of antigen-antibody complexes

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

141
Q

Cell-mediated (Type IV) Hypersensitivity

A

Activated T Lymphocytes

Multiple Sclerosis
T1D

142
Q

IgE

A

Produced by plasma cells in mucosal membranes in response to allergies
Activation of tyrosine kinase

143
Q

Histamine

A

Released in response to IgE
Binds G protein couples receptors (H1-3) on endotherlial cells, nerve cells, and smooth muscle cells

144
Q

Transforming Growth Factor (TGF-)β

A

Generally considered immunosuppressive
Activates myofibroblasts to produce ECM
Inhibits ECM degradation

145
Q

IL-13

A

Activates TGF-β

146
Q

Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)

A

Regulates proliferation and differentiation of stromal cell during embryogenesis
May either promote differentiation of adult stem cells and/or stimulate existing stromal cells

147
Q

Allopurinol

A

inhibits xanthine oxidase, resulting in an accumulation of hypoxanthine and xanthine, compunds more soluble than uric acid

Used to treat Gout