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bms602 > exam 1 (final review) > Flashcards

exam 1 (final review) Flashcards

1
Q

the total destruction of all microbes including more resilient forms like spores, non-enveloped viruses, and fungi

A

sterilization

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2
Q

the physical procedures or chemical agents used to destroy microbes or render them inert

A

disinfection

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3
Q

level of disinfectant used for items involved in invasive procedures

A

high

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4
Q

level of disinfection used for items or surfaces that are not likely contaminated w/ spores or highly resilient microorganisms, used for noninvasive instruments

A

mid

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5
Q

level of disinfectant used to treat non critical items

A

low

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6
Q

Disinfection level of incineration

A

high, destroys living material

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7
Q

disinfection level of boiling (include times, temps)

A

med to high
100C for 10 min will kill veegtative bacteria, fungi, most viruses
30 min will sterilize
must be covered

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8
Q

disinfection level of autoclaving (include times, temps)

A

high
application of steam heat (121C) and pressure (15PSI), sterilizing in 15 min

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9
Q

filtration is useful for sterilizing:

A

liquids that could e damaged or destroyed by heat

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10
Q

crosslinks nucleic acids

A

UV radiation

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11
Q

creates strand breaks in nucleic acids

A

ionizing radiation

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12
Q

chemical agent that is used to kill microbes on living tissue

A

antiseptics

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13
Q

chemical agent that is used to kill microbes on non-living surface

A

disinfectant

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14
Q

ideal characteristics of a chemical disinfectant

A

kill or slow growth of microbes
non-toxic
soluble in wate/=r/alcohol
long shelf life
able to be used in a doluted form
fast-acting
nonstaining, noncorrosive
inexpensive
odorless

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15
Q

pc >1 means the disinfectant is _ than phenol

A

more effective

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16
Q

pc < 1 means the disinfectant is _ than phenol

A

less effective

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17
Q

ethylene oxide gas (level, mechanism, considerations)

A

high
akylates proteins, disrupting function
requires training, specialized chamber, explosive

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18
Q

formaldehyde gas (level, mechanism, considerations)

A

high
akylates proteins, disrupting function
requies training, specialized chamber, carcinogenic

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19
Q

oxidizing agents (level, mechanism, examples)

A

high
destroy proteins, DNA
hydrogen peroxide, peracetic acid, ozone

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20
Q

chlorine (level, mechanism, examples)

A

high
destroy proteins, membranes, nucleic acids
hypochlorous acid, sodium hypochlorite (10%)

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21
Q

alcohol (level, mechanism, examples)

A

med
disrupts membrane bilayers
isopropanol, ethanol (70%)

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22
Q

iodine (level, mechanism, examples)

A

med
precipitates proteins, oxidizes essential enzymes
tincture of iodine, povidone iodine

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23
Q

quaternary ammonium compounds (level, mechanism, examples)

A

low
disrupts membrane bilayers
four organic groups linked to nitrogen
benzalalkonium chloride, cetylpyridinium chloride

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24
Q

soap and water (level, mechanism, considerations)

A

disrupts membrane bilayers
cheap, easy

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25
Q

considerations when choosing a disinfectant

A

microbial susceptibility
temp, pH
concentration
environment
endospore formers

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26
Q

gram pos

A

9 amino acid crosslinks
LTA
can have capsule, S layer
periplasm is space between cell wall and membrane

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27
Q

gram neg

A

4 amino acid crosslinks
outer leaflet is LPS, inner leaflet is normal phospholipid
can have capsule
periplasm is space between inner and outer membrane

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28
Q

structures that enable organisms to stick to surfaces or each other

A

fimbriae

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29
Q

functions of pili

A

attachment
twitching motility
evade immune system
conjugal pilus

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30
Q

structures rotate to propel cell

A

flagella

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31
Q

single polar flagellum

A

monotrichous

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32
Q

a flagellum at each pole

A

amphitrichous

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33
Q

multiple flagella localized at the cell pole

A

lophotrichous

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34
Q

multiple flagella, inserted at many locations in the cell pole

A

lophotrichous

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35
Q

multiple flagella inserted at many location in the cell membrane

A

peritrichous

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36
Q

function of capsules and slime layers

A

assist in attachment to surfaces
protect against phagocytosis
resist desiccation

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37
Q

extrachromasomal molecule of DNA not required for cell survival in all conditions

A

plasmid

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38
Q

transfer of naked DNA

A

transformation

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39
Q

cell to cell transfer of plasmids, chromosomal material

A

conjugation

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40
Q

transfer of chromosomal DNA via bacteriphage

A

transduction

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41
Q

a unit of genetic material that functions ina coordinated manner by means of an operator, a promoter, and one or more structural genes

A

operon

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42
Q

a system of genes, formed by one or more operons, that have a common regulatory element

A

regulon

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43
Q

alpha subunit of RNA pol

A

2, interacts w/ regulator proteins

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44
Q

beta subunit of RNA pol

A

catalytic activity, holds onto RNA pol

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45
Q

beta’ subunit

A

involved in binding, staying bound to DNA

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46
Q

omega subunit of RNA pol

A

stabilizes complex

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47
Q

sigma factor

A

recognizes promoter region o fgene, released soon after the start of transcription

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48
Q

regulation that controls the activity of preexisting enzymes

A

post translational

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49
Q

regulation that controls the amount of an enzyme

A

regulation of gene expression

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50
Q

transcription of gene into mRNA followed by translation of mRNA into protein

A

gene expression

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51
Q

binds to environmental signal and auto phosphorylates

A

sensor kinase

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52
Q

activated via phosphorylation of sensor kinase, mediates response by altering gene transcription

A

response regulator

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53
Q

bind to regulatory sequences in the DN and prevent transcription of target genes usually block sigma factor from binding promoter

A

repressor/negative regulator

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54
Q

bind to regulatory sequences in the DNA and promote transcription of target genes, often act to recruit/stabilize sigma factor

A

activator/positive regulator

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55
Q

other functions of sigma factors

A

sporulation, stationary phase, heat shock and stress response, flagellar synthesis

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56
Q

prevent microorganisms from having access

A

physical barrier systems

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57
Q

recognize conserved microorganism elements, responds rapidly to remove microorganism

A

innate immune system

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58
Q

recognize traits particular to specific microorganisms and acts to remove them

A

adaptive immune response

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59
Q

at on non-self particules to inhibit growth/metabolism, lyse microorganism, promote immune response

A

antimicrobial molecules

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60
Q

innate protections are activated by:

A

PAMPs

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61
Q

a protein or carbohydrate that is recognized and sufficient to illicit an immune response, may contain one or more antigens

A

immunogen

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62
Q

a molecule that is recognized by a single specifici antibody or T cell receptor on T-cells

A

antigen

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63
Q

production of antibody proteins

A

humoral immunity

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64
Q

T cells that bind different antigens to control antibody production, kill intracellularly infected cells

A

cellular immunity

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65
Q

released by stroma in bone marrow, stimulate stem cell differentiation

A

colony stimulating factors

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66
Q

innate immune cells generally arise from:

A

myloid progenitor cells

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67
Q

adaptive immune cells generally arise from:

A

lmyphoid progenitor cells

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68
Q

natural killer cells arise from:

A

lymphoid progenitor cells

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69
Q

phagocytose and kill bacteria

A

neutrophils

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70
Q

phagocytose and kill bacteria and present antigens to T-cells via class II MHC proteins

A

APCs

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71
Q

APCs found in tissue, spleen, lymph nodes, other organs
initiate inflammatory response

A

macrophages

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72
Q

APCs found in lymph nodes and tissue, most potent APC, initiates and modulates T-cell response

A

dendritic cells

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73
Q

cells that produce antibodies and process and present antigens

A

B cells

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74
Q

type of B cells that are long lived and circulate until activated by a specific antigen

A

memory cells

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75
Q

type of B cells that are short lived and produce large amounts of antibody

A

plasma cells

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76
Q

control, suppress, and activate immune and inflammatory resposne by cell-cell interaction or release of cytokines

A

CD-4 T cells

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77
Q

role in recognizing virally infected cells, tissue transplant, and tumor cells

A

CD-8 T cells

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78
Q

kill antibody decorated cells, virus-infected cells, or tumor cells

A

natural killer cells

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79
Q

release histamine

A

basophils

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80
Q

phacogytic cells, role in response to parasitic pathogens

A

eosinophils

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81
Q

small polyptides that act as a chemical signal

A

cytokines

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82
Q

proteins that stimulate proliferation of fibroblasts

A

growth factors

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83
Q

network of organs, lymph nodes, lymph ducts, adn lymph vessels that make and move lymph from tissues to the bloodstream

A

lymphatic system

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84
Q

functions of the lymphatic system

A

maintain fluid balance
absorb fats, fat soluble vitamins
production, transport of immune cells

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85
Q

primary lymphoid organs (organs and function)

A

sites of initial lymphocyte differentiation
bone marrow, thymus

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86
Q

seocndary lymphoid organs (organs and function)

A

where B-cells, T-cells reside and respond to immune challenge
lymph nodes, spleen, Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT)

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87
Q

PAMPs

A

pathogen associated molecular patterns

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88
Q

innate immune cells can be activated by:

A

direct interation w/ PAMPs mediated by PRRs
indirect activation w/ cytokines released by other cells

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89
Q

PRR

A

pathogen recognition receptors

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90
Q

majority of PRRs are part of protein family called:

A

Toll-like receptors (TLRs)

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91
Q

process by which a phagocyte engulfs and destroys microorganisms

A

phagocytosis

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92
Q

stimulates localized inflammation by promoting the activation of IL1B and IL18

A

inflammasome

93
Q

cells that line hollow organs nad make up the outer surface of the body

A

epithelial cells

94
Q

thin layer of cells that lines the interior surface of blood and lympathic vessels

A

endothilial cells

95
Q

function of complement system

A

promote inflammation response
opsonize an invader
lyse invader by forming pore protein in membrane

96
Q

to mark antigen for phagocytosis by complement or antibody binding

A

opsonize

97
Q

destruction in phgolysosome is mediated by:

A

reactive oxygen species
acids, enzymes
proteases

98
Q

MHC I (what kind of proteins does it present, where is it loaded, what cells)

A

presents proteins from cytoplasm, loaded in ER, all cells

99
Q

MHC II (what kind of proteins does it present, where is it loaded, what cells)

A

exogenous proteins, loading in vesicle, only APCs

100
Q

function of inflammatory response

A

allow immune cells to leave blood, enter site of infection, begin cellular immune response

101
Q

extracellular enzyme that activates Bradykinin

A

Kallikrein

102
Q

Bradykinin

A

binds to receptors on surface of capillary walls to open junctions, ninds to receptor on mast cells to stimulate release of histamine, leukotrienes, prostaglandins

103
Q

increases blood flow to area (vasodilation)

A

histamine

104
Q

attract local neutrophils

A

leukotrienes

105
Q

promote dilaiton of blood vessles, recruit platelets, stimulate nerve cells to cause pain

A

prostaglandins

106
Q

what key cytokines do phagocytes release that encourage selectin and ICAM/IVAM production

A

IL-1, TNFα

107
Q

act to snag neutraphils, cause to roll along capillary wall

A

selectins

108
Q

bind integrins on neutraphil surface initiating extravasation

A

ICAM/IVAM

109
Q

movement of WBCs from capillaries to tissue

A

extravasation

110
Q

fever is caused by:

A

pyrogens

111
Q

chemicals originating from invading microorganism (LPS, LTA, etc), cause cells to release endogenous pyrogens

A

exogenous pyrogens

112
Q

chemicals originating from host

A

endogenous pyrogens

113
Q

advantages of fever

A

slow/inhibit bacterial growth to allow immune system time to respond, reduce iron availability for bacteria

114
Q

a protein or carbohydrate that is recognized and sufficient to illicit an immune response

A

immunogen

115
Q

piece of immunogen
a molecule that is recognized by a single antibody or TCR

A

antigen

116
Q

the specific sequence or 3D structure of antigen that is recognized by the specific antibody or TCR

A

epitope

117
Q

molecules too small to illicit an immune response

A

haptens

118
Q

antigen is large repetitive structure sufficient to activate B cells directly to make antibody

A

T-independent antigens

119
Q

what antibodies are produced by B cells when activated by T-independent antigens

A

IgM

120
Q

antigen is generally protein and will generate all 5 different types of antibody

A

T-dependent antigens

121
Q

specific receptors for antigens presented by MHCI or MHCII

A

T cell receptor

122
Q

main T-cell responsible for antigen specific immune response

A

alpha/beta chain TCR

123
Q

stimulate B cell antibody production in response to antigen

A

CD4 T helper cells

124
Q

secrete chemical to kill a cell infected by an intracellular organism in response to antigen

A

CD8 Cytolytic T cells

125
Q

CD 8 interact w/ what kind of MHC protein

A

I

126
Q

protein that forms pores in membrane, released by CD8 T cells

A

perforin

127
Q

proteases that stimulate apoptosis, released by CD8 T cells

A

granzymes

128
Q

CD 4 interact w/ what kind of MHC protein

A

II

129
Q

initial response, produce cytokines to promote expansion of the cellular immune response

A

TH0 cell

130
Q

produce IFNγ to activate macrophages, dendritic cells, promote responses to intracelular infections

A

TH1 cell

131
Q

stimulate antibody production, memory T cells

A

TH2 cell

132
Q

activated cells are stimulated to grow and divide via mitosis, each successive division increases number of cells that recognize a specific antigen

A

clonal expansion

133
Q

TH1 cells secrete _, which stimulates B cells to produce

A

IFNγ, IL-2
IgM, IgG

134
Q

TH2 cells secrete _, which stimulates B cells to produce

A

IL-4, IL-5
IgG, IgA, IgM

135
Q

part of antibody that is structural component - the same for every antibody of the same class

A

constant/class domain

136
Q

region of antibody that is responsible for binding antigen

A

variable domain

137
Q

fragment that is recognized by phagocytes for opsonization

A

fc

138
Q

long term immunity, memory antibodies, neutralizes toxins, opsonizes, fixes complement

A

IgG

139
Q

secretory antibody, on mucous membranes

A

IgA

140
Q

defautl antibody, can serve as B cell receptors

A

IgM

141
Q

receptor on B cells

A

IgD

142
Q

antibody of allergy, worm infections

A

IgE

143
Q

vdj linked to c

A

heavy chain

144
Q

vj linked to c

A

light chain

145
Q

rss

A

recombination signal sequence

146
Q

ways antibodies remove antigens:

A

neutralization, agglutination of microbes, precipitation of dissolved antigens, activation of complement system

147
Q

Nk cells, monocytes, macrophages, neutrophils bind Fc region, secrete enzymes and perforins to kill cell when bound to antibody

A

antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

148
Q

the process by which a person or animal becomes protected against a disease

A

immunization

149
Q

administration of a killed or weakened infectious microorganism or piece of infectious microorganism in order to prevent the disease

A

vaccination/inoculation

150
Q

a product that produces immunity, therefore protecting the body from disease, administered by injection, mouth, or aerosol

A

vaccine

151
Q

immunization of a population stops the spread of an infectious agent by reducing the number of infectious hosts

A

herd immunity

152
Q

injection of purified or antibody-containing serum to provide rapid, temporary protection or treatment

A

passive immunization

153
Q

when an immune response is triggered because of challenge with an immunogen, long lasting response

A

active immunization

154
Q

vaccine that uses a microbe that is a natural pathogen but has lost virulence through extensive passaging

A

live, attenuated vaccine

155
Q

advantages of live attenuated vaccine

A

create long-lasting and strong immune response, natural delivery = easy to administer

156
Q

disadvantages of live attenuated vaccine

A

special storage, usually can’t be used for immunocompromised people, rare cases of vaccine related illness, long development

157
Q

vaccines that use microorganisms that have been treated to destroy infectivity by heat or formaldehyde

A

inactivated, whole vaccines

158
Q

advantages of inactivated whole vaccines

A

no risk of infection, more lenient storage, easier to produce

159
Q

disadvantages of inactivated whole vaccines

A

not as robust response, some cannot be used in immunocompromised individuals, unimportant antigen may skew immune response

160
Q

subunit vaccine

A

contain only antigenic parts of pathogen

161
Q

advantages of subunit vaccine

A

no risk of infection, more lenient storage, strong and targeted immune response, can be used in immunocompromised individuals, can be combined

162
Q

disadvantages of subunit vaccine

A

may require boosters, can make immune response unbalanced

163
Q

mRNA vaccine w/ UTRs, cap, tail, coding sequence

A

non-replication mRNA vaccine (NRM)

164
Q

mRNA vaccine w/ UTRs, cap, tail, coding sequence, replicase

A

self-amplifying mRNA vaccine (SAM)

165
Q

advantages of RNA vaccine

A

no risk of infection, strong and targeted immune response, can be used in immunocompromised individuals, easy to tailor to new strains

166
Q

disadvantages of RNA vaccines

A

may require multiple boosters, can make unbalanced immune response (new strains), special handling

167
Q

possible outcomes of encounter w/ microorganism

A
  • transient colonization
  • permanent colonization
  • produce disease
168
Q

possible entry methods

A

inhalation, ingestion, injury, sexual contact

169
Q

entry of pathogen or parasite

A

infection

170
Q

damage or loss of tissue or organ function due to infection

A

disease

171
Q

host provides benefit to microorganism, but microorganism does not provide benefit or harm host

A

commensalism

172
Q

both microorganism and host benefit from colonization

A

mutualism

173
Q

microorganism and host benefit from the colonization

A

mutualism

174
Q

microorganism lives at expense of host

A

parasitism

175
Q

microorganism causes disease in host

A

pathogenic

176
Q

non-normal flora organism that are able to infect host and cause disease

A

primary pathogen

177
Q

normal flora organisms that do not normally cause disease but can cause disease if the host is compromised

A

opportunistic pathogens

178
Q

long infections where the pathogen in balance with the host, taking what it needs for existence and causing minimal harm to host

A

chronic infection

179
Q

infections that arise suddenly and are characterized by rapid and dramatic disease onset

A

acute infection

180
Q

measure of the ability of an organism to cause disease

A

pathogenicity

181
Q

number of organisms to colonize 50% of hosts, measure of pathogenicity

A

id50

182
Q

the measure of the severity of disease caused by an organism

A

virulence

183
Q

number of organisms to kill 50% of hosts, measure of virulence

A

ld50

184
Q

disease pathway

A

encounter, entry, spread, multiplication, damage, outcome

185
Q

outcome is manipulated by _ and _

A

diagnosis, treatment

186
Q

person to person dissemination of an organism

A

direct transmission

187
Q

dissemination via an intermediate such as fomite or reservoir

A

indirect transmission

188
Q

sites in which infectious agents remain viable and from which individuals can become infected; can be living or nonliving

A

reservoirs

189
Q

allow pathogen to infect and cause disease in host

A

virulence factors

190
Q

section of genome containing multiple virulence genes

A

pathenogenicity islands

191
Q

decrease or loss of virulence

A

attenuation

192
Q

surface proteins that bind host cell sugars or protein receptors

A

adhesins

193
Q

proteins secreted by bacteria that damage the host cell

A

exotoxins

194
Q

bacterial products or components that are released by bacteria, illicit an immune response

A

endotoxins

195
Q

LPS and LTA are:

A

endotoxins

196
Q

cholera toxin, tetanus toxin are:

A

exotoxins

197
Q

B subunit of AB toxin

A

binds host cell, delivers A to cell

198
Q

A subunit of AB toxin

A

toxic activity

199
Q

types of exotoxins

A

cytolytic, proteases, block protein synthesis, block 2nd messenger pathways, superantigens

200
Q

diagnostic characteristics of S. aureus

A

gram + cocci, non-motile, non-spore forming, catalase +, coag +, grow aerobic and anaerobically

201
Q

entry of S. aureus:

A

skin to skin contact, injury from contaminated object, inhalation, ingestion

202
Q

MSCRAMM

A

microbial surface components recognizing adhesive matrix molecules

203
Q

S. aureus MSCRAMMs that facilitate adherence:

A

elastin, collagen, fibronectin binding proteins

204
Q

binds to fibrin and converts to fibrinogen to clot blood/plasma and shield bacteria against attack by innate immune cells

A

coagulase

205
Q

surface protein that binds the heavy chain in Fc region of antibody to block opsonization activity by IgG

A

protein A

206
Q

cytolytic toxin of S. aureus that is a multisubunit pore forming proten

A

alpha toxin

207
Q

toxin in S. aureus that damages membranes in erythrocytes, fibroblasts, leukocytes

A

beta toxin

208
Q

multi subunit pore forming toxin that primarily effects leukocytes

A

leukocidin

209
Q

high concentrations of leukocidin:

A

causes cell lysis

210
Q

low concentrations of leukocidin:

A

stimulate apoptosis

211
Q

responsible for virulence factor regulation in S. aureus

A

quorum sensing - AGR

212
Q

outer layer of skin, composed of multiple layers of keratinocytes

A

epidermis

213
Q

outer layer of dead keratinocytes

A

stratum corneum

214
Q

complex layer beneath the epidermis that contains sweat glands, nerves, sebaceous glands, capillaries, and erector muscle

A

dermis

215
Q

toxin that causes a sloughing off of top layer of epidermis by hydrolyzing cell junction proteins

A

exfoliative proteins

216
Q

exfoliative dermatitis caused by presence of ET toxin

A

staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

217
Q

test for SSSS, slight pressure separates top layer of skin, creating blister w/ fluid that is free of bacteria and leukocytes

A

Niklosky sign

218
Q

S. aureus food poisoning is a:

A

intoxication

219
Q

superantigen that causes release of cytokines, leakage of endothelial cells at low concentrations, cytotoxic to T cells and APCs at high concentrations

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome toxin

220
Q

infection primarily on face or arms, small red spot which develops in pus filled vesicle that when ruptured spreads organisms to secondary site

A

impetigo

221
Q

infection of hair folliclles

A

folliculitis

222
Q

pus filled boils, underlying pus contains necrotic tissue, bacteria

A

furuncles

223
Q

grouping of furuncles that extend into deeper tissues

A

carbuncles

224
Q

presence of bacteria in blood

A

bacteremia

225
Q

growth of bacteria in the blood

A

septicemia

226
Q

whole body inflammation response that is destructive to tissues

A

sepsis

227
Q

organ failure due to sepsis

A

septic shock

228
Q

inflammation of interior linings of heart valves and chambers

A

acute endocarditis

229
Q

mecA:

A

encodes PBP-2a, does not bind B-lactams

bms602 (8 decks)

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