Exam 1: Coagulation Studies Flashcards

1
Q

What causes acquired platelet dysfunction?

A

Drugs, uremia, liver disease, VWD, and myeloproliferative disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the treatment for platelet dysfunction?

A

Treatment of the underlying cause and platelet transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What happens in splenic sequestration?

A

The spleen takes in the platelets and destroys them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the disorders that cause increased destruction of platelets?

A

Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP). Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC), Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), and thrombotic microangiopathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the two types of thrombotic microangiopathies?

A

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) and hemolytic uremic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Heparin induced thrombocytopenia?

A

New-onset thrombocytopenia while on heparin therapy
-Anti-platelet antibodies cause platelet activation, which increases risk of venous and arterial thrombosis, eventually leading to thrombocytopenia and prothrombotic states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are thrombotic microangiopathies?

A

Characterized by thrombocytopenia due to the incorporation of platelets into thrombi in the micro vasculature and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?

A

Mechanical shearing of RBCs as they pass through platelet-rich micro thrombi in the microvasculature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the difference between acquired and hereditary thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura?

A

Acquired is autoantibodies directed against ADAMTS-13 and hereditary is inherited ADAMTS-13 mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is TTP?

A

A medical emergency of micro thrombi formed throughout the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the Pentad of TTP?

A

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, AKI, neurological deficits, and fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A

Shiga toxin-mediated HUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the etiology of HUS?

A

Shiga toxin producing E. Coli and most have a recent or current diarrheal illness, often hemorrhagic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the triad of HUS?

A

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and AKI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What will be seen on lab work for thrombotic microangiopathies?

A

-Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, PT and aPTT are normal, and AKI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia seen on lab work?

A

Fragmented RBCs (shistocytes), increased LDH, increased indirect bili, decreased serum haptoglobin, and negative Coombs test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the treatment for thrombotic microangiopathies?

A

Plasma exchange and supportive care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What conditions can cause impaired production of platelets?

A

Congenital bone marrow failure, acquired bone marrow failure, exposure to chemo or radiation, bone marrow infiltration, and nutritional deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the coagulation studies?

A

PTT or aPPT, anti Xa, and PT/INR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is PTT or aPTT used to measure?

A

Evaluate the intrinsic and common pathways and used to monitor unfractionated heparin therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is anti-factor Xa used to monitor?

A

Monitors unfractionated heparin and LMWH/Lovenox therapy, preferred over PTT and aPTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does PT measure?

A

Evaluates the extrinsic and common pathways and used to monitor warfarin/Coumadin therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is INR?

A

A more accurate reflection of PT, calculated as a ratio of the patients PT to a control PT.
-Used to monitor warfarin/Coumadin therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is inhibitor screen?

A

Coagulation factor deficiency vs inhibitor protein

25
What is thrombin time?
Measures the final step of coagulation, the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. -Not used as an initial screen
26
What can the fibrinogen lab test indicate?
Low levels can result in impaired clot formation and increased bleeding risk
27
What are the components of the hypercoagulable panel?
- Antithombin - factor V-Leiden - Protein C - Protein S - Prothombin gene mutation - Lupus anticoagulant - MTHFR gene
28
What are the 2 classes of Direct Oral Anticoagulants?
Factor Xa and Oral direct thrombin inhibitors
29
What are the 4 Factor Xa inhibitors?
Fonduparinux, Rivaroxaban, Apixiban, and edoxaban
30
What kind of drug is Dabigatran?
Direct oral thrombin inhibitor
31
Which anticoagulants have to follow 5-10 days of parental anticoagulation?
Dabigatran and Edoxaban
32
What is recommended for patients with a DVT or PE without an underlying malignancy?
DOAC are recommended over Warfarin
33
What is recommended for patients with a DVT or PE in the setting of underlying malignancy?
LMWH
34
What are the baseline labs to obtain if a patient is on UFH?
PT/INR, aPTT, and CBC
35
What labs are ordered for monitoring UFH?
Factor Xa or aPTT
36
What are the baseline labs to order if a patient is on LMWH?
PT/INR, aPTT, CBC, and creatinine (you cant use lovenox if creatinine clearance is less than 30)
37
What labs are used to monitor LMWH?
None, but if required, anti-factor Xa activity testing
38
What are the baseline labs to order if a patient is on a DOAC?
PT/INR, CBC, and creatinine
39
What labs are used for monitoring DOAC use?
None, but is required, anti-factor Xa activity testing
40
What are the baseline labs to order when a patient is put on Warfarin?
PT/INR, aPTT, CBC, creatinine, LFTs
41
What labs do you order to monitor Warfarin use?
PT/INR
42
Warfarin should be administered at an initial dose of ****.
5mg/day
43
Why is a loading dose of Warfarin not recommended?
It may increase hemorrhagic conditions and does not offer rapid protection
44
What does bridging therapy mean in regards to Warfarin use?
Parenteral therapy of UFH or LMWH should overlap with warfarin for at least 5 days and until the INR is therapeutic for a minimum of 24 hours 2 consecutive days
45
When starting a patient on Warfarin, how often should you check their INR?
Daily, then weekly. Once stabilized, every 2-4 weeks.
46
What is the target INR for prophylactic therapy?
1.5-2
47
What is the target INR for VTE?
2-3
48
What is the target INR for a fib?
2-3
49
What is the target INR for mechanical mitral valve? Mechanical aortic valve?
2.5-3.5 2-3
50
What should you do if your patient has an INR of 4.5-10 and no evidence of bleeding?
Hold warfarin and possibly recommend use of PO vitamin K
51
What should you do if your patients INR is greater than 10 and has no evidence of bleeding?
Hold warfarin and give PO vitamin K
52
What should you do if your patient has a Vitamin K antagonist associated major bleeding?
Hold warfarin, rapid reversal of warfarin with PCC, and give IV vitamin K
53
What is the reversal agent of UFH?
Protamine
54
What is the reversal agent for LMWH?
Protamine
55
What is the reversal agent for warfarin?
Vitamin K or 4factor-PCC
56
What is the reversal agent for Direct thrombin inhibitors?
Idarucizumab, and supportive care for non-life threatening bleeding
57
What is the reversal agent for Apixiban and Edoxaban?
Andexanet
58
What is the reversal agent for Rivaroxaban?
Supportive care