Exam 1 Chapters 1-5 Flashcards

1
Q

Scientists seek to understand the _____ that explain natural _____ and _____.

A
  • fundamental principles
  • patterns
  • processes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Science is more than just a body of knowledge. Scientists do which of the following? (choose all that apply)

  • evaluate and create new knowledge with bias
  • use subjective evidence over objective evidence to reach logical conclusions
  • use objective evidence over subjective evidence to reach logical conclusions
  • evaluate and create new knowledge without bias
A
  • use objective evidence over subjective evidence to reach logical conclusions
  • evaluate and create new knowledge without bias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Scientists work to avoid bias is by using which of the following? (choose all that apply)

  • qualitative measurements whenever possible
  • subjective evidence
  • objective evidence
  • quantitative measurements whenever possible
A
  • objective evidence
  • quantitative measurements whenever possible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

An explanation that cannot be tested or does not meet scientific standards is considered

  • paganism
  • pseudoscience
  • science
  • falsifiable
A
  • pseudoscience
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is an objective statement?

  • I observed rain yesterday
  • Geology is an important science
  • Green cupcakes always taste better
  • Everyone should take a geology class
  • My father is a good man
A
  • I observed rain yesterday
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is science normally a slow process?

  • The process of weeding out misinformation and verifying results takes time.
  • Because their work is intense, scientists require lengthy vacations.
  • Arguing with pseudoscientists consumes scientists.
  • Scientific meetings are usually drawn out arguments.
  • All experiments take a long time to complete.
A
  • The process of weeding out misinformation and verifying results takes time.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In the scientific method, which of these steps would normally follow experimentation and sharing of results? (choose all that apply)

  • Hypothesis creation
  • Observation
  • Hypothesis development
  • Peer review
  • Theory development
A
  • Hypothesis creation
  • Observation
  • Hypothesis development
  • Peer review
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following best matches the word theory?

  • A concept widely tested and accepted
  • An idea whose experimental results agree with the hypothesis
  • An idea based on observations
  • A conclusion subjected to peer review
  • An idea undergoing experimentation
A
  • A concept widely tested and accepted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What evidence was found by Galileo that proved the Earth could not be the center of the universe?

  • Moons orbiting around Jupiter
  • Orbit of Saturn
  • Comet return time
  • Asteroid belt
  • Craters on the moon
A
  • Moons orbiting around Jupiter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The idea that the Sun was the center of the Solar System was first proposed by Nicolaus Copernicus in 1543 and is known as the ______.
- Suncentric model
- Heliocentric model
- Geocentric model
- Solar Orbital model

A
  • Heliocentric model
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What simple scientific technique did geologists like Hutton, Steno, and Lyell use to draw fundamental geologic conclusions?

  • Performing experiments to replicate the rock record
  • Digging underground to observe three-dimensional structures
  • Studying gems and metal deposits to understand their geology
  • Comparing ancient rocks/fossils to modern counterparts
  • Analyzing the chemistry of the rock record
A
  • Comparing ancient rocks/fossils to modern counterparts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of these is NOT consistent with uniformitarianism?

  • Erosion occurs in the valley every spring when the rains come. By this logic, the valley will be getting deeper every year.
  • Volcanic eruptions on the sea floor produce islands. Sea floor volcanism will produce more islands
  • Each year, a layer of sediment is laid down. Eventually, a large thickness is made.
  • A large asteroid hit the Earth and caused devastation which killed many species, like the dinosaurs
  • An earthquake moved the ground upward 6 inches. After millions of years, the mountain grew taller.
A
  • A large asteroid hit the Earth and caused devastation which killed many species, like the dinosaurs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which layer of the Earth is liquid?

  • Asthenosphere
  • Outer core
  • Mantle
  • Inner core
  • Lithosphere
A
  • Outer core
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Igneous rocks form by ___________.

  • lithification
  • erosion
  • melting
  • heat and pressure
  • crystallization
A
  • crystallization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Science deniers commonly use three rhetorical arguments. What is the one they don’t generally use?

  • Attack the scientists personally
  • Present alternative scientific data to disprove scientific conclusions
  • Claim the scientific methods are flawed
  • Demand equal time for “balanced” view
A
  • Present alternative scientific data to disprove scientific conclusions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What paradigm shift in geology most changed the way geologists look at the world?

  • Deep time
  • Evolution
  • Plate tectonics
  • Uniformitarianism
  • Extinction
A
  • Plate tectonics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following are evidence for continental drift, and which are evidence for plate tectonics? Select the words “continental drift” or “plate tectonics”

  • Matching fossils and rocks
  • GPS measurements
  • Mid-ocean ridge found
  • Ocean trenches found
  • Matching coastlines
  • Lined-up earthquakes
  • Warm places glaciated
  • Cooler places with tropical fossils
  • Paleomagnetism showing moving rocks
A
  • Matching fossils and rocks (continental drift)
  • GPS measurements (plate tectonics)
  • Mid-ocean ridge found (plate tectonics)
  • Ocean trenches found (plate tectonics)
  • Matching coastlines (continental drift)
  • Lined-up earthquakes (plate tectonics)
  • Warm places glaciated (continental drift)
  • Cooler places with tropical fossils (continental drift)
  • Paleomagnetism showing moving rocks (plate tectonics)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How did scientists first figure out plates could sink into the interior of the planet, since no one can see this happening?

  • Isostasy states that as mountains move upwards, land must also sink elsewhere
  • Lines of progressively-deeper earthquakes near arcs and trenches
  • Earthquake waves mapped the liquid interior of Earth and showed movement
  • It was an inference based on expansion around mid-ocean ridges
  • Measurements via GPS showed ocean basins closing rapidly
A
  • Lines of progressively-deeper earthquakes near arcs and trenches
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following are NOT evidence Wegener used to construct the idea of Continental Drift?

  • Earthquake locations lined up with crustal features
  • Matching the edges of the continental shelves
  • Matching fossils across the ocean
  • Matching mountain belts of similar age and rock ty
  • Evidence of drastic climate shifts in the geologic record
A
  • Earthquake locations lined up with crustal features
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Match the layer of the Earth with the description that fits it best!

  • The lowest density layer
  • The highest density layer
  • The only liquid layer
  • The largest layer by volume
  • The layer plates are made from
  • The layer that moves the plates around
A
  • crust
  • inner core
  • outer core
  • mantle
  • lithosphere
  • asthenosphere
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which layer of the Earth can move internally or flow to allow the plates to move around on it?

  • Lithosphere
  • Outer core
  • Inner core
  • Mantle
  • Asthenosphere
A
  • Asthenosphere
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What makes continental plates different than oceanic plates?

  • Oceanic plates are thicker
  • Oceanic plates are more permanent
  • Oceanic plates are older
  • Continental plates have more volcanoes
  • Continental plates are ductile
A
  • Continental plates are ductile
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What term is used for a boundary between a continent and an ocean basin without relative motion between them?

  • Divergent
  • Passive
  • Convergent
  • Active
  • Transform
A
  • Transform
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What feature is associated with crustal divergence?

  • Volcanic arc
  • Largest earthquakes
  • Trench
  • Mid-ocean ridge
  • Tsunamis
A
  • Mid-ocean ridge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why do continents generally not subduct?

  • Continents are too low in density to subduct
  • Continents are too strongly attached to ocean plates to subduct
  • Ocean plates move faster and do not allow continents to subduct
  • Continents are too ductile to subduct
  • Continents are pushed up by mantle convection, preventing subduction
A
  • Continents are too low in density to subduct
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Examine the image. It shows ________, a freshwater reptile whose fossils Alfred Wegener cited as evidence of continental drift.

  • Lystrosaurus
  • Glossopteris
  • Tyrannosaurus
  • Mesosaurus
A
  • Mesosaurus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What happens as newly formed oceanic crust moves away from the mid-ocean ridge?

  • The crust gets colder
  • The crust thickens
  • Sediment gets thinner
  • The seafloor increases in height
  • The crust gets warmer
A
  • The crust gets colder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Other than midocean ridges, where on Earth can a person view the best example of current (active) rifting?

  • Mariana Trench
  • East Africa
  • Japan
  • Andes
  • Central Australia
A
  • East Africa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

As a rift forms on a continent, what feature can form next?

  • Supercontinent
  • Subduction zone
  • Transform fault
  • Ocean basin
  • Collision
A
  • Ocean basin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What famous transform fault is known for being the boundary between the Pacific Plate and North American Plate in California?

  • Garlock fault
  • Altyn Tagh fault
  • Alpine fault
  • Denali fault
  • San Andreas fault
A
  • San Andreas fault
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What makes transform boundaries different than other boundaries?

  • Transform are older
  • Transform are less common
  • Transform makes more mountains
  • Transform has less earthquakes
  • Transform has less volcanoes
A
  • Transform has less volcanoes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The ________ is a layer in Earth’s interior that is in a liquid state.

  • crust
  • mantle
  • outer core
  • inner core
A
  • outer core
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What makes the Hawaiian hot spot different than the Yellowstone hot spot?

  • Yellowstone’s higher elevation
  • Different types of tectonic plates
  • Different type of mantle below
  • Yellowstone is colder
  • Hawaii has more places for magma to come up
A
  • Different types of tectonic plates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

According to the Wilson Cycle, what feature or process is most likely to occur after collision and formation of a supercontinent?

  • Ocean-continent subduction
  • Rifting
  • Mid-ocean ridge
  • Transform faults
  • Ocean-ocean subduction
A
  • Rifting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What features or processes are common in hot spots?

  • Volcanism
  • Earthquakes
  • Trenches
  • Rifts
  • Arcs
A
  • Volcanism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which plate boundary has the largest and deepest earthquakes?

  • Divergent rift
  • Subduction
  • Mid-ocean ridge
  • Transform
  • Collisional
A
  • Subduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Why are there not as many earthquakes or volcanoes on the east coast of North America as the west coast of North America?

  • The plate boundary on the east coast is purely transform.
  • It is not close to a plate boundary (passive margin).
  • The Atlantic side of the continent moves slower than the Pacific side
  • The crust on the east coast is too thick to allow volcanoes.
  • The crust on the east coast is too thick to allow earthquakes.
A
  • It is not close to a plate boundary (passive margin).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Why did Alfred Wegener never get the support of the scientific community for his hypothesis of continental drift during his lifetime?

  • He could not provide a mechanism for how continents moved is a measure of how much energy is released by the earthquake, but magnitude is a rough measure of local shaking.
  • GPS had not been invented yet to show movement
  • He could not disprove the idea of land bridges
  • He had no evidence for his idea
  • He had an abrasive personality which made people not support him
A
  • He could not provide a mechanism for how continents moved is a measure of how much energy is released by the earthquake, but magnitude is a rough measure of local shaking.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

We are not able to get rocks from deep within the Earth. What is the most direct source of information that allows us to draw conclusions about the interior?

  • Volcanic eruptions
  • Seismic waves
  • Gas measurements
  • Diamond inclusions
  • Drilling
A
  • Seismic waves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which the following are the positively charged particles in an atom’s nucleus?

  • electrons
  • protons
  • neutrons
  • ions
A
  • protons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The resistance of a mineral to scratching or abrasion is known as ________.

  • streak
  • cleavage
  • luster
  • hardness
A
  • hardness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Atoms that have an electrical charge due to a gain or loss of electrons are called ________.

  • isotopes
  • isochrons
  • neutrons
  • ions
A
  • ions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

All of the atoms making up any given element have the same number of ________.

  • electrons in the nucleus
  • neutrons in the outer nuclear shell
  • protons in the nucleus
  • electrons in the outermost valence shell
A
  • protons in the nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Minerals have a crystalline structure. What does this mean?

  • That the atoms are arranged in random order but definite chemical composition.
  • That the atoms are arranged in an orderly, repetitive manner.
  • That the minerals are generally inorganic and not made from life.
  • That the minerals have a definite chemical composition and are made of the same elements.
  • That all minerals form beautiful, visible crystals in the right conditions.
A
  • That the atoms are arranged in an orderly, repetitive manner.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

If a magnesium ion is labeled +2, what does that mean?

  • It has gained two neutrons.
  • It has lost two protons
  • It has gained two electrons
  • It has gained two protons
  • It has lost two electrons
A
  • It has lost two electrons
46
Q

Which of the following is considered to make up a mineral or minerals?

  • A lab-grown diamond
  • A fossil baby tooth
  • Your baby tooth
  • A lump of coal
  • Glass
A
  • A fossil baby tooth
47
Q

When a positively-charged sodium ion is chemically bonded with a negatively-charged chlorine ion to make sodium chloride (i.e. the mineral halite), this is an example of _____.

  • ionic bonding
  • covalent bonding
  • isotopic annealing
  • metallic bonds
  • isotopic annealing
A
  • ionic bonding
48
Q

The igneous mineral olivine has a formula (Fe,Mg)SiO4. What does the (Fe,Mg) mean?

  • The mineral took either Fe or Mg from the magma as needed
  • The mineral has rows of Fe and rows of Mg in its structure
  • The mineral has a random assortment of Fe and Mg
  • The mineral has 50% Fe and 50% Mg
  • The mineral loses Fe and gains Mg over time
A

The mineral took either Fe or Mg from the magma as needed

49
Q

What is the most common mineral formed by life?

  • Quartz
  • Apatite
  • Dolomite
  • Calcite
  • None - Animals can’t make minerals
A
  • Calcite
50
Q

When a mineral precipitates from solution, it ____________.

  • shrinks in size
  • evaporates from a lake
  • crystallizes into a crystal
  • breaks into pieces
  • seeps into the ground
A
  • crystallizes into a crystal
51
Q

What elements are in the silica tetrahedra, the basic unit of silicate minerals?

  • 2 oxygens and 2 silicons
  • 4 oxygens and 4 silicons
  • 1 oxygen and 1 silicon
  • 1 oxygen and 4 silicons
  • 4 oxygens and 1 silicon
A
  • 4 oxygens and 1 silicon
52
Q

Why are only some minerals found as native minerals? For example, iron and aluminum are almost never found as native elements in nature.

  • Earth is too hot for aluminum/iron to occur as natives
  • Most elements are too reactive to occur in native form
  • Native aluminum/iron only forms in the core
  • Earth is too cold for most elements to form natives
  • The native minerals formed at the birth of the Earth
A
  • Most elements are too reactive to occur in native form
53
Q

Regarding the Mohs Hardness Scale table, if a mineral scratches the copper penny but NOT the glass plate, then the hardness is around ____.

  • 7.5
  • 3
  • 4.5
  • 6
  • 1
A
  • 4.5
54
Q

Which mineral identification property involves making powder of a mineral?

  • Cleavage
  • Hardness
  • Streak
  • Color
  • Luster
A
  • Streak
55
Q

What are the two (2) most abundant elements in Earth’s crust?

  • Silicon (Si) & Oxygen (O)
  • Carbon (C) & Hydrogen (H)
  • Iron (Fe) & Aluminum (Al)
  • Silver (Ag) & Gold (Au)
  • Carbon (C) & Oxygen
A
  • Silicon (Si) & Oxygen (O)
56
Q

Select one process by which minerals are NOT made?

  • Acid reactions from rain
  • Precipitating from water
  • Cooling from magma
  • Precipitating from water via organisms
  • Freezing of water
A
  • Acid reactions from rain
57
Q

Where do igneous rocks with a coarse-grained (phaneritic) texture form?

  • deep under the surface.
  • on top of the surface.
  • close to the surface but also just below it.
  • Submarine lava flows.
  • on top of the surface after being ejected into the air.
A
  • deep under the surface.
58
Q

A basaltic intrusion that cuts across layers of sedimentary rocks is called a _______.

  • laccolith
  • stock
  • batholith
  • sill
  • dike
A
  • dike
59
Q

Explosive silica-rich volcanoes will be located mostly at ______.

  • divergent boundaries of the mid-ocean ridge
  • divergent boundaries of the East African Rift
  • convergent plate boundaries with continental to continental plate collisions
  • convergent plate boundaries with subduction zones
A
  • convergent plate boundaries with subduction zones
60
Q

Deep-sea hydrothermal vents (black smokers) are most commonly located at what plate boundary?

  • convergent boundaries with subduction zones
  • divergent boundaries of the East African Rift
  • divergent boundaries of the mid-ocean ridge
  • convergent boundaries with oceanic to oceanic plate subduction
A
  • divergent boundaries of the mid-ocean ridge
61
Q

The largest type of volcano is called a _______ volcano and is characterized by broad, low-angle flanks, a small vent or groups of vents at the top, and basaltic magma.

  • lava dome
  • stratovolcano (composite cone)
  • shield volcano
  • caldera
  • cinder cone
A
  • shield volcano
62
Q

A _______ volcano has steep flanks, symmetrical cone shapes, distinct crater at the top, and a silica-rich magma that results in an explosive eruption style.

  • flood basalt
  • cinder cone
  • caldera
  • shield volcano
  • stratovolcano (or composite volcano)
A
  • stratovolcano (or composite volcano)
63
Q

Which of these relatively recent volcanic eruptions formed a caldera?

  • Yellowstone
  • Mt. St. Helens
  • Mauna Loa
  • Paracutín
  • Mt. Fuji
A
  • Mt. St. Helens
64
Q

What kind of volcanoes make up the Hawaiian Island Chain?

  • cinder cones
  • calderas
  • lava domes
  • stratovolcanoes
  • shield volcanoes
A
  • shield volcanoes
65
Q

Most volcanoes on the sea floor erupt ________.

  • Quietly with basaltic magma
  • Explosively with basaltic magma
  • Quietly with felsic magma
  • Explosively with felsic magma
  • As cinder cones
A
  • Quietly with basaltic magma
66
Q

The Unique Properties of Water: match the correct answer on the right with the phrase on the left. Match all answers correctly

  • Water plays a role in the formation of most
  • It is one of the main agents involved in creating
  • Water is also an agent of
  • Water is an especially unique substance, and integral to the production of

options
- minerals
- sediments and sedimentary rock
- weathering and erosion
- sedimentary rock

A
  • sedimentary rock
  • minerals
  • weathering and erosion
  • sediments and sedimentary rock
67
Q

What property of water causes it to form droplets as it rains?

  • Specific gravity
  • Cohesion
  • Hydrogen bonds
  • Adhesion
A
  • Cohesion
68
Q

Of the following, what property of water makes it the “universal solvent”?

  • Specific heat
  • Adhesion
  • Cohesion
  • Polarity
A
  • Polarity
69
Q

What is the difference between weathering and erosion?

  • Weathering describes how rocks breakdown into smaller pieces, while erosion is the physical removal of those pieces to another location.
  • Weathering describes the physical removal of sediments from one place to another, while erosion is the chemical breakdown that forms those sediments.
  • Weathering describes the physical removal of sediments from one place to another, while erosion is the physical breakdown that forms those sediments.
  • Weathering describes how weather (such as rain and temperature) affects the rocks, while erosion is the physical deposition of sediment into a river.
  • Weathering is when oxygen attacks the rock, while erosion is when water freezes in the cracks causing the rocks to break apart into smaller pieces.
A
  • Weathering describes how rocks breakdown into smaller pieces, while erosion is the physical removal of those pieces to another location.
70
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of chemical weathering?

  • Dissolution
  • Hydrolysis
  • Exfoliation
  • Oxidation
A
  • Exfoliation
71
Q

How do chemical and mechanical weathering work together to create sediment?

  • Chemical weathering adds strength to mechanical weathering
  • Chemical weathering creates surfaces for mechanical weathering to take place
  • Mechanical weathering adds strength to chemical weathering
  • Mechanical weathering creates surfaces for chemical weathering to take place
  • Chemical weathering adds speed to mechanical weathering
A
  • Mechanical weathering creates surfaces for chemical weathering to take place
72
Q

Which of the following is a biochemical sedimentary rock?

  • Shale
  • Fossiliferous sandstone
  • Banded iron formation
  • Coquina
  • Coal
A
  • Coquina
73
Q

What is the most likely cause of a detrital sediment with highly rounded grains?

  • Lack of water in environment
  • Longer distance transported
  • Higher temperatures in environment
  • Shorter time since weathering
  • Stronger bedrock
A
  • Longer distance transported
74
Q

Which sedimentary rock is made of silt and/or clay and splits easily into layers?

  • Mudstone
  • Sandstone
  • Shale
  • Limestone
  • Micrite
A
  • Shale
75
Q

Which of these can indicate a paleocurrent and show the direction water has flowed in the past?

  • Fissile shale
  • Asymmetrical ripple marks
  • Mudcracks
  • Graded bedding
  • Symmetrical ripple marks
A
  • Asymmetrical ripple marks
76
Q

Which of these indicate changing water conditions, from wet to dry?

  • Mudcracks
  • Geopetal structures
  • Sole marks
  • Ripple marks
  • Raindrop impressions
A
  • Mudcracks
77
Q

Soils make which essential element accessible to life?

  • Carbon
  • Nitrogen
  • Phosphorus
  • Hydrogen
  • Calcium
A
  • Nitrogen
78
Q

What do chemical and detrital sedimentary rocks have in common?

  • Both involved water in their formation
  • Both come from older bedrock
  • Both have rounded grains
  • Both were made by erosion
  • Both made by organisms
A
  • Both involved water in their formation
79
Q

What story does a sedimentary rock tell you?

  • Number of organisms present
  • Ideas about temperature in the past
  • Types of volcanoes present
  • Ideas about ancient landscapes
  • Volume of the river that made them
A
  • Ideas about ancient landscapes
80
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the process of diagenesis and lithification of sediment into sedimentary rock?

  • Crystallization
  • Cementation
  • Compaction
  • Deposition
  • Melting
A
  • Melting
81
Q

What is the difference between an objective observation and a subjective observation?

A

An objective observation is based on facts and can be measured or proven by evidence. A subjective observation is influenced by personal feelings, opinions, or perspectives, and may vary from person to person.

82
Q

Why do scientists prefer to use quantitative measurements over qualitative observations?

A

Scientists prefer quantitative measurements because they provide precise numerical data that can be analyzed statistically, allowing for more accurate comparisons and conclusions. Qualitative observations, while valuable, can be subjective and harder to quantify, making them less reliable for scientific analysis.

83
Q

How do numerical values in quantitative measurements contribute to the precision of scientific research?

A

Numerical values in quantitative measurements provide specific, precise data that can be compared and analyzed with accuracy. This precision helps scientists to make reliable conclusions and predictions in their research.

84
Q

Why is it necessary for scientific claims to be falsifiable?

A

Scientific claims need to be falsifiable because it means they can be proven wrong through evidence or experimentation. This ensures that scientific ideas are tested rigorously and can be revised or discarded if they don’t hold up to scrutiny, leading to more accurate and reliable knowledge.

85
Q

How does the scientific review process help eliminate misinformation and establish reliable scientific theories?

A

The scientific review process checks research for accuracy and reliability by having experts examine it before it gets published. This helps prevent misinformation from spreading and ensures that only trustworthy scientific theories are accepted.

86
Q

According to the text, what was Alfred Wegener’s hypothesis regarding continental drift?

A

Alfred Wegner’s hypothesis followed the idea that the continents had been originally connected as a single landmass, later breaking apart and drifting to the positions they are in now over the period of millions of years

87
Q

What evidence did Wegener use to support his hypothesis of continental drift?

A

Wegner’s evidence included the mapping of various coastlines which fit together like puzzle pieces, similarities in coastlines such as South America and Africa, unaware at the time other coastlines were submerged in the ocean which caused a few discrepancies when he was presenting the hypothesis, but were later proven to be true, supporting his work. He found evidence within similarities in rocks, mountains, fossils, and glacial formations which supported his hypothesis of a continental drift.

88
Q

How did Wegener’s synthesis of data and comparison of rocks, mountains, fossils, and glacial formations across oceans contribute to the validity of his hypothesis?

A

Wegener’s synthesis of data from rocks, mountains, fossils, and glacial formations across oceans showed consistent patterns and similarities between continents that were separated by vast distances. This evidence suggested that continents were once joined together and supported Wegener’s hypothesis of continental drift, enhancing its validity by providing a comprehensive explanation for geological phenomena on a global scale.

89
Q

What challenges did Wegener face in gaining acceptance for his hypothesis?

A

Wegener faced challenges in gaining acceptance for his hypothesis of continental drift because his ideas contradicted the prevailing scientific beliefs of the time. Additionally, he lacked a plausible mechanism to explain how continents moved, and some scientists were skeptical of his evidence, leading to resistance and criticism within the scientific community.

90
Q

How did advancements in scientific knowledge, such as the discovery of seafloor spreading, contribute to the acceptance of continental drift as the theory of plate tectonics?

A

The influence of World War II had led to many technological advancements, including the submarine. Using magnetism to measure the ocean, resulted in the discovery of seafloor spreading, supporting Wegner’s hypothesis of the continental drift which was then accepted as theory of plate tectonics; the use of GPS and earthquake data analyses supported this theory. The use of SONAR to map a region of the Atlantic Ocean allowed scientists to create a detailed map of the ocean floor, revealing the Mid-Atlantic Ridge. This proposed the hypothesis of seafloor spreading as the mid-oceanic ridges represented tectonic plate factories.

91
Q

What are the three main ways that minerals are formed in nature, according to the text?

A

Minerals can be formed into a crystalline arrangement when the atoms bond together, the three various ways minerals are formed in nature include by crystallization from a magma that has a temperature change, the biological precipitation by the actions of organisms, and from the precipitation from a direct aqueous solution that underwent temperature change.

92
Q

How does precipitation from aqueous solution contribute to the formation of minerals?

A

Precipitation is a reverse process in which ions within a solution merge to form a solid mineral, it is also dependent on temperature and pressure. Saturation is the process when water contains a high concentration of dissolved minerals and becomes saturated. Precipitation can then occur when the temperature of the solution cools, causing the solute to evaporate.

93
Q

What conditions can lead to precipitation from aqueous solution?

A

Within nature, environmental conditions such as fluctuation in temperature, pressure, or concentration of dissolved minerals in water can cause precipitation. An example being the tufa deposits in Utah, which are formed by the mineral rich springs. Another condition that may cause precipitation from an aqueous solution being evaporation, when water evaporates, it causes an increase in concentration of dissolved minerals becoming saturated, causing the minerals to precipitate out of the solution and form sediments. An example of this being the formation of salt deposits within the Great Salt Lake, as the water evaporates, sediments are left behind due to the high concentration of sodium chloride and salts.

94
Q

How does crystallization from magma occur?

A

Crystallization from magma occurs when molten rock (magma) cools down and solidifies. As the magma cools, minerals within it start to form solid crystals. The specific minerals that crystallize first depend on factors like temperature, pressure, and chemical composition, leading to the formation of various igneous rocks.

95
Q

What organisms are mentioned in the text that are responsible for precipitating minerals?

A

Organisms such as corals and clams, which are marine invertebrates, and radiolaria such as zooplankton, will extract ions from the water and precipitate various minerals in order to form shells and skeletal structures. After these organisms die, their hard parts will then accumulate on the ocean floor and contribute to the formation of sedimentary rocks. Vertebrates and mammals aid in the process of mineral precipitation through bone formation, as the bones are composed of hydroxycarbonate apatite, and become fossilized after the organism dies.

96
Q

How is texture related to the cooling history of igneous rocks?

A

The texture of igneous rocks is related to the cooling history of the molten magma from where it came from. As the magma slowly cools down deep inside the earth’s crust, it creates an intrusive or plutonic rock.

97
Q

What is the difference between intrusive and extrusive igneous rocks in terms of texture?

A

Intrusive igneous rocks form underground from slowly cooling magma and typically have coarse-grained textures due to the longer cooling period, allowing larger crystals to form. Extrusive igneous rocks form on the Earth’s surface from rapidly cooling lava and generally have fine-grained or glassy textures because they cool quickly, preventing large crystals from forming-

98
Q

Explain the porphyritic texture and the cooling history it represents.

A

Porphyritic texture is the process of magma going through multi-stage cooling history, as it cools slowly and deep under the surface where it will later rise to a shallower depth or the surface where it will cool at a quicker rate.

99
Q

Describe the pegmatitic texture and the process of its formation.

A

Pegmatitic texture results from the process of residual molten material being released from various igneous intrusions and form veins or masses which contain large crystals of mineral.

100
Q

What causes the formation of vesicular texture in volcanic rocks?

A

Vesicular texture is created when the gases within magma are dissolved creating volatiles,as the magma rises , the decrease in pressure causes these volatiles to create a bubbling solution and becomes trapped as the lava cools, creating vesicles within the rock.

101
Q

According to the text, how are volcanoes formed at plate boundaries? Provide evidence.

A

Interplate volcanoes, which are the most common volcanoes, are located at active plate boundaries; they are created by volcanism within mid-ocean ridges, subduction zones, and continental drifts.

102
Q

What is the significance of interplate volcanoes? Explain with supporting details.

A

Interplate volcanoes, which are located along divergent plate boundaries, aid in the formation of new crust on the earth’s surface through the process of basaltic magma being erupted, contributing to underwater ecosystems. Interplate volcanoes support unique deep sea ecosystems in mid-ocean ridges, where chemosynthesis sustains various life forms within that extreme environment.

103
Q

Describe the characteristics of the volcanoes on the ocean floor along mid-ocean ridges. Use evidence from the text.

A

Volcanism that occurs on the ocean floor along mid-ocean ridges refers to a from of divergent plate boundary, theses interplate volcanoes are located 3,000 - 4,500 m under the ocean. The underwater interplate volcanic eruptions are slow and gentle. The ultramafic mantle rock generates basaltic magma, resulting in almost all volcanoes on the ocean floor being basaltic.

104
Q

How do seafloor eruptions contribute to the development of underwater ecosystems? Support your answer with information from the text.

A

When the interplate volcanoes erupt, basaltic lava is released forming pillow basalts, allowing fro underwater ecosystems to flourish deep within the ocean around mid-ocean ridges. Surviving around hydrothermal vents, which emit hot mineral rich water, while utilizing chemosynthesis.

105
Q

Explain how chemosynthesis enables organisms to survive around deep-sea hydrothermal vents. Cite evidence from the text.

A

Chemosynthesis is the process in which bacteria has the ability to turn into hydrogen sulfide, providing life supporting nutrients and water. Large organisms within these deep water ecosystems then consume these bacteria and absorb the nutrients and water that was produced by the bacteria.

106
Q

What are the two main categories of sedimentary rocks mentioned in the text?

A

The two main categories of sedimentary rock are chemical & mechanical sedimentary rock. Chemical sedimentary rock is formed when water agents create minerals within the rock, altering the internal structure where the original rock decomposes and becomes a stable mineral; this process includes carbonic acid and hydrolysis, dissolution and oxidation. Mechanical weathering is the process of breaking down rocks into smaller pieces, the agents of this process being temperature, pressure, plant or animal activity, salt evaporation, and freezing/thawing cycle of water.

107
Q

How are clastic rocks classified, and what are the criteria for classification?

A

Clastic rocks are classified by grain shape, grain size, and sorting, being consisted of preexisting sediment pieces from weathered bedrock The Wentworth scale grades the clastic rock sediment grain size from large to small, this will classify the grains by categorizes such as clay, silt, sand, pebbles, boulders and cobbles.

108
Q

What is the process of lithification, and how does it contribute to the formation of clastic sedimentary rocks?

A

Lithification is the process by which loose grains are turned into clastic sedimentary rock through a 3 step process of deposition, compaction, and cementation. Deposition is the process of friction and gravity overcoming the forces of sediment transport which allow the sediment to accumulate, Compaction is when the accumulated sediment material are squeezed together to remove water. Cementation includes the process of cementing minerals which coat the sediment grains where they glue together to form a fused rock.

109
Q

Describe the process of diagenesis and its role in the formation of sedimentary rocks.

A

Diagenesis is a low temperature form of rock metamorphism, where the sediments are chemically altered by pressure and heat. During diagenesis the pore space and volume of the sedimentary rock grains can be altered, this occurs through the processes of cementation, compaction, and lithification.

110
Q

What are chemical sedimentary rocks, and how are they different from clastic rocks?

A

Chemical sedimentary rocks are classified by mineral composition, with most being monomineralic, which consist of being composed of a single mineral with the rock being named associated with the single mineral. A chemical sedimentary rock can be classified by The Dunham classification which primarily focuses on rock texture, or the Folk Classification which deals with rock grains.