Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q
Which of the following provisions of the Securities Act of 1933 CANNOT be used for an initial public offering of securities?
A Rule 144
B Rule 147
C Regulation A
D Regulation D
A

A.

Rule 144 can only be used to sell unregistered stock if a public trading market in the security already exists. Selling in compliance with the rule registers those shares. It cannot be used for an initial public offering.

IPOs are exempt from registration if the private placement exemption requirements are met (Regulation D), or if the issue is sold “intra-state” (under the provisions of a Rule 147 exemption).

If a small amount is sold (under $50,000,000), Regulation A provides for an exemption from registration.

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2
Q

Which of the following MUST be disclosed on trade confirmations?
I The amount of any commission charged in an agency trade
II The amount of any mark-up in a principal trade of a non-NASDAQ security
III The capacity in which the firm acted
IV In an agency trade, the name of the other party to the trade and the time of the trade; or a statement that such information is available upon request
A I and II only
B I, II, III
C II, III, IV
D I, III, IV

A

D.

Under SEC Rule 10b-10:

  • disclosure on confirmations must include the amount of any commission disclosed in an agency trade.
  • There is no requirement to disclose the mark-up in a principal transaction unless the security is included in the NASDAQ System.
  • The confirmation must disclose the capacity in which the firm acted (either agent or principal);
  • In an agency trade, the name of the other party to the trade and the time of the trade must be made available upon request.
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3
Q
In an inter-dealer trade of a Global Market stock between a market maker quoting that stock in the NASDAQ System and a non-market maker that accesses the quote in the System, who is required to report the trade to the NASDAQ TRF?
A Buy side
B Sell side
C Market maker
D Non-market maker
A

C.

Under ACT reporting rules for the NASDAQ TRF (Trade Reporting Facility), the executing member reports the trade. The market maker posting the quote in the NASDAQ system received the report from the non-market maker and executed it, so the market maker is the executing member and reports the trade within 10 seconds (during the hours that ACT is open).

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4
Q

A FINRA member firm sponsors a blog about investing that it shows on its website. A registered representative at the firm copies and pastes content from the blog to a public investing website, along with the registered representative’s contact information. This action is:

A prohibited under FINRA rules
B permitted only with prior principal approval of the posting
C permitted only if the content is filed 10 business days in advance with FINRA
D permitted only if the FINRA name is included in the posting along with a hyperlink to the FINRA website

A

B.

The issue here is that the firm-sponsored blog content would be principal approved, but the registered representative copying and pasting that content to a “public investing website” along with the rep’s contact information is a different use of the content - and this would require prior principal approval as well. Prior filing is only required with FINRA for the firm’s first year of operations. The FINRA name does not have to be used on a member website, but if it is used, it must be in smaller letters than the firm’s name and must be hyperlinked to the FINRA website.

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5
Q

A municipal dealer receives a written complaint from a customer. Under MSRB rules, which statements are TRUE?
I A principal must personally handle the complaint
II A principal may delegate the handling of the complaint
III A principal must approve the resolution of the complaint
IV Copies of the complaint, and documentation of any action taken, must be retained for 3 years
A I and III
B II and III
C I, II, IV
D II, III, IV

A

B.

The principal does not have to personally handle customer complaints - this work can be delegated to someone else.

However, the principal is responsible for the complaint’s handling and resolution. Copies of complaints, with actions taken, must be retained for 6 years under MSRB rules.

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6
Q

The responsibilities of the BOM include:
I Approval of new accounts and transactions in accounts
II Ascertainment of the good character of applicants for registration
III Maintenance of personnel files for branch employees
IV Review of securities business related incoming correspondence directed to registered representatives
A I and II
B III and IV
C I, II and IV
D I, II, III, IV

A

D.

The BOM has responsibility for:

  • account approval and transaction approval in customer accounts;
  • for ascertaining the good character, business repute, qualifications, and experience of each applicant for registration in the branch;
  • for reviewing incoming correspondence directed to representatives in the branch and outgoing correspondence from representatives to their customers.

As far as having responsibility for maintaining personnel files of branch employees, this one is “debatable,” but we think that the answer is “yes” to this one as well. Most personnel record information originates in the branch, and the records are usually kept at both the branch location and a central HR location.

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7
Q
All of the following statements are true regarding margin EXCEPT all:
A listed stocks are marginable
B over-the-counter stocks are marginable
C U.S. Government bonds are marginable
D listed bonds are marginable
A

B.

Under Regulation T of the Federal Reserve, all listed securities are marginable.

In order for an over-the-counter security to be marginable, it must be approved for margin by the Federal Reserve. Currently, the Fed approves all NASDAQ securities for margin. Other selected OTC issues are also on the OTC “margin list.”

All Government and Municipal issues are marginable under the maintenance margin rules of FINRA. The Federal Reserve cannot set margins for the issues because they are exempt from the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. The Act of 1934 only empowers the Fed to set margins for non-exempt securities.

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8
Q

A tender offer is being made for ABC shares. Exercise is required in order for the holder to tender which of the following?

A ABC call options
B ABC rights
C ABC warrants
D All of the above

A

A.

Do not confuse the requirements for tender offers with the requirements for marking order tickets to sell “long”! Tender offers very often have a contingency where a specified percentage of the shares must be tendered for the deal to go through; and another contingency where if there is an over-tender beyond the stated percentage, the issuer can either accept the overage or can return the overage.

Therefore, in a tender offer, not only can the common stock be tendered, but the convertible securities can be tendered without giving instructions to convert, and rights and warrants can be tendered without exercising. If the offer is not accepted, these are returned. If the offer is accepted, the maker of the offer will accept the convertibles and convert them (if there is an over-tender, the excess convertibles are returned unconverted) and rights and warrants will be exercised, with the maker of the offer paying the cash difference between the exercise price and the tender offer price to the person who tendered (if there is an over-tender, any unexercised rights or warrants are returned).

Note that call options cannot be accepted because they are not an issuer-created security - exercises go through the OCC - not through the transfer agent. However, if the holder of a call option exercises, the resulting shares received can be tendered!

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9
Q

Which order is NOT permitted to be executed in the NASDAQ Market Center Execution System?
A A riskless principal trade for an institutional customer
B A block trade of 1,000,000 shares for a pension plan
C A proprietary short sale
D A small agency order for a retail client

A

B.

The NASDAQ Market Center Execution System accepts market, marketable limit, and limit orders to buy, sell long, and sell short. The system may be used for both proprietary trades and agency trades. Order size in the system is limited to 999,999 shares, making Choice B too large of an order to be placed as a single trade.

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10
Q

FINRA requires that a “readily apparent reference and hyperlink to BrokerCheck” be included on:
A the initial web page of the broker-dealer
B electronic trade confirmations
C electronic statements
D electronic member firm directories

A

A.

In order to expand the visibility of BrokerCheck to existing and potential clients of broker-dealers, in 2016, FINRA required member firms to include a “readily apparent reference and hyperlink” to BrokerCheck on the initial web page of the broker-dealer and any page that includes the professional profile of an associated person who conducts business with retail investors.

Note that this is not required on electronic trade confirmations, account statements or member firm directories.

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11
Q

A registered representative in your office is also the beneficiary of a trust that directs its securities trades to that representative for execution. This arrangement is:

A prohibited because it is a conflict of interest
B permitted if the registered representative is the sole beneficiary of the trust
C permitted if the arrangement is approved in writing by the branch manager
D permitted if the registered representative holds a power of attorney over the account

A

B.

The trustee is a fiduciary that must act in the best interests of the trust beneficiary or beneficiaries. The trustee chooses the broker to execute the portfolio transactions, and must act in the best interests of the beneficiary when doing so. If the trustee selects the broker that also happens to be the beneficiary of the trust, so be it! Note, however, that this gets stickier if there are multiple beneficiaries to the trust - because one beneficiary (the registered representative) would be getting a disproportionate benefit by earning the commissions on the directed portfolio trades; and the commission cost is being borne by the other beneficiaries in the trust. In such a case, then there is a conflict of interest that would prohibit such an arrangement unless the other beneficiaries approved.

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12
Q

Which statement is TRUE concerning quotes entered into the non-NASDAQ OTC Bulletin Board?

A Quotes must be firm and 2-sided
B All quotes must be unfirm and can be either 1- or 2-sided
C BW may be placed by a dealer seeking to sell stock
D The minimum quote size is 100 shares

A

C.

The “OTC Bulletin Board” (run by FINRA) shows quotes for securities that do not qualify for a NASDAQ listing. It lists firm quotes at the top of the screen, followed by “unfirm” quotes (meaning the dealer wants to negotiate on price - note that these quotes are prohibited in NASDAQ). In the OTCBB, both 2-sided and 1-sided quotes are permitted. In contrast, only 2-sided firm quotes can be entered in NASDAQ.

In addition, dealers can place “BW” and “OW” entries for positions (Bids Wanted and Offers Wanted) and can place unpriced indications of interest in securities positions. BW would be used by a dealer who is seeking to sell stock. OW would be used by a dealer who is looking to buy stock.

Minimum quote size is dependent on the price of the underlying security. Depending on the price level of the quotation, a different minimum size can apply to each side of the market being quoted by the member in a given security.

Priced (Firm) Bid or Offer Minimum Quote Size
$.0001 - .0999 10,000 shares
$.10 - $.1999 5,000 shares
$.20 - $.5099 2,500 shares
$.51 - $.9999 1,000 shares
$1.00 - $174.99 100 shares
$175+ 1 share

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13
Q

Any purchaser of an Initial Public Offering of a “Pink Sheet” stock:

A must be provided with a copy of the prospectus if the purchase occurs within 25 days of the effective date

B must be provided with a copy of the prospectus if the purchase occurs within 40 days of the effective date

C must be provided with a copy of the prospectus if the purchase occurs within 90 days of the effective date

D is not required to be provided with the prospectus

A

C.

The prospectus delivery rules following the effective date are as follows:

  • 90 days: IPO of the security that is NOT exchange listed (e.g., OTCBB and Pink Sheets):
  • 40 days: Add on Offering of a security that is NOT exchange listed
  • 25 days: Security that is exchange listed
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14
Q

Which security MUST be registered with the SEC?
A Port authority revenue bond
B Bank CD in the amount of $10 million
C Debenture shelf offering of $100 million
D Regional bank stock sold in an add on offering

A

C.

Debentures are corporate non-exempt securities that must be registered with the SEC. A revenue bond is a municipal bond and is exempt. Any bank offering or bank stock is also exempt.

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15
Q

A “bona fide” customer, to whom a copy of a member firm’s statement of financial condition must be provided upon request, is defined as a person who:

A has cash or securities in the possession of the member
B has traded through the member within the past 3 months
C is not a member of FINRA
D has engaged in any business transaction with the member within the past 12 months

A

A.

Under FINRA rules, bona fide customers must be provided with the latest copy of the firm’s balance sheet upon request. Members must also provide this information to other member firms. A bona fide customer is defined as one who has cash or securities in the possession of the broker-dealer.

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16
Q

Under FINRA rules, the requirement to provide an educational brochure to former customers who are solicited to move their accounts by a registered representative who has moved to another firm applies for a period of:

A 1 month after the representative begins employment with the new firm

B 3 months after the representative begins employment with the new firm

C 6 months after the representative begins employment with the new firm

D 12 months after the representative begins employment with the new firm

A

B.

FINRA Rule 2273 covers the situation where a representative moves from one broker-dealer to another, and solicits his or her former customers to move their accounts to the new firm. FINRA requires that if such a solicitation is made, an educational brochure must be provided to the former customer with any written solicitation, or if the solicitation is oral, the written brochure must be sent within 3 business days.

The brochure details that:

  • The representative may receive incentives from the new firm that create a conflict of interest;
  • Some assets may not be transferable, so they would either have to be liquidated and the cash transferred; or if they remain at the old firm, they may be subject to higher account maintenance fees;
  • Fee structures can be different at the 2 firms, and the new firm might have higher fees; and
  • Products and services available at each firm can be different.

This brochure must be delivered for the 3-month window following the representative’s association with the new firm. Finally, the rule also applies if the former customer seeks to transfer assets to another firm without being individually contacted. Then the customer must get the brochure with the approved account transfer documentation.

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17
Q

Which of the following are defined as “branch” offices of your firm by FINRA?
I A home office of a registered representative where the representative regularly meets with customers
II An office sublet by your firm to another FINRA member firm
III An office location of your firm listed in a telephone directory
IV An office shared with another company that is not in the securities business

A III only
B II and IV
C I, III, IV
D I, II, III, IV

A

C. FINRA defines a branch office as a location where underwriting or securities business is performed or one that is advertised as such.

Under this definition, a home office of a registered representative is not a “branch” as long as the location is not advertised as a branch; the representative does not meet customers at that office; and the representative does not accept cash or securities at that office. Since this representative is meeting customers at his or her home office, this falls under the branch definition.

An office listed in a phone directory is being “advertised” and therefore is a branch; and an office shared with another type of business is also your branch (since you would be paying your share of expenses).

An office sublet by your firm to another FINRA firm is the other firm’s branch office - not your firm’s.

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18
Q

All of the following investments are allowed in an HR 10 plan EXCEPT:
A Cash life insurance
B Whole life insurance
C Term life insurance
D Variable annuity with plan completion insurance

A

C.

The permitted investments for Keogh plans are:

  • CDs;
  • securities;
  • U.S. minted gold coins;
  • gold and silver bullion; and
  • the cash value of life insurance.

Variable annuities are defined as a security, and hence are permitted. Cash life insurance and whole life insurance have cash values and are permitted. Term life is a pure insurance product with no cash value, and hence is not permitted.

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19
Q

A Series 7 licensed registered representative leaves the employ of Broker-Dealer A to try a new career as a hair stylist. He leaves that business after working for 22 months because he was called up for active duty in the military. Upon return from military service 24 months later, he decides that he no longer wants to be a hair stylist and wishes to re-enter the securities business. He interviews with Broker-Dealer B and is hired 70 days after returning from active military duty. Which statement is TRUE about requalification of this individual?

A This individual must retake and pass the Series 7 exam in order to be requalified

B This individual must take Regulatory Element CE in order to be requalified

C This individual must retake and pass the Series 7 exam and must take Regulatory Element CE in order to be requalified

D This individual will be relicensed without being required to retake the Series 7 exam and returns to the normal Regulatory Element CE schedule

A

D.

FINRA has interpreted that it will grant “special inactive status” not only to currently registered individuals who are called up for active military duty, but it will also do so for anyone who is called up for active military duty in the 24 months following termination of association with a member. This keeps the person’s licensing exam from lapsing and excuses the individual from the CE obligation until that individual returns from active military duty, as long as he or she reassociates with a member firm within 90 days of return from service. This is the case in this example, so Choice D is correct.

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20
Q

A prospective new hire has been interviewed by the firm and offered a position that requires registration. When completing the U4 application, the individual discloses that, 8 years ago, he was convicted of the misdemeanor of shoplifting an item worth $30 from a Target department store when he was 16 years old. This has resulted in his application being denied because this subjects the individual to statutory disqualification under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. The broker-dealer still wants to hire this person. Which statement is TRUE about onboarding this individual?

A This individual cannot be hired by the broker-dealer

B This individual can be hired by the broker-dealer only after another 2 years elapse

C This individual can be hired by the broker-dealer only if FINRA approves after completing an Eligibility Proceeding

D This individual can be hired by the broker-dealer only if FINRA approves after completing an Eligibility Proceeding and the SEC approves that decision

A

D.

If an individual is subject to statutory disqualification, he or she cannot be associated with a member firm. FINRA recognizes that the “statutory disqualification” definition is quite broad and exceptions might be justified. For example, if an individual is convicted of any felony within the past 10 years, this is a reason for statutory disqualification - and a DUI is usually a felony. Should a person who had one drunk driving felony conviction, went to counseling, and never had another problem be barred from the securities industry? Is this person a risk to investors? It is this type of situation that the Eligibility Proceeding is designed to address.

Statutory Disqualification can be overcome and the person can be registered if the Eligibility Proceeding process is completed. Member Regulation will review the gravity and nature of the disqualifying event, the length of time that has elapsed after the event, whether any intervening misconduct has occurred, and any other mitigating or aggravating factors, to determine if the registration application should be approved. Its findings are given to FINRA National, which will schedule a hearing attended by the applicant, the member firm, his or her attorney, along with a representative of Member Regulation and an attorney for FINRA. After the hearing, the Statutory Disqualification Committee (SD Committee) meets to consider the application and presents a recommendation to the FINRA National Adjudicatory Council for a final decision. If FINRA approves the application, it must file a notice with the SEC under Rule 19h-1 and the SEC must review and approve that decision before it takes effect.

21
Q

Which of the following actions is allowed when a new issue is “in registration”?
I The publication of an advertisement meeting the requirements for a tombstone announcement
II The mailing of a preliminary prospectus to interested individuals
III The acceptance of indications of interest
IV The acceptance of deposits on the new issue
A I and II
B III and IV
C I, II, III
D I, II, III, IV

A

C.

When a new issue is “in registration,” an offer or sale of the issue cannot be made. This is allowed only when the registration becomes effective. Prior to the effective date, the following are not legally considered to be offers: the mailing of a preliminary prospectus (red herring); the acceptance of an indication of interest (which is completely non-binding); and the publication of a “tombstone announcement” - which is so limited in nature that it is not considered an advertisement. The acceptance of a deposit is prohibited, since this is considered to be a binding contract of sale. This cannot occur until the effective date.

22
Q
FINRA supervisory rules require annual compliance reviews of the activities of all of the following EXCEPT:
A Offices of supervisory jurisdiction
B Non-supervisory branch offices
C Registered representatives
D Registered principals
A

B.

Under FINRA supervisory rules, each Office of Supervisory Jurisdiction must be reviewed at least annually to ensure compliance with all industry regulations; and each registered representative and registered principal must be interviewed or participate in an annual meeting at which compliance matters that are relevant are discussed. FINRA’s Supervisory rules require periodic inspection of customer account records in the branch offices.

Regarding inspection of the branches, supervisory branches must be inspected at least annually; non-supervisory branches must be inspected at least every 3 years.

23
Q

Under SEC Rule 10b-10, all of the following information is required on customer confirmations for NASDAQ trades EXCEPT:
A whether the firm acted as agent or principal in the transaction
B difference between the reported trade price and the price to the customer
C whether the order was solicited or unsolicited
D dual agency, if applicable

A

C.

There is no requirement to disclose on a customer confirmation if the order was solicited or unsolicited (though many firms choose to do this).

Must be disclosed for NASDAQ trades:
-The capacity (agent or principal) in which the firm acted must be disclosed.

  • The commission must be disclosed in agency trades for all securities; and the mark-up or mark-down must be disclosed for principal transactions in NASDAQ securities.
  • If dual agency is applicable (an agency cross - that is, crossing an order to buy and an order to sell at the prevailing market), this must be disclosed as well.
24
Q

Under Rule 144, control stock that is purchased in the open market can be sold:
A immediately
B after a 6 month holding period has elapsed
C after a 1 year holding period has elapsed
D after a 2 year holding period has elapsed

A

A.

Under Rule 144, control stock that is purchased in the open market can be sold immediately (if they are bought in the open market, the shares must be registered). However, the 1% and 4 week trading average limits on sale must still be met. Restricted stock (unregistered stock acquired through a private placement) can only be sold under Rule 144 after having been held for 6 months, fully paid.

25
Q
If a customer requests to be placed on the firm’s “Do Not Call” list, the record of this must be retained for:
A 1 year
B 3 years
C 5 years
D 7 years
A

C.

Any person that requests to be placed on either a firm’s internal, or the national, “Do Not Call” list, stays on that list indefinitely. The FINRA (firm) rule on this is the same at the FTC (national) rule. This changed in mid-2012 from the old rule requiring 5 year retention. Note, however, that FINRA has been slow in making test updates and the test may not reflect the rule change. Since indefinitely is not offered as a choice, 5 years must be chosen in this question. (On the other hand, if “indefinitely” were given as a choice, then the question has been updated and this would be the answer - and also note that the old rule of 5 years would not be offered as a choice in the updated question.)

26
Q

Under the FINRA 5% Policy, in an inactive competitive market, the prevailing market price to be used for mark-down purposes is the:
A last sale
B contemporaneous purchases from other dealers
C contemporaneous sales to other dealers
D highest bid price

A

B.

If a security is trading in an inactive competitive market, the FINRA 5% Policy states that the basis for the computation of the mark-up or mark-down percentage is:
-For sales to customers where a mark-up is charged, contemporaneous sales to other dealers; Sales are marked up

-For purchases from customers where a mark-down is charged, contemporaneous purchases from other dealers. Purchases are marked down.

27
Q
The Manning Rule covers:
A market orders
B limit orders
C stop orders
D GTC orders
A

B.

The “Manning Rule” is another name for the Limit Order Protection Rule, which prohibits member firms from trading ahead of customer limit orders.

28
Q
Records of all advertising must be retained by FINRA member firms for:
A 2 years
B 3 years
C 6 years
D indefinitely
A

B.

Under FINRA rules, copies of all advertising with required approvals must be kept on file for 3 years.

29
Q

A corporation wishes to place a large purchase order to buy its own stock for the company’s Employee Stock Option Plan (ESOP). The current inside market for the stock is $20.00 - $20.50. The last trade in the stock occurred at $20.10. What is the highest price at which the company can purchase its own shares?
A Any price that is reasonably related to the current market
B $20.00
C $20.10
D $20.50

A

C.
Rule 10b-18 sets the guidelines for corporation that wishes to buy back its stock in the market. The rules gives the company a “safe harbor” from being accused of trying to manipulate up the price of its stock.

Rule 10b-18 purchases, as they are known:

  • Must be effected through 1 broker/dealer on any given day;
  • Cannot be the opening transaction;
  • Cannot be executed within 10 minutes of market close if the security is “actively traded” as designated by Rule 101 of Regulation M, otherwise the purchase cannot be executed within 30 minutes of market close;
  • Must be effected at prices no higher than the current highest independent bid for that security or last reported sale price (whichever is higher);
  • Cannot exceed 25% of the trading volume in the security that day (except for block purchases handled outside the normal flow of orders).

The last reported trade of $20.10 is higher than the current inside bid of $20.00, so the stock can be purchased at a price no higher than $20.10.

30
Q

All investment company advertising must be filed with FINRA:
A 10 business days prior to 1st use
B 10 business days prior to use for the 1st year of operations; no filing is required thereafter
C 10 business days after 1st use
D 10 business days after 1st use for the 1st year of operations; no filing is required thereafter

A

C.

Under FINRA rules:
+Retail communications must be filed 10 business days AFTER 1st use:
-Investment Companies,
-CMO,
-registered Structured Products
-registered Direct Participation Program (DPP) .

+Retail communications must be filed 10 business days prior to 1st use:
-Options

All other retail communications must be filed 10 business days prior to first use for the first year of operations; thereafter, no filing is required, but they are subject to spot check.

31
Q
Under MSRB rules, an order ticket for an agency transaction must include all of the following EXCEPT:
A time of order receipt
B time of order entry
C time of order execution
D time of order cancellation
A

B.

Note that there is no requirement to note the time of order entry on the ticket.

Under MSRB rules, the following must be noted on agency order tickets:

  • Terms and conditions of the order.
  • Date and time of receipt of the order.
  • The price at which the trade was executed.
  • The date of execution, and to the extent feasible, the time of execution.
  • If the account is that of a partnership, corporation, a joint account, or an order entered pursuant to a power of attorney, the name and address (if other than the account address) of the person entering the order.
  • If the order is canceled by a customer, the record must show the terms, conditions and date of cancellation, and to the extent feasible, the time of cancellation.
  • If the trade is discretionary, the ticket must be designated as such.
32
Q
Under Rule 204 of Regulation SHO, if a security that is sold short is not delivered on settlement, mandatory buy-in must occur at the market:
A opening on T+3
B closing on T+3
C opening on T+5
D closing on T+5
A

A.

Rule 204 of Regulation SHO mandates the buy in of all short sales where there is a fail to deliver on “T+3” (the morning of the business day after settlement), which is the same as S+1.

33
Q
Which of the following positions can be held in a non-securities credit account?
A Precious metals
B Foreign currency options
C Money market funds
D Exchange traded notes
A

A.
Regulation T only allows securities positions to be held in cash, margin or arbitrage accounts.
These are all securities:
-Foreign currency options are PHLX-traded and are a security;
-money market funds are an investment company security; and
-exchange traded notes (ETNs) are an equity index-linked structured product that are usually AMEX (NYSE American-listed).

On the other hand, “non-securities” positions, which have different margin rules, include precious metals, commodities and futures contracts. These positions are held in a “non-securities” credit account.

34
Q

A member firm wishes to send its customers a weekly outbound telemarketing call that gives the firm’s “top picks” for that week. Which statement is TRUE about this?

A This is prohibited under FINRA rules

B This is permitted only if the firm obtains the express written consent of each person to receive such calls

C This is permitted if FINRA is included on the telemarketing list

D This is permitted without restriction

A

B.

Outbound prerecorded telemarketing calls that solicit business for a member firm cannot be made under FINRA rules unless the firm gets the express written consent of each recipient.

Note that this rule applies to solicitations - it does not apply to informational prerecorded messages.

35
Q

After discussing investment objectives and needs with a potential new customer, the client decides to open a new account with your firm. The customer wishes to open a margin account by depositing a $50,000 cashier’s check and acting on the representative’s purchase recommendations. What procedure should be followed regarding the opening of the account?
A The account can be opened for the customer, but nothing can be done in the account until the check clears
B The account cannot be opened for the customer
C The account can be opened for the customer by depositing the cashier’s check and the recommended investments can be made the same day
D The account can be opened for the customer but the check does not need to be verified because verification is performed by the issuing bank

A

A.

In this situation we have a new customer that is depositing a large cashier’s check to open the account. There is nothing inherently suspicious about being paid in a cashier’s check - such a check is drawn on the account of the bank itself (and thus will not bounce for “insufficient funds”). The best choice would be to contact the issuing bank and verify the check before “opening” the account with the first transaction, due to the large size of the check. But this is not given as a choice! So the second best way is to verify that the check is good by letting it clear before effecting transactions in the account.

36
Q

A market maker in an OTCBB stock is quoting the stock at:
bid(BOB)-offer(SOA)
$10.00 - $10.25
10 x 10

The quote represents the inside market. A customer enters an order to buy 200 shares of the stock at $10. Under SEC rules, the market maker:

A must sell 200 shares at $10.00
B must update its quote size to 10 x 12
C must update its quote size to 12 x 10
D is not required to take any action

A

C.

This customer order to buy cannot be filled right now because the best offer price is at $10.25 and this customer wants to pay no more than $10.00 per share. The dealer is already willing to buy 1,000 shares at $10.00. Since the customer wants to buy 200 shares at $10, the dealer’s bid must be updated to reflect the fact that there are now orders to buy 1,200 shares at $10 in the market. SEC rules require that the quote be updated within 30 seconds to reflect this. Do not confuse this with the 10-second trade reporting rule.

37
Q

A registered representative in your branch office is also a certified financial planner. The representative wishes to make a financial planning presentation to an existing client that has not purchased a financial plan and has pulled up the client’s account statements for the previous 2 years so that he can review them and send the customer a proposal. Which statement is TRUE? This action is:
A prohibited because the representative must get the client’s permission to review his or her previous account activity
B prohibited unless the registered representative has also been registered as an adviser representative
C permitted because the representative has earned the certified financial planner designation
D permitted because the representative is not soliciting a new client

A

B.

Financial plans are “advisory products.” To sell these, the firm must be registered as an “investment adviser” in each state where the plans are offered and the representatives offering the plans must be registered as “investment adviser representatives” in the state. As a requirement of registration, the adviser representative must have passed either the Series 65 or Series 66 exam that is administered by NASAA - North American State Administrators Association. Note that having passed the CFP exam does not qualify an individual to be registered to sell such plans in the state.

38
Q

Members must make which of the following available to regular bona fide customers and other members upon request?
A Copy of the firm’s latest statement of financial condition
B Copy of the firm’s latest income statement
C Copy of the firm’s latest FINRA audit results
D Copy of the firm’s open complaints file

A
A. 
Must furnish: 
-Balance Sheet (Stmt of Finan. Cond) 
and 
-Net Capital Computation

Under FINRA rules, bona fide customers must be provided with the latest copy of the firm’s balance sheet upon request. Members must also provide this information to other member firms on request. A bona fide customer is defined as one who has cash or securities in the possession of the broker-dealer.

39
Q

A customer of your firm for the preceding 18 months asked to be placed on the firm’s “Do Not Call” list 12 months ago. Can a registered representative at your firm contact the customer to solicit securities business?

A Yes, because any customer that did business with your firm over the preceding 18 months can be solicited

B Yes, because any customer that has an existing account with the firm can be solicited

C No, because the customer specifically asked to be placed on that firm’s “Do Not Call” list

D No, because any person on a “Do Not Call” list for 12
months or more qualifies for an “established customer exemption” from unsolicited cold calls

A

C.

Here is the rule. If an individual is on the National “Do Not Call” registry, if they have done business with your firm in the preceding 18 months, you are permitted to call them. However, if that customer tells you to put him or her on your firm’s “Do Not Call” list (which is the case here), then you must do so and don’t call that person.

40
Q

Under MSRB Rule G-32, a customer must be delivered the Official Statement(OS) for a municipal fund security after every:
A non-periodic purchase
B periodic purchase
C non-periodic purchase and the OS has been changed
D non-periodic purchase or periodic purchase and the OS has been changed

A

D.

If the Official Statement for a municipal fund security is changed or amended, the customer must be provided with the changed copy when an additional purchase is made.

41
Q

Which statement is FALSE?

A FINRA member firms can join with non-members in domestic underwritings of municipal bonds

B FINRA member firms can join with non-members in domestic underwritings of corporate bonds

C FINRA member firms can join with non-members in domestic underwritings of government bonds

D FINRA members can join with non-members in domestic underwritings of agency bonds

A

B.

FINRA rules state that a FINRA member can only join in domestic underwritings of non-exempt securities with other members - meaning corporate securities.

FINRA does not have jurisdiction over exempt securities, such as governments, agencies and municipals. They are regulated by Treasury rules, federal and state banking rules, and MSRB rules.

Therefore, a FINRA member firm can join with non-member banks and government dealers in exempt securities underwritings such as governments, agency securities or municipals.

42
Q

Written supervisory procedures must provide that the principal performs all the following actions EXCEPT:

A review and endorse in writing all transactions effected by registered representatives

B preapprove all outgoing written and electronic correspondence of registered representatives relating to the member’s securities business

C periodically review customer accounts to detect and prevent irregularities and abuses

D ascertain the good character, qualifications and experience of each person applying for registration with FINRA

A

B.

Choice B is incorrect, since unlike retail communications, there is no requirement to preapprove outgoing correspondence. Both incoming and outgoing correspondence is typically reviewed by software with problematic items being escalated to human reviewers. Under FINRA rules, correspondence is subject to “post-use” review and approval - pre-approval is not required.

FINRA’s rules on written supervisory procedures to be created and enforced by the Office of Supervisory Jurisdiction (OSJ) include the written endorsement of all transactions effected by registered representatives (this is typically done with a daily blotter review, signed by the principal at the end of the day); the review of all correspondence sent and received by registered representatives relating to the member’s investment banking or securities business; the periodic review of customer accounts to detect irregularities and abuses; and the ascertainment of the good character, qualifications, and experience of each person applying for registration with FINRA through that firm (this is actually required on the U4 application, and the principal signs the U4, attesting that this was done.)

43
Q

Under FINRA rules, “spoofing” is a market manipulation where:

A limit orders are entered to improve the NBBO, enticing other participants to join in placing orders at the new NBBO, at which point the original firm cancels its orders and executes against the later-placed orders from other market participants

B limit orders are entered within the NBBO on one side of the market to narrow the spread and then limit orders are placed on the opposite side of the market that execute against the improved price now visible in the market

C an offer to buy or sell at a stated price is placed without the member being prepared to execute under the conditions as are stated at the time of such offer to buy or sell

D limit orders are entered by the same party to buy and sell at the same price resulting in an immediate execution of a “self-trade”

A

A.

Under FINRA rules, quotations placed in the market must be “bona-fide” - meaning the member is willing to trade at those prices. FINRA has identified various manipulative practices, where this is not the case. These include:

Spoofing (Choice A): Entering a “bogus” quote that improves the National Best Bid or Offer, which attracts other market participants to enter quotes at the improved (higher bid or lower ask) price. The original firm cancels its “bogus” quote and enters orders to execute against the “improved” prices placed by others. In this manner, by placing a “phantom” improved quote that is canceled (that is the “spoof”), the firm fraudulently induced other market participants to match that price and the firm got to trade against them at the improved price.

Layering (Choice B): Entering multiple “bogus” quotes (so these are “layers” of quotes) on one side of the market within the NBBO. This induces other market participants to enter quotes at improved prices. The original firm cancels its “bogus” quotes and enters orders to execute against the “improved” prices placed by others.

The main difference between layering and spoofing it that spoofing entails entering bogus quotes that create a new NBBO, while layering entails entering bogus quotes within the NBBO that entice others to improve the NBBO.

Backing Away: Entering a bid or ask quote without the intent to trade at the published price. Note that this is not possible in an electronic market like NASDAQ, but still is a potential problem in the OTC market.

Wash Trades: Entering buy and sell orders that execute against each other to create the appearance of trading activity without any change of ownership. This attracts other trades to the stock. Another name for this is “self-trading.”

44
Q

A new registered representative in your branch is anxious to build a book of business and had been working late into the evening at the branch office telemarketing potential clients. As the BOM, your primary concern with the representative working these unusual hours would be that the:

A Federal Telemarketing rules regarding unsolicited cold calls are not being violated

B representative is under the direct supervision of a supervisor during these hours

C record of the employee’s working hours is maintained in accordance with state labor laws

D customer records maintained in the branch office are secured and protected from intrusion or alteration when the full staff is not in the office

A

B.

This is judgmental, but the issue here is that the representative must be under the direct supervision of the firm when he or she is conducting securities business. Thus, as BOM, you must have procedures in place to supervise the representative during these “unusual hours” - such as having an assistant branch manager present during these hours; or having the representative’s conversations tape recorded during these “unusual” hours. Choice A is plausible, but B is the better choice.

45
Q

If correspondence is flagged for review by a firm’s electronic surveillance tool, this review:

A must be performed by a Series 24 principal
B must be performed by a registered individual
C can be delegated to an individual who need not be registered
D must be performed by the firm’s chief compliance officer

A

C.

FINRA permits a member firm to use risk-based principles for “post use” review and approval of correspondence. An electronic program can be used to select a valid sampling size of emails for review; and then a lexicon-based program is used to look for prohibited words or phrases in the emails. Those e-mails that are flagged must be sent to a human reviewer, who need not be registered. The name of the individual who reviewed the email and the actions taken, if any, must be recorded by the member firm. A principal must take overall responsibility for this correspondence compliance program.

46
Q

A registered representative has a hedge fund client that previously traded equities, but has recently started to take positions in different mutual funds. As the BOM reviewing account activity, you see 10 separate purchases of ABCD fund of $9,000 and 10 separate redemption (sales) of an existing XYZZ fund position of $8,000 each. What should you be concerned about?

A Late trading
B Trade shredding
C Gun jumping
D Market timing

A

D.

Market Timing is the practice of frequently buying and selling a fund’s shares to exploit inefficiencies in how the mutual fund company computes NAV per share. For example, if the fund held overseas stocks, that might slow up the computation of NAV for the fund company - however the sophisticated hedge fund investor might build its own software to compute NAV faster than the fund company - and would place buy orders for shares that it found to be undervalued and sell orders for fund shares that it found to be overvalued. FINRA has taken the view that this activity can hurt existing fund shareholders because it can dilute the value of the existing shares. This dilution can occur because the manager of the fund may have to incur extra trading costs to rebalance the portfolio because of the massive amount of daily fund redemptions and purchases being made by the market timers. To prevent market timing, most mutual funds have placed restrictions on excessive trading in their prospectuses and monitor accounts for excessive short-term trading. Also note that FINRA looks for market timing customers that attempt to avoid detection by “flying under the radar” by using multiple account numbers or trading in amounts just beneath audit thresholds (note that the dollar amounts in this question are all below $10,000).

Late trading is another prohibited mutual fund trading practice where funds allowed “favored investors” to buy or redeem after the 4:00 PM cut-off. These investors built computer programs to calculate NAV faster than the fund company could, so they could “late trade” the funds to their advantage. Trade shredding is the prohibited practice of breaking up larger trades into smaller trades in order to maximize payment for order flow. Gun jumping is an Act of ‘33 violation, where securities are offered or sold before the end of the “20 day cooling off” period - so the seller is “jumping the gun” because, legally, sales can’t start until this period is completed.

47
Q

An officer of a company would have to give a “disclosure notice” in which of the following situations?

A At a meeting of the company’s Board of Directors, where the officer is going to disclose the latest quarterly results

B When taking outside analysts to a luncheon, where company results are going to be discussed

C When talking to the issuer’s outside counsel about company legal matters

D When talking to company employees in training sessions that include discussions of company results

A

B.

Regulation FD (Fair Disclosure) requires that when an individual that is associated with a company is going to divulge any information that might have a market impact to a group of individuals, simultaneous disclosure must also be made to the general public (that is what is meant by a disclosure notice). The Board of Directors already has a fiduciary responsibility to the company, as does the company’s attorney and the company’s employees, so they do not come under the rule. However, research analysts do not have such a fiduciary responsibility to the issuer, and if any disclosures are going to be made to them, simultaneous disclosure to the public is also required.

48
Q

A customer who has a pattern day trading account at a member firm receives a maintenance call. In order to meet the call, the customer:

A can use a cross guarantee against the equity in that customer’s cash account at the same firm

B can use a cross guarantee against the equity in that customer’s Regulation T margin account at the same firm

C can use a cross guarantee against the equity in the customer’s portfolio margin account at the same firm

D cannot use a cross guarantee against the equity in any other account held for the customer at the same firm

A

D.

If a customer receives a maintenance call, the customer may “cross guarantee” and use the equity in any other accounts that the customer maintains at the same firm, with the exception of a pattern day trading account. Pattern day trading margin requirements are kept independent, and the customer can only use the financial resources available in the pattern day trading account to meet any maintenance calls. (This is another way that the rules “discourage” pattern day trading, aside from the fact that minimum equity is raised from $2,000 to $25,000 in these accounts. The intent of these rules was to get rid of the small customers who tried to exploit inefficiencies in NASDAQ trading systems by trading themselves in NASDAQ Level II, to scalp very small profits. The systems have been upgraded, so this is no longer possible, but the rule still stands!)

49
Q
The FINRA 5% Policy applies to transactions in which of the following securities?
I	 	Open end investment companies
II	 	Closed end investment companies
III	 	Unit investment trusts
IV	 	Real estate investment trusts
A I and II only
B III and IV only
C II and IV only
D I, II, III, IV
A

C.

The FINRA 5% Policy applies to over-the-counter and exchange transactions that take place in the secondary market - the trading market.

It does not apply to “redeemable securities” such as mutual funds (open end investment companies) and unit investment trusts. It does apply to securities that are traded, such as closed end funds and Real Estate Investment Trusts.