Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Name three issues associated with OTC medication

A

Can mask symptoms of a more serious condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the nursing process

A
Assessment 
Nursing diagnosis 
Nursing plan 
Implementation 
Evaluate implementation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give examples of what a nursing assessment would entail from history and physical assessment

A
History 
Gather family history 
Chronic condition 
drug use  
Education level 

Physical assessment
weight
height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define nursing assessment

A

informational collected provides RN w/ facts needed to:

Plan educational and discharge
Arrange consultations
Monitor physical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define nursing diagnosis

A

focused on the responses to actual or potential health problems or life processes

Changes as a result to health problem facing the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Types of nursing diagnosis

A

actual problem - deficient fluid volume

Risk problem - the risk of infection related to the presence of invasive lines

Possible diagnosis - possible malnutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define pharmacotherapeutics

A

the clinical purpose of giving a drug (indication)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define adverse effect

A

The adverse effect is an unwanted reaction to the medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define type A adverse side effect

A

Augmented adverse effects are those that are dose-dependent and predictable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define type B adverse effect

A

Bizzare independent of dosage, unpredictable, affect a small part of the population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define drug allergy

A

Type B adverse reaction w/ immune system response

Not predictable
Not associated with dosing
May change over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

4 types of drug allergy

A

Anaphlylaxis
cytotoxic reaction
serum sickness
delayed reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe Anaphylaxis

A

brought on immediately, immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cytotoxic

A

Antibody-mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define idiosyncratic reaction

A

unusual, not dose-dependent

related to unique composition of pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define toxicity

A

negative effects that carry the risk of permanent damage to an organ system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define teratogenic

A

the capacity of a drug to cause fetal abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define PharmacoKinetics

A

the effect of the body on the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name the 4 basic processes of PharmacoKinetics

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define drug absorption

A

the process in which the drug moves into the bloodstream and tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define passive diffusion

A

Movement of the drug from a higher concentration to a lower concentration w/o the use of additional energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define active transport

A

The process of a drug entering a cell w/ additional energy (relies on transport molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define filtration

A

passage of drugs through an aqueous pore in the cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Name 4 things that can affect absorption

A

Size of molecule
Solubility
Electrical charge
pH of environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

List medication distribution from fastest to slowest (8)

A
IV 
Inhalation 
SL 
Rectal 
Intramuscular 
Subcutaneous
PO 
transdermal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

List three barriers to absorption using PO method

A

pH
Food
GI mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Name 3 route of Rx distribution that bypasses 1st effect

A

rectal
IV
Buccal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Benefit of IV drug administration

A

Fully absorbed at the site of distribution

Immediate onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The benefit of IM drug administration

A

absorbed through capillary bed within the muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does Subcutaneous Rx administration work

A

Rx delivered into Fat tissue where it is slowly absorbed into the system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Define drug distribution

A

Movement of drugs through the bloodstream, into the tissues and eventually into the cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Name 3 things that affect drug distribution

A

Drugs lipid solubility and ionization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

___ soluable substances are allowed to pass into the CNS

A

Lipid soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Are most drugs lipid-soluble or bound to proteins?

A

they are bound to proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Do Rx that are tightly bound to proteins Is the work environment collaborative or independent? and why

A

Slowly

in order for drug to get into tissues (then cells) it needs to be released from tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Loosely bound Rx + Proteins are more likely to

A

be distributed quickly and excreted quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Biotransformation is also known as

A

metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Define Biotransformation/metabolism

A

Transformation of one drug into another substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which organ is the most important site for drug metabolism?

A

The liver

40
Q

Define the 1st pass effect

A

Oral drugs when most or almost all of the drug gets metabolized/ or inactivated before reaching the liver

41
Q

What organ plays the most important role in excretion?

A

The Kidneys

42
Q

Name 5 routes of drug elimination

A

Skin
Saliva
Lungs
Bile and feces

43
Q

___ Soluable drugs are extracted from the kidneys through golumar filtration

A

Water Soluble

44
Q

What can happens if you give a drug to a pt. who has kidney disease?

A

They can not excrete the RX and it becomes toxic

45
Q

What happens if you give a drug to a pt . who has liver disease

A

they can not transform the drug appropriately and it becomes toxic

46
Q

Define steady state

A

point at which the amount of drug being administered and the amount of drug being eliminated balance off.

47
Q

Define pharmacodynamics

A

effect drug has on the body

48
Q

List 4 ways drugs work

A

By replacing missing chemicals
Increasing cellular activities
Slowing cellular activities
interfering w/ foreign cells

49
Q

Define agonist

A

promotes function

50
Q

Define Antagonist

A

prevents function to lead to no effect by preventing lock and key action

51
Q

Define Agonist type I

A

binds to same sites as normal functioning chemical does and produces a similar result

52
Q

Define Agonist type II

A

binds to different receptor sites than its original

53
Q

What are schedule I drugs

A

NOT acceptable to use (cocaine)

54
Q

What are Schedule II drugs

A

high potential for abuse (fentanyl)

55
Q

What are schedule III drugs

A

lower potential for abuse when compared with I and II

56
Q

Define Stomatitis

A

inflammation of the mucous membranes

57
Q

Autonomic nervous system

A

aka Involunaty nervous system occurs with little mindful purpose

58
Q

What are the two parts of the autonomic nervous system

A

Sympathetic

parasympathetic

59
Q

Sympathetic nervous system traits

A

flight or fight
internal (cell) or extenal (learned reactions)
works with the endocrine system

60
Q

parasympathetic

A

rest and digest

61
Q

What happens to the cardiovascular and respiratory system during parasympathetic activation

A

Cardio activity increases, blood pressure, heart rate and blood flow to skeletal muscle

respiration rate increases
bronchi dilate
pupils dilate

Sweating, the hair stands up

62
Q

How does the GI react to the SNS?

A

No digestion is happening and blood is diverted away from the GI tract

63
Q

Aldosterone retains what element and compound?

A

Sodium and water

64
Q

Where are alpha1 receptors located?

A
Blood vessels (to increase blood pressure) 
the iris (pupil dilation) 
and urinary bladder (closure of internal sphincter)
65
Q

Where are Beta1 receptors found?

A

in the cardiac tissue (increase myocardial activity and increase heart rate) and breakdown of fat

66
Q

Where are Beta2 receptors found?

A

They are found in the smooth muscle in blood vessels, bronchi, and uterine muscle

67
Q

Starlings law

A

The more the heart fills, the stronger it will contract (like a pulled rubber band)

68
Q

Name 4 things that determine the hearts use fo O2

A

HR
Preload
Afterload
Stretch on ventricles

69
Q

What three things are responsible for blood pressure

A

(Stroke volume * HR) * pulse rate

70
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

Stroke volume * HR

71
Q

Hypertensive Crisis levels for systolic and diastolic

A
Systolic = over 180 
diastolic = 110-1120
72
Q

Angiotensin is released from what organ?

A

the liver

73
Q

Angiotensin + Renin makes what?

A

Angiotensin I

74
Q

Renin is released by what organ:?

A

the Kidney

75
Q

Angiotensin + ACE makes what

A

Angiotensin II

76
Q

ACE comes from what organ?

A

Lungs

77
Q

Angiostnsin II + what makes aldosterone

A

Adrenal gland

78
Q

Aldosterone does what?

A

Increase reabsorption of Na+, Cl- and H2O

Release K+

79
Q

Angiotensin II causes what?

A

Sympathetic NS response

Increase reabsorption of Na+ Cl- and H2O through aldosterone and release of K+

Vasoconstriction to increase Bp

simulate ADH from pituitary gland for h2o reabsorption

80
Q

Name the types of drugs used for blood pressure control

A
Vasodilators
Antihypertensive drugs 
Diretics 
SNS drugs 
AntiHYPOtensive drugs
81
Q

What are the primary transmitters of the Autonomic Nervous System?

A

Norepinephrine and (NE)

Acetylcholine (ACh)

82
Q

Is the Autonomic Nervous system voluntary or involuntary muscle?

A

Involuntary

83
Q

What are the two types of Autonomic Nervous System?

A

Sympathetic and parasympathetic

84
Q

What are characteristics of the sympathetic nervous system? Name 5 ways your body reacts

A

Sympathetic is defined as the fight or flight system

Lowers blood to the GI track 
Increase heart rate 
Dilation in the eyes 
Dialation in the bronchial 
Release of glucose
85
Q

Whate are charatreristics of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Rest and digest

Constricts pupils
slows heart
relaxes bronchials
simulates digestion

86
Q

Which nervous system (sympathetic or parasympathetic) increases the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine?

A

Sympathetic nervous system

87
Q

What types of nerve receptors are associated with the Sympathetic nervous system?

A

Androgenic receptors

88
Q

What types of nerve receptors are associated with parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Cholinergic receptors

89
Q

Where are alpha receptors found?

A

Smooth Muscle

90
Q

Where are beta-receptors found?

A

Cardiac cells, lung cells, and vascular smooth muscle

91
Q

Where are Beta 1 receptors found? And what do they do when stimulated?

A

Cardiac tissue

and they increase heart rate

92
Q

Where are Beta 2 receports found? and what do they do when stimulated?

A

Smooth muscle (bronchi, uterine)

93
Q

What type of drug is Atenolol? and what makes it unique?

A

Selective Beta1 blocker

it affects the cardiac and cells, slowing down the heart rate and slowing down the heart Contractability

94
Q

-olo signifies what medication

A

Beta-blocker

95
Q

-osin signifies what medication

A

Selective Alpha 1-blocker

96
Q

What do Sympattholytic medications do?

A

Inhibit sympathetic nervous system