Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Fundamental genetics > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Transmission genetics

A
  • very early concept (meiosis and mitosis)
  • early theory of heredity transmission that states specific particles (gemmules) carry information from the body to reproductive organs which are passed to the embryo at conception
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Molecular genetics

A
  • replication

- how DNA is maintained … Zooming in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Population genetics

A
  • look across an entire population and observe natural selection
  • how population changes through time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why are Model organisms important

A
  • easy to grow and maintain in a lab, organisms used to study human diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give an example of a model organism

A
  • bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Early theories of heredity

A
  • domestication
  • artificial fertilization (Assyrians)
  • Hindu writings said they avoided spouses with undesirable traits

1) Pangenesis
2) acquired inheritance
3) preformation
4) blending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pangenesis

A
  • specific particles (gemmules) carry information from the body to reproductive organs which are passed to embryo at conception
  • very early concept of hereditary transmission
  • slide 18
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Inheritance of acquired characteristics

A
  • early theory of hereditary transmission
  • Greeks proposed traits acquired in life incorporated into heredity info and passed on

Ex: an artist would pass his art skills that he acquired during life onto their offspring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Robert Hooke

A
  • discovered the cell using a microscope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Preformationism

A
  • early theory of hereditary transmission

- inside the egg or sperm is a tiny version of an adult (homunculus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Blending inheritance

A
  • early theory of hereditary transmission

- offspring are a blend of their parents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Schwann and Schleiden

A
  • proposed the cell theory
  • > stated that cells are the basic unit of all living things
  • > cells arise from preexisting cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The cell theory

A
  • cells are the basic unit of all living things

- cells arise from preexisting cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Charles Darwin

A
  • theory of evolution through natural selection
  • also wrote the origin of species
    • > said that heredity was the fundamental unit of evolution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Origin of species

A
  • heredity was the fundamental of evolution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Gregor Mendel

A
  • discovered basic principles of heredity

- crossed pea plans and analyzed patterns of transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Walter Flemming

A
  • first person to observe the division of chromosomes during mitosis
  • discovered hereditary information was contained in the nucleus of a cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

August Weismann

A
  • cut the tails off of 22 mice for 22 generations and the tail length of the descendants never changed .. This proved the acquired characteristic theory to be wrong
  • purposed the germ plasm theory that said the cells of the reproductive system carry an already complete set of information to be passed down to the next generation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Germ plasm theory

A
  • the cells of the reproductive system carry an already complete set of information
  • slide 24
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The three major groups of life

A

1) eubacteria- true bacteria
2) archaea
3) eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Prokaryotic cells

A
  • absent nucleus
  • small
  • one circular DNA molecule
  • DNA is not complex
  • absent organelles
  • absent cytoskeleton
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Eukaryotic cell

A
  • has a nucleus
  • larger
  • multiple linear DNA
  • the DNA is complex
  • there are membrane bound organelles
  • the cytoskeleton is present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Animal vs Plant cell DNA material

A

Both

  • nucleus*
  • nuclear envelope*
  • Endoplasmic reticulum
  • ribosomes
  • mitochondria *
  • membrane

Plant cell only

  • vacuole
  • chloroplast*
  • cell wall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Are viruses living cells?

A
  • no!

- they have genetic info, but can can only reproduce inside of a host cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Prokaryotic Cell Reproduction

A
  • binary fission

1) starts with a circular chromosome within a prokaryotic cell
2) chromosome replicates
3) membrane grows, chromosomes separate
4) cell divides, each cell is genetically identical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Eukaryotic cell reproduction

A
  • has 2 sets of chromosomes/cells (as a result of sexual reproduction)
  • one set from the mother and one set from the father (homologous pairs)

2 sets of genetic info= diploid (eukaryotic cells)
1 set of genetic info=haploid (reproductive cells)

Homologous pairs of chromosomes- humans have 23 pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Ploidy

A
  • the number of sets of chromosomes in a cell, or in the cells of an organism
  • each set is designated by n
  • diploid or haploid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Diploid

A
  • two sets of homologous chromosomes
  • 2n
  • one chromosome from mom and one from dad
  • most eukaryotic cells (mammals)
  • reproduced during mitosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Haploid

A
  • one complete set of chromosomes
  • n
  • a cell with half the number of chromosomes found in the nucleus
  • reproductive cells (gametes or sex cells)
  • produced by meiosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Chromosome structure includes

A
  • telomere
  • centromere
  • two (sister) chromatids 👭
  • kinetochore
  • spindle microtubules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Telomere

A
  • cap on the end of a chromosome that protects from chromosomal rearrangement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Centromere

A
  • in order to get through cell division
  • essential for movement of chromosomes in meiosis and mitosis
  • lets describe the structure based on where it is located on the chromosome
  • one for every chromosome, indicates the number of chromosomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Sister Chromatids

A
  • Genetically identical chromatids connected at the centromere, considered one chromosome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Kinetochore

A
  • forms around the centromere

- place where spindle fibers connect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Spindle microtubules

A
  • fibers made up of tubular subunits and attaches to the kinetochore from the centre some to pull sister chromatids apart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The 4 major types of chromosome structure

A

1) metacentric
- centromere is located in the middle of the chromosome

2) submetacentric
- centromere located slights to one side of the chromosome
- has a p-arm=petite smaller end of chromosome
- has a q-arm=larger end of chromosome

3) acrocentric
- centromere is located ALMOST at the end of the chromosome

4) telocentric
- centromere is at the tip of the chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cell cycle

A

1) G1 Phase
2) G0 Phase
3) G1/S checkpoint
4) S Phase
5) G2 Phase
6) G2/M Phase
7) Mitosis
8) Cytokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

G1

A
  • cell growth, metabolically active
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

G0

A
  • no dividing stage, doesn’t enter the cell cycle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

G1/S checkpoint

A
  • checkpoint makes sure the cell is healthy and not damaged before it enters the S stage
  • once you go past the checkpoint the cell is committed to dividing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

S Phase

A
  • phase in cell cycle where DNA synthesis occurs

- replicate your DNA (sister chromatids form)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

G2 Phase

A
  • phase in the cell cycle where the cell continues to grow and prepare for division
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

G2/M Checkpoint

A
  • checkpoint in cell cycle in which beyond this point the cell CAN divide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Mitosis Phase

A
  • division of genetic makeup in the nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

M or Spindle checkpoint

A
  • in cell cycle the assembly checkpoint after mitosis

M=mitosis phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Interphase

A
  • the longest stage in the cell cycle
  • DNA synthesis occurs
  • phase in mitosis where DNA replication occurs
  • > G1, S, G2 phases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Cytokinesis

A
  • cytoplasm divides, the entire cell division
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Mitosis Phases

A
  • nuclear division-> nucleus divides

1) interphase
2) prophase
3) prometaphase
4) metaphase
5) anaphase
6) telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Prophase

A
  • phase in mitosis where chromosomes condense
  • DNA is ALREADY replicated
  • can see distinct chromosomes
  • spindle fibers form from centrosomes(ANIMALS)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Prometaphase

A
  • phase in mitosis where the nuclear envelope disappears which allows microtubules to contact chromatids
  • once they contact chromosomes they can move them via centromere to line them up
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Metaphase

A
  • phase in mitosis where chromosomes arrange in a single plane called the metaphase plate
  • every chromosome is lined up by themselves!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Anaphase

A
  • phase in mitosis where sister chromatids move toward opposite poles and become 2 chromosomes (2n)
  • after separation chromatids become chromosomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Telophase

A
  • phase in mitosis where chromosomes arrive at the spindle poles, the nuclear membrane reforms making 2 nuclei
  • chromosomes disappear from view
  • Cytokinesis can occur at the same time as telophase
54
Q

How do chromosomes move during mitosis

A
  • spindle fibers and microtubules change length by the addition or removal of tubulin subunits by molecular motors
  • the loss of a spindle fiber can result in the loss or gaining of a chromosome
  • if spindle fibers don’t align chromosomes it will result in a syndrome

Ex: some drugs will target spindle fibers Bc if they can not grow or form it will stop mitosis which is good for cancer Bc cells divide when they shouldn’t be

55
Q

How many divisions does mitosis/meiosis have?

A

Mitosis- single nuclear division

Meiosis- 2 divisions

56
Q

What are the results and final ploidy of mitosis/meiosis?

A

Mitosis- same number of chromosomes that are diploid

Meiosis- newly formed cell has half the number of starting chromosomes that are haploid

57
Q

What is the final product of mitosis/meiosis?

A

Mitosis- yields genetically identical cells

Meiosis- yields genetically variable cells

58
Q

Homologous pairs

A
  • pairs of chromosomes alike in structure and size that carry genetic information for the same character (2n)
59
Q

Meiosis Phases

A 
Meiosis 1 
1) Middle Prophase 1 
2) Late Prophase 1 
3) metaphase 1 
4) anaphase 1 
5) telophase 1 
Meiosis 2
6) prophase 2 
7) metaphase 2 
8) anaphase 2 
9) telophase 2
60
Q

Middle prophase 1

A
  • phase of meiosis where chromosomes condense and spindle fibers form
61
Q

Late prophase 1

A
  • phase of meiosis where homologous chromosomes pair, synapsis (very close association)
  • bivalent/tetrad-> 2 different chromosomes attached in a way
  • crossing over occurs where there is an exchange of genetic info
  • crossing over occurs at the chiasma
  • the nuclear membrane breaks down
62
Q

Metaphase 1

A
  • phase of meiosis where homologous pairs of chromosomes align along the metaphase plate
  • microtubules attach to one pair from each pole
63
Q

Anaphase 1

A
  • phase of meiosis where homologous pairs of chromosomes are separated
  • PLOIDY is reduced
64
Q

Telophase 1

A
  • phase of meiosis where chromosomes arrive at spindle poles and cytoplasm divides
  • interkinesis-> nuclear membrane reforms, DNA relaxes
65
Q

Prophase 2

A
  • phase of meiosis where chromosomes recondense

- nuclear envelope breaks down

66
Q

Metaphase 2

A
  • phase in meiosis where like metaphase of mitosis chromosomes align on the metaphase plate
67
Q

Anaphase 2

A
  • phase of meiosis where sister chromatids are pulled apart and are now chromosomes
68
Q

What are the consequences of meiosis?

A

1) each cell produces 4 cells
2) chromosome number is reduced by half
3) cells produced from meiosis are genetically distinct

69
Q

Telophase 2

A
  • phase of meiosis where chromosomes arrive at the spindle pole
  • the nuclear envelope reforms
  • the cytoplasm divides
70
Q

Why are the cells produced from meiosis genetically distinct?

A

1) crossing over yields sister chromatids that are not identical
2) random distribution of chromosomes in Anaphase 1 (can line up in any orientation)

71
Q

Difference between meiosis 1 and meiosis 2

A
  • meiosis 1 is reduction division

- meiosis 2 is the mitotic division

72
Q

Crossing over

A
  • exchange of genetic material on homologous pairs at the chiasma
  • at the end all chromatids become genetically distinct
73
Q

What would happen if crossing over occurred between 2 sister chromatids?

A
  • the genetic outcome would not change, they balance themselves out
74
Q

How many chromosomes do humans have

A
  • 23 chromosomes
75
Q

Female gametogenesis (oogenesis) process

A
  • first meiosis 1 occurs after the primary oocyte (2n) develops
  • this results in an unequal cytokinesis that produces a secondary oocyte (1n) and first polar body
  • meiosis 1 stops in prophase 1 and is restarted by ovulation
  • then meiosis 2 occurs after the secondary oocyte (1n) and the first polar body are formed
  • this results in another unequal cytokinesis that produces an ovum (1n) and a second polar body
76
Q

Explain why the meiotic divisions in oogenesis involve unequal cytokinesis

A
  • so that one daughter cells gets all the cytoplasm, while the other gets only extra chromosomes and becomes a polar body in the ovum that will be reabsorbed
  • having one cell get all the cytoplasm allows for that cell to more fully prep for an embryo
77
Q

Mendel

A
  • the father of genetics

- wanted to understand how our traits passed from one generation to the next

78
Q

Gene

A
  • a genetic factor (region of DNA) that helps determine a characteristic
  • from Pangenesis
79
Q

Allele

A
  • one of two or more alternate forms of a gene

Ex: round seed vs a wrinkled seed

80
Q

Locus

A
  • specific place on a chromosome occupied by an allele
81
Q

Genotype

A
  • set of alleles that an individual possesses
82
Q

Heterozygote

A
  • an individual possessing two different alleles at a locus
83
Q

Homozygote

A
  • an individual possessing two of the same alleles at a locus
84
Q

Phenotype or trait

A
  • the appearance or manifestation of a character

- genotype and environment (only genotype is inherited)

85
Q

Character or characteristic

A
  • an attribute or feature
86
Q

Why were Mendels pea plants a good choice

A

1) pea plants good subject easy to grow, grow rapidly and produce many offspring
2) had genetically pure stocks of different types of peas to start studies
3) avoided characters that exhibited variation
4) used an experimental approach- hypothesis driven research

87
Q

Monohybrid cross

A
  • cross where parents differ in a single characteristic

Ex: 2 plants that are breeding true that have opposite alleles (yellow seed vs green)

88
Q

Reciprocal cross

A
  • cross where crossing in the other direction to make sure that the sex of the parent doesn’t influence the outcome of the new plant
89
Q

Backcross

A
  • cross where you take one F1 generation plants and cross with a P generation plant, gives a 1:1 ratio
90
Q

Dihybrid cross

A
  • crosses or organisms that differ in two characteristics, results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio
91
Q

Test cross

A
  • cross individual of unknown genotype with a homozygous recessive to help determine the unknown genotype
92
Q

Mendel concluded 3 things

A

1) unit factors in pairs -> each trait has 2 different unit factors that result in different traits, gives 3 possible combinations
2) dominance and recessiveness
3) segregation

93
Q

All 7 characteristics that Mendel studied yielded what ratio in the F2 generation?

A
  • yielded a 3:1 ratio
94
Q

Dominance vs Recessive traits

A

Dominance- traits that were observed in F1

Recessiveness- traits that disappeared

95
Q

Principle of segregation

A
  • Mendels first law
  • two alleles separate when gametes are formed, one allele to each gamete
  • upon fusion at fertilization, zygote gets one allele from Both a male and female parent
  • separate with equal probability into gametes
96
Q

Using a test cross if a tall pea plant could be either Tt or TT how do you know which?

A

Cross TT x tt

If TT -> all tall F1= Tt(tall)
If Tt-> F1 will be Tt (tall) and tt (short) in a 1:1 ratio

97
Q

Principle of independent assortment

A
  • Mendels second law
  • alleles at different loci separate independently of one another
  • the characters must be located on different chromosomes (as assortment is related to chromosome separation at anaphase 1)
98
Q

Punnett square

A
  • for a dihybrid cross, more than 2 loci

- developed by RC Punnett

99
Q

Genotypic ratio

A
  • for simple genetic crosses for the F2 generation if the type of dominance in a trait is incompletely dominance
    Genotypes of parents 
            Aa x Aa 1:2:1 ratio 1/4 AA , 1/2 Aa, 1/4 aa
100
Q

Phenotypic ratio

A
  • for simple genetic crosses of the F2 generation if the type of dominance in a trait is comp,rely dominant

Genotypes of parents
Aa x Aa
3:1 ratio 3/4 A and 1/4 aa

101
Q

Branch diagram

A
  • can obtain genotypic and phenotypic ratios
  • by setting out the proportions of genotypes and phenotypes for each allele pair and connecting these proportions of the other allele pairs, a branch or web of genotypes or phenotypes can be constructed
102
Q

Multiplication rule

A
  • the “and” rule

- to use this rule the events must be independent

103
Q

Addition rule

A
  • the probability of one of two or more mutually exclusive events is calculated by adding the probabilities of the two events
  • the “either” “or” rule
104
Q

Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri

A
  • discovered that homologous pairs of chromosomes consist of one maternal and one paternal
  • developed chromosomal theory of heredity
  • homologous pairs segregate independently at meiosis
105
Q

Chi Square (X^2) Test

A
  • used to determine the probability that the difference between the observed and the expected values is due to chance
  • if P >_ .05 difference likely causes by random chance
  • if P < .05 assume chance is NOT responsible and a significant difference exists
106
Q

X^2 Analysis formula

A

X^2= sum of (#obs-#exp)^2 / # expected

  • for all classes
  • then compare to critical values at specific P (.05) and degrees of freedom
107
Q

Degree of freedom

A

Df= n-1

n= number of different phenotypes

108
Q

Pedigree

A
  • pictorial representation of a family history

- draw the family tree

109
Q

What is the difference between meiosis 2 and mitosis?

A
  • meiosis 2 has only one copy chromosome 1

- mitosis has 2 separate cells undergoing it at the same time

110
Q

Proband

A
  • first KNOWN. Affected family member
111
Q

Consanguinity

A
  • mating between related individuals (incest)
112
Q

Autosomal Recessive Trait

A
  • appears in both sexes with equal frequency
  • trait tends to skip generations
  • affected offspring are usually born to unaffected parents so look bottom up
  • when both parents are heterozygous 1/4 of offspring will be affected
  • appears more frequently Among the children of consanguineous marriages
113
Q

Autosomal dominant traits

A
  • appear equally in both sexes
  • both sexes transmit their trait to their offspring
  • unaffected parents do not transmit to offspring
  • affected must have at least one parent with it to be dominant
  • it will NOT skip a generation
  • most affected have a heterozygous genotype
  • when one parent is affected (heterozygous) and the other parent is unaffected 1/2 will have it
114
Q

Pedigree

A
  • pictorial representation of a family history
115
Q

Identification of pedigrees symbols

A
  • male(square), female(circle), unknown(diamond)
  • affected with traits (filled in)
  • carrier that doesn’t have the trait (dot in middle)
  • may later exhibit the trait (line down middle)
  • deceased (line through it)
  • cousins (2 lines)
116
Q

Allele

A

Wild type allele and a normal allele

117
Q

Loss of function mutation

A
  • reduced productivity of gene product
118
Q

Null allele

A
  • no productivity of gene product at all
119
Q

Gain of function mutation

A
  • increased (extra) productivity or new function
120
Q

Neutral mutation

A
  • change to distinguish one allele from another, no phenotype change
121
Q

Identifying allele mutations

  • wild type vs mutant
  • superscripts
A

1) wild type (+) most common, not always the best
2) mutant (-) just Bc mutant doesn’t mean it’s worse

3) superscripts distinguish alleles

122
Q

Incomplete dominance

A
  • cross a homozygous true breed parents (P generation) and get a hybrid for F1
  • cross F1. To get F2 and can see which is dominant and which is recessive

Ex:
P generation= PP(purple) x pp(white)
F1 generation= Pp(violet)
F2 generation=PP(purple), pp(white), Pp(violet)

123
Q

Codominance

A
  • MN blood types: antigens on red blood cells
  • two alleles L^M and L^N
  • possible genotypes LM LM, LM LN, LN LN
  • possible phenotypes
    LM LM only produce M antigen
    LN LN only produce N antigen
    LM LN produce both M and N antigens
124
Q

Lucien Cuenot

A
  • showed Mendels principle applied to animals
  • lethality is recessive

Dominant lethal- one copy that causes death is huntingtons disease

125
Q

Pleitropy

A
  • one gene that impacts several aspects of the overall phenotype
126
Q

Multiple alleles

A
  • can be many different alleles for one gene in the general population

Ex: ABO blood group
I^A- codes for A antigen
I^B- codes for B antigen
i- codes for no antigen

AB= individual has I^A and I^B allele
O= has neither of them so ii
127
Q

Gene interaction

A
  • genes at two loci interact to produce single characteristics
128
Q

Recessive Epistasis

A
  • the hypostatic gene is hidden … all black traits
  • Epistasic gene is all lowercase recessive

Which makes a black and brown dog turn yellow

129
Q

Bombay phenotype

A
  • rare mutation (recessive Epistasis)

FUT1 fucosyl transferase

  • H antigen
  • necessary for A and B antigens to be added to RBC
  • hh individuals type as O, but can NOT receive O blood (hides A and B)
130
Q

Dominant epistasis

A
  • first gene masks hypostatic gene, only one dominant allele

- different phenotypic ratios

131
Q

Complementation

A
  • determining if mutations are on the same or different loci
  • cross homozygous recessive mutants
  • if mutation is the same gene =homo recessive
  • if mutation is a different gene= compliment to eachother, wt on each gene

Fundamental genetics (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions