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OU Immunology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is immunology?

A

branch of biomedical science concerned with the response of the organism to antigenic challenge, recognition of self from non-self, and physical and chemical aspects of immune phenomenon

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2
Q

Define antigen

A

substance that is recognized by the immune system as foreign and stimulates an adaptive immune response

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3
Q

How can antigen recognize foreign particles?

A
  • immunoglobins (antibodies)
  • T cell receptors
  • Innate immunity receptors
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4
Q

What are on the surface of bacteria that the immune system can recognize?

A
  • capsule
  • LPS
  • toxins (and other extracell. proteins)
  • flagellum
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5
Q

What part of the virus can the immune system recognize?

A
  • capsid proteins on virus

- viral proteins on surface of cell

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6
Q

If tumor cells generate from our own cells, how does the immune system recognize it?

A
  • a mutant protein
  • cancer cells may express fetal proteins which are recognized as foreign
  • overexpression of a specific protein
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7
Q

What are the components of innate immunity?

A
  • cellular
  • humoral or molecular
  • physical barriers
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8
Q

What are the cellular components of innate immunity?

A
  • phagocytes

- natural killer [NK] cells

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9
Q

What are the humoral or molecular components of innate immunity?

A
  • natural/maternal antibodies
  • cytokines
  • complement
  • toll-like receptors
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10
Q

What are the physical barrieres of innate immunity?

A
  • skin

- mucosal surfaces

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11
Q

What are the components of adaptive immunity?

A
  • cellular

- humoral and molecular

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12
Q

What are the cellular components of adaptive immunity?

A
  • antigen presenting cells (APC)
  • T cells
  • B cells
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13
Q

What are the humoral or molecular components adaptive immunity?

A
  • specific antibodies

- cytokines

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14
Q

Define cytokine

A

signaling molecules that allow cells to talk to each other

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15
Q

Immunity vs. Susceptibility

A
  • Immunity: exposed to it before and develop immune response
  • Susceptible: never been exposed to it
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16
Q

Define tolerance

A

the immune system’s ability to recognize a foreign substance that’s not a threat; ex. food

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17
Q

alloimmunity

A

a foreign substance from the same species; ex. tissue from another human

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18
Q

Define biologics

A

drugs derived from a living source

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19
Q

What are the different types of biologics?

A
  • Active immunizing agents
  • Passive immunizing agents
  • Diagnostic biologics
  • Blood and blood derivatives
  • Allergenic extracts
  • Biological response modifiers
  • Misc. biologics
  • Cellular therapy
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20
Q

What are unique products of biologics?

A
  • Natural products
  • Relatively crude
  • Active constituents are macromolecules
  • Standardize by bioassay
  • Immunogenic
  • Special hazards
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21
Q

What does “relatively crude” mean?

A

complex mixtures of whole organisms, tissues, or cells

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22
Q

What does it mean to be standardized by bioassay?

A

units are units by activity; usually unique to the individual drug

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23
Q

With respect to biologics, what does it mean to be immunogenic?

A

contains complete immunogens that may induce an immune response in the patient

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24
Q

What are examples of nonspecific host defenses?

A
  • physical barrier
  • chemical (pH)
  • cellular (phagocytes)
  • microbiome
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25
Q

What are the types of specific immunity?

A
  • Acquired (adaptive)

- Innate (inborn)

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26
Q

Besides the components, what is a characteristic of innate immunity?

A

recognizes pathogen associates molecular patterns

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27
Q

How does bacteria damage the body to create an inflammatory response?

A
  • exotoxin release
  • endotoxin release
  • direct cytopathic effect
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28
Q

Define defensins

A

antimicrobial peptides that penetrate & disrupt microbial membranes; synthesized by a number of cell types; found in a lot of different tissues; some are induced and some are produced by the body all the time

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29
Q

How does phagocytes signal macrophage activation?

A

they have specific cell-surface proteins that detect microbial products which signals the activation

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30
Q

How does complement proteins trigger phagocytosis?

A

some complement proteins can directly act with bacterial structures; complement fragment binds to bacteria and this complex binds to receptor on effector cell which triggers phagocytosis of the complex

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31
Q

Where is TLR3 located and what does it recognize?

A
  • located in endosome

- recognizes viral RNA

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32
Q

What are the three major characteristics of acquired immunity?

A
  • specificity
  • ability to discriminate between self and non-self
  • memory
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33
Q

What are characteristics of acquired immunity?

A

genetically determined; delayed 7-10days onset; memory; produce multiple antibodies that fight against virus

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34
Q

What are the ways in which inflammation can be classified?

A

time course or appearance

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35
Q

Describe innate immunity and inflammation at site of infection

A

bacteria enters host -> neutrophil engulfs bacteria in an attempt to destroy it -> neutrophil release cytokines -> cytokines cause tight junctions of epithelial cells to loosen up and allow fluid to come into the area -> complement proteins and phagocytes can enter the site and join in the fight -> coagulation to seal off wound -> fibroblasts start to repair

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36
Q

What is the importance of arachidonic acid in inflammation?

A

they are the site of attack for COX1 and COX2 inhibitors which relieves swelling

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37
Q

afferent phase vs efferent phase

A
  • Afferent: information gathering stage; stimulation of a specific response to an antigen
  • Efferent: production of effector cells, antibodies, and molecules that follow the antigenic stimulation
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38
Q

What kind of effect can the efferent phase have on inflammation?

A
  • initiate inflammation (via immune complexes)
  • augment inflammation (via opsonization)
  • amplify inflammation (via complement fixation)
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39
Q

What are the majority of granulocytes?

A

leukocytes ~ 75%

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40
Q

What are the types of leukocytes?

A
  • Neutrophils (PMN): 40-75%
  • Eosinophils: 1-6%
  • Basophils: 0.2-1%
  • Monocytes: 2-10%
  • Lymphocytes: 20-50%
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41
Q

What are neutrophils?

A

life time is 8-12 hours but can live up to 5 days in the bone marrow reserve pool; this pool can be stimulated to be released to fight infection;

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42
Q

What is neutropenia and what does it result in?

A
  • quantitative deficiency of neutrophils

- serious condition rendering a patient susceptible to bacterial infection

43
Q

What are eosinophils?

A

important in the immunity against parasites; uses IgE

44
Q

What are basophils?

A

good against parasites as well (eosinophils are the other ones)

45
Q

How are mast cells different from basophils?

A

mast cells strongly bind to IgE

46
Q

What are monocytes?

A

released from bone marrow; has a half life of 8 hours; they find a tissue for residence then differentiate into macrophages; can live in tissue for a long time (years); important in late phase of inflammation

47
Q

What are dendritic cells?

A

a type of monocyte; activate T cells; most potent APC known

48
Q

What are the types of T-lymphocytes?

A
  • Regulatory T cells
  • Effector T cells
  • Cytotoxic and Delayed Hypersensitivity Cell (CD8+)
  • can also produce memory cells
49
Q

What are the types of regulatory T cells?

A
  • Helper cells (CD4)

- Sueppressor cells

50
Q

What does effector T cells do?

A

they can attack and infected cell and kill them; can also attack tumor cells

51
Q

What are the types of B-lymphocytes?

A
  • Memory B cells
  • Plasma cells
  • can produce antibodies
52
Q

What are plasma cells?

A

antibody synthesizing and secreting cells; derived from B cells

53
Q

What are the types of lymphocytes?

A
  • T-lymphocyte
  • B-lymphocyte
  • Natural killer cells
54
Q

What are the function NK cells?

A

they can recognize virally infected cells; they are cytotoxic for some target cells without having to have prior exposure

55
Q

What is the importance of CD numbers?

A

they identify specific cell-surface proteins (or carbohydrates) that are associated with particular cell populations or functions

56
Q

Where is the location for the source of cells?

A

bone marrow

57
Q

What are the primary lymphoid tissues?

A
  • bone marrow and thymus

- sites of lymphocyte development

58
Q

What are the secondary lymphoid tissues?

A
  • generally the sites of the immune response (where T and B cells are stimulated)
  • nodes/nodules, spleen, liver, MALT, BALT, GALT
59
Q

Describe the immune response in the lymph node.

A

molecules enter via the afferent lymphatic vessel; stimulation of lymphoid follicle (mostly B cells) -> germinal center; stimulation of T cell area; exit efferent lymphatic vessel

60
Q

What is lymphocyte traffic?

A

1-2% of lymphocytes are in transit at any give moment and will migrate towards a lymph node if needed and takes up residence there

61
Q

Order of operation starting from stimulation of T cell

A
  • Stimulation of T cell
  • Produce T helper cell
  • Interacts with B cells
  • Production of antibodies
62
Q

What can effector-antigen interactions lead to?

A
  • Precipitation
  • Agglutination
  • Complement fixation
  • Neutralization (e.g., toxin, virus)
  • Cytotoxicity
63
Q

What are the different classes of immunoglobins and what are they derived from?

A
  • also called gamma globulins
  • IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM
  • derived only from B cells
64
Q

What are characteristics of immunoglobulins?

A

have antibodies which bind specifically to the antigen that stimulated their formation

65
Q

What is another name for antigen binding site?

A
  • CDR

- part of the antibody that actually interacts with the antigen at the chemical level

66
Q

What is a hybridoma?

A

a fusion of B cell with myeloma to ensure that B cells that produce useful antibodies do not die off because their normal life expectancy is weeks-months

67
Q

Differentiate between the different types of monoclonal antibodies

A
  • Animal: whole antibody produced from animal
  • Chimeric: genetically engineered antibody; human antibody but animal CDR
  • Humanized: genetically engineered antibody; human antibody but specific parts of CDR preserved
  • Human: whole antibody produced from human
68
Q

What happens in the primary antigen-antibody reaction?

A

Basic combination of an antigen with a specific antibody (binding via the antigen binding site)

69
Q

What happens in the secondary antigen-antibody reaction?

A

combinations to produce a

precipitate or agglutination

70
Q

Define affinity

A

the strength of the reaction between a single antigenic determinant and the single combining site on the antibody

71
Q

Define avidity

A

easure of the overall strength of binding of an antigen

72
Q

What are the three major ways in which the complement system acts?

A
  • Causes lysis of cells, bacteria, and enveloped viruses
  • Mediate opsonization
  • Generates peptide fragments that regulate features of the inflammatory and immune responses
73
Q

What is opsonization?

A

preparing a target antigen that will be better eaten by a phagocyte; can be done with antibodies or complement proteins

74
Q

What is the key protein for each complement pathways?

A

Complement protein C3

75
Q

What are characteristics in the alternate pathway with respect to complement activation?

A
  • this is the first pathway to activate
  • is antibody-INdependent
  • triggered directly by microenvironment of microbial surface
  • direct binding and activation of protein 3 on pathogen surface
  • when gets to C8, it recruits multiple copies of C9 which forms a pore and what’s in the cell comes out and cell dies
76
Q

What are characteristics in the mannose pathway with respect to complement activation?

A
  • this is the second pathway to activate
  • binds to mannose residues (bacteria uses mannose on their surfaces)
  • activated C3B on bacterial surface
77
Q

How is IL-6 produced?

A
  • interleukin-6
  • bacterial infections induce macrophages to
    produce cytokine IL-6
78
Q

What does IL-6 do?

A

stimulates liver to produce acute phase proteins which are:

  • C-reactive protein
  • fibrinogen
  • mannose-binding lectin
79
Q

What are characteristics in the classical pathway with respect to complement activation?

A
  • initiated by one IgM molecule OR two or more IgG molecules bound side by side to a cell or virus surface OR C-reactive protein
  • causes binding and activation of protein C1
80
Q

Describe the lag phase (latent period).

A

3-14 day period where cells proliferate and differentiate before antibodies appear in serum

81
Q

Describe the exponential phase.

A

4-10 day period when the rate of antibody synthesis exceeds the rate of catabolism.

82
Q

Define the steady state phase.

A

when the rate of antibody biosynthesis and catabolism are approximately equal

83
Q

Define the declining phase.

A

when body is no longer exposed to threat or when it’s been significantly long since you’ve had your vaccine, antibodies in serum begin to decline

84
Q

Duration of immunity depends on two factors. What are they?

A
  • amount of antibody formed

- efficacy of antibody

85
Q

What are the difference between the phases between primary and secondary response to immunogenic stimulation?

A

Secondary response is:

  • Lag phase is much shorter
  • Exponential phase is steeper
  • Steady state phase is higher and shorter
  • Declining phase lasts longer and is slower
86
Q

What is antibody interference?

A

When you give second exposure/booster shot too soon after primary exposure and it clears out the antibodies produced during the primary exposure

87
Q

What are the fates of the T helper cell?

A
  • cytotoxic T cell
  • memory T cell
  • B cell
88
Q

Define immunogen

A

A substance capable of inducing an immune response in a susceptible animal and reacting with the products of that response.

89
Q

Define epitope

A

part of an immunogenic molecule that determines specificity and binds with an antibody or gives rise to the MHCbinding peptide the is recognized by the T-cell receptor

90
Q

Define antigen

A

a substance that can react with immune effectors

91
Q

Define haptens

A
  • small molecules that are not capable by themselves of inducing an immune response but may do so when covalently bound to a suitable carrier
  • once you generate the immune response, you no longer need the carrier
92
Q

What are the common functional groups in covalent bonding with respect to hapten + carrier?

A
  • COOH
  • NH2
  • SH
93
Q

What is valency?

A

having several binding sites on a molecule

94
Q

What are some examples of immunodominance?

A
  • Terminal epitopes are usually immunodominant in linear proteins.
  • Conformation is usually immunodominant over primary amino acid sequence in globular proteins
  • Primary structure is usually immunodominant in less structured linear proteins.
  • Hydrophilicity is often an immunodominant feature and hydrophilic epitopes are more immunogenic than lipophilic epitopes.
95
Q

What are characteristics of thymic-independent immunogens?

A
  • only makes IgM

- does not make memory cells

96
Q

What are the restrictions for T-cell response?

A
  • response only to processed antigen

- MHC-restricted

97
Q

What are the groups of HLA proteins that are recognized by WHO?

A
  • Class I: HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C

- Class II: HLA-DR, HLA-DQ, HLA-DP

98
Q

Note some differences between Class I and Class II HLA proteins.

A
  • Class I: made up of one subunit, present antigen directly to CD8 T cells
  • Class II: made up of two subunits, present antigen directly to CD4 T cells
99
Q

There are some accessory HLA proteins. What are they?

A
  • Class I: HLA-E, HLA-G (found on surface of cells and form ligands for NK cells), HLA-F (intracellular, recycling)
  • Class II: HLA-DM, HLA-DO (regulate peptide loading on DR, DP, DQ)
100
Q

Define haplotype

A

alleles on chromosome that are closely linked together and tend to be inherited together

101
Q

What are the main antigens involved in allograft rejection?

A

HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C

102
Q

Where are class II proteins expressed?

A

on APC

103
Q

What are the different types of APC?

A
  • macrophages
  • B cells
  • dendritic cells
104
Q

What is MHC restriction?

A

you need both the correct antigen and receptor to initiate a response

OU Immunology (7 decks)

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