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AP2 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What connects nerves to their effectors?

A

Peripheral motor endings

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2
Q

Where are motor endings found? What do they do?

A

Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
They release neurotransmitters

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3
Q

What type of movement does innervation of skeletal muscles create? From what part of the PNS?

A

Voluntary Movement
Somatic Nervous System

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4
Q

Innervation of skeletal muscles: Where is Ach released?

A

Released at a synapse called the neuromuscular junction (NMJ)

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5
Q

Innervation of Viceral Muscles and glands from what part of the PNS?

A

Autonomic NS

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6
Q

Innervation of Visceral Muscles and Glands: What is released and where?

A

Ach or Norepinephrine at varicosities

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7
Q

What are the three levels of motor control?

A

Segmental, Projection, and Precommand

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8
Q

The Segmental Level of Motor Control

A

-Spinal cord segment level
-motor neurons in ventral horn and interneurons
-final outputs for muscle movement; reflex circuits

–segmental level important for pattern movement

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9
Q

area of the brain involved in The Segmental Level of Motor Control

A

-motor neurons in ventral horn and interneurons

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10
Q

The projection level

A

-motor cortex (+axons to spinal cord)
-“upper motor neurons” that command voluntary movements

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11
Q

area of the brain involved in the The projection level

A

-motor cortex (+axons to spinal cord)

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12
Q

the precommand level

A

-cerebellum and basal nuclei
–influence motor cortex and help refine movements

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13
Q

Reflex activity are…
The reflex arc enables…

A

quick movements
rapid and predictable responses

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14
Q

Reflexes are…

A

involuntary, stereotyped responses to stimulus (movements)

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15
Q

Components of a reflex arc

A

-Pathway of neurons that are responsible for the movement

Receptor-> afferent-> integration center w/ interneurons-> motor efferent-> effector muscle

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16
Q

What are spinal reflexes?

A

somatic reflexes mediated by the spinal cord

(can occur without direct involvement of higher brain areas)

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17
Q

Stretch reflex

A

External stimulus creates the stretch- the reflex is contraction

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18
Q

Goal of the stretch reflex

A

keep posture with external stimulus

-when muscle X is stretched by something it reflexively contracts and at the same time motor neurons antagonist to muscle X (muscle Y) are inhibited

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19
Q

ARC steps with stretch reflex

A
  1. Muscle spindle detects stretch
  2. spindle afferent excite muscle X motor neuron and interneuron (interneuron inhibits antagonist motor neurons)
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20
Q

What are the effectors of the somatic nervous system?

A

skeletal muscles

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21
Q

What are the effectors of the autonomic nervous system?

A

smooth muscle, heart, glands

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22
Q

Where are the cell bodies of neurons in the somatic N.S.

where do their axons extend?

A

spinal cord

to the skeletal muscle they innervate

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23
Q

where do the axons of neurons in the somatic NS extend to?

A

the skeletal muscles they innervate

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24
Q

The ANS consists of (in terms of efferent pathways and ganglia)

A

A two neuron chain
The 1st neuron: preganglionic; its soma in the CNS, its axon terminates in a ganglion
The 2nd neuron: postganglionic neuron; its soma in the ganglion, its axon terminates on effector (w varicosities)

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25
Q

1st neuron in the ANS

(where is its soma, where does its axons terminate, pre or postganglionic)

A

preganglionic; its soma in the CNS, its axon terminates in a ganglion

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26
Q

2nd neuron in the ANS

A

postganglionic neuron; its soma in the ganglion, its axon terminates on effector (w varicosities)

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27
Q

what neurotransmitter is released by somatic motor neurons

A

acetylcholine

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28
Q

What do the neurotransmitters in the ANS within ganglia release? what does it do?

A

releases ACh from preganglionic cell which excites the postganglionic cell

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29
Q

what does acetylcholine do?

A

excites skeletal muscle

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30
Q

What do the neurotransmitters in the ANS releases at effector?

A

the preganglionic releases EITHER ACh or NE which may excite or inhibit effector

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31
Q

What are the two divisions of the ANS

A

parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions

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32
Q

Both divisions of the ANS usually serve the same visceral organs, but….

A

cause opposite effects

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33
Q

the parasympathetic division is manly known to

A

be lower energy spending

“rest and digest”

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34
Q

the sympathetic division is mainly known two

A

govern

“fight or flight” to threat

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35
Q

sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions differ in anatomy..

A

site and origin in the CNS and location of ganglia (therefore axon length)

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36
Q

Long preganglionic parasympathetic fibers originate in the?

A

Craniosacral CNS

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37
Q

preganglionic axons extend…

A

From CNS almost all the way to terminal ganglia at or near effector

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38
Q

cranial part of parasympathetic division…

A

sends preganglionic axons by way of cranial nerves, especially by the vagus nerve (CN 10)

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39
Q

sacral part of parasympathetic divisionn sends axons…

A

sends axon in nerves to digestive, urinary, and reproductive organs in lower abdomen

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40
Q

short preganglionic sympathetic fibers originate in the…

A

thoracolumbar CNS

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41
Q

in addition to innervating visceral organs in internal body cavities, sympathetic neurons exclusively innervate..?

A

superficial structures such as..

sweat glands, arrector pili, and smooth muscle in blood vessels

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42
Q

sympathetic pregang neurons exit the spinal cord via the..

A

ventral root

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43
Q

all sympathetic ganglia are located

A

close to the spinal cord (thus, the postganglionic axons are long)

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44
Q

ACh and NE are the major____ transmitters

A

ANS

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45
Q

Cholinergenic Receptors include

A

nicotinic and muscurinic

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46
Q

Nicotinic cholinergic receptors are found

A

on postganglionic neurons (and on skeletal muscles) and are excitatory

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47
Q

muscarinic receptors occur

A

on parasympathetic effector cells and may be excitory or inhibitory

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48
Q

there are two classes of adrenergic receptors that

A

produce either an excitory or inhibitory responses

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49
Q

the para and sym divisions usually produce…

A

opposite effects

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50
Q

most visceral organs receive…

A

dual innervation by both ANS divisions

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51
Q

iris dual innervation

A

Para- Constriction
Sym- Dilation

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52
Q

gastric gland dual innervation

A

Para- increase secretion
Sym- Decrease secretion

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53
Q

heart dual innervation

A

Para- Slows heart rate
Sym- Increase heart rate and squeeze more

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54
Q

bronchioles dual innervation

A

para- constricts
sym- dialates

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55
Q

sympathetic tone throughout the vascular system allows..

A

the firing of sympathetic neurons to control the diameter of BLOOD VESSELS, regulating systemic blood pressure

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56
Q

parasympathetic tone is usually dominant in the

A

HEART, DIGESTIVE SYSTEM, and URINARY TRACTS, maintaining normal homeostatic levels of function unless overridden by the sympathetic system during stress

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57
Q

what effect do the ANS divisons show on the genetalia

A

cooperative effect

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58
Q

the sympathetic system has a unique role in

A

thermoregulation: sweat glands, arrector pili

vascular- constricts skin blood vessels (it dialates other blood vessels)

kidney/ hormones- renin release

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59
Q

the sympathetic system has a unique role in ther omoregulation by

A

sweat glands and arrector pili

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60
Q

the sympathetic system has a unique role in the vascular system by

A

contricting skin blood vessels (usually dialates other blood vessels)

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61
Q

the hypothalumus oversees

A

ANS activity

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62
Q

what has the most direct influence over autonomic functions

A

the brain stem

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63
Q

the sympathetic system has a unique role in the kidneys/ hormones by

A

renin release

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64
Q

what is the main integration center for the ANS

A

hypothalamus

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65
Q

partial control or voulentary control of the ANS may be possible becuase

A

biofeedback training may enable a person to alter some invoulentary functions

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66
Q

brain stuctures involved in precommand level

A

-cerebellum and basal nuclei

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67
Q

the endocrine system is one of the bodys two…

A

main control systems

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68
Q

endocrinology is the study of

A

hormones and endocrine organs

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69
Q

hormones are

A

blood borne chemical messengers

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70
Q

hormone targets include

A

most cells in the body but the cell must have specific receptors: when hormone binds to the receptor cellular metabolism changes

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71
Q

What happens when a hormone binds to a receptor

A

cellular metabolism changes

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72
Q

endocrine glands are

examples are?

A

organs that secrete and make hormones, are ductless

include pituitary, thyroid, adrenal, etc. but many organs have some endocrine function

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73
Q

the chemical structure of a hormone determines

A

how it acts

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74
Q

most hormones are….

but other hormones are…

Where do lipid soluable steroids come from?

A

amino-acid based and water soluable

lipid soluable steroids such as those from gonads and adrenal cortex

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75
Q

the chemical structure of a hormone impacts its solubility in water which then impacts

A

its transport in blood, how long it stays in the body, which receptors it binds to

76
Q

hormones act through….

A

second messengers or by activating specific genes

77
Q

hormones can only influence target cells which are cells that

A

have receptors for that specific horomone

78
Q

water soluable hormones use

A

plasma membrane receptors and second messenger systems

79
Q

The cyclic AMP singaling mechanism

A

a) hormone binds receptor (on membrane surface)
b) receptor activates g-protein
c) g-protein activates adenyl cyclase (AC)
d) AC makes cAMP
e) protein kinase adds G (guanine) to a protein (eg. an ion chanel protein)

80
Q

other signaling mechanisms use

A

different second messengers or work without second messengers to initate a certian cellular responses

81
Q

lipid soluable hormones use

A

intracellular receptors and specific gene activation

82
Q

direct gene activation occurs when

A

sterioids or thyroxine binds to intracellular receptors and then activate a segment of DNA , i.e, start transcription (start protein synthesis)

83
Q

What are the three types of stimuli that cause hormone release?

A

A) Hormone sythesis and release is regulated

B) Endocrine gland stimuli may be humoral, neutral, or hormonal

C) Feedback control

84
Q

Endocrine gland stimuli may be

A

humoral, neutral, or hormonal

85
Q

stimuli that cause hormone release
critical ions or nutrients (humoral)

+ example

A

high or low levels of a chemical trigger hormone secretion

EG. low Ca++ PTH release

86
Q

stimuli that cause hormone release
if autonomic (neural)

A

axons release neurotransmitters to trigger hormone secretion (E.g sympathetic axons releasing adrenaline)

87
Q

stimuli that cause hormone release
if one hormone (hormonal)

+ example

A

one hormone stimulates a gland so secrete another hormone

(e.g TSH-TH)

88
Q

stimuli that cause hormone release

Feedback control + Exp

A

1) a hormone in the blood often inhibits subsequent release

(e.g. TH inhibits pituitarys release of TSH

89
Q

cells respond to a hormone if they have….

A

receptors for that hormone

90
Q

target cell response depends on three factors….

A

blood levels of the hormone
reletive number of target cell receptors
affinity of the the receptor for the hormone

91
Q

target cells can change their sensitivity to a hormone by

A

changing the number of receptors

92
Q

target cells can change their sensitivity to a hormone by changing the number of receptors

UP REGULATION

A

cell becomes more sensitive by expressing more receptors

93
Q

target cells can change their sensitivity to a hormone by changing the number of receptors

DOWN REGULATION

A

cell makes less receptors (so becomes less sensitive)

94
Q

Half life is

A

how long before the hormone is excreted or inactivated

95
Q

Is half life shorter for water soluble hormones or lipid soluable hormones

A

water soluable hormones

96
Q

Duration of hormonal activity: do water soluable hormones or steriods act quicker?

A

Water soluable

97
Q

Interaction of hormones at target cells include

A

synergysm and antagonism

98
Q

Interaction of hormones at target cells

SYNERGISM

A

when 2 hormones interact on a target cell causing a large effect (eg. cortisol + adrenaline)

99
Q

Interaction of hormones at target cells

ANTAGONISM

A

when two hormones oppose each other

(eg. insulin vs glucagon)

100
Q

the hypothamus controls release of hormones from the

A

pituitary gland

101
Q

the pituitary gland is situated in the…. of the skull and is connected to the … by the…

A

STELLA TURICA…BRAIN…INFUNDIBULUM

102
Q

What are the two lobes of the pituitary

A

Anterior Pituitary: several hormones

Posterior Pituitary: two hormones (no true grandular cells

103
Q

the hypothalamic hypophyseal tract connects

A

The posterior pituitary and the hypothalamus

104
Q

Pituitary-Hypothalamic relationships:

Two neurohormones are

A

Oxytocin and ADH

105
Q

Pituitary-Hypothalamic relationships:

neurohormones oxytocin S+E

A

Stim: hypothalamic neuron firing
Effect: uterine contraction, lactation, and bonding

106
Q

Pituitary-Hypothalamic relationships:

neurohormones ADH S+E

A

Stim: hypothalamus neuron firing
Effect: vasopressin-kidneys conserve water (less urination), and blood vessels constrict

107
Q

the hypothalamic hypophyseal portal system connects the

A

anterior pituitary and hypothalamus

108
Q

the hypothalamic hypophyseal portal system

6 Hormones (four of which are tropic hormones) are

A

Growth hormone, prolactin, TSH, ACTH, FSH+LSH

109
Q

6 Hormones (four of which are tropic hormones)

GROWTH HORMONE

A

S: GHRH from hypothalamus
E: Growth of muscle and bone

110
Q

6 Hormones (four of which are tropic hormones)

PROLACTIN

A

S: PRH from hypothalamus
E: Milk Production

111
Q

6 Hormones (four of which are tropic hormones)

TSH

A

S: TRH From hypothamus
E:TH AT THYROID

112
Q

6 Hormones (four of which are tropic hormones)

ACTH

A

S: CRH from hypothalamus
E: increase cortisol secretion at adrenal gland

113
Q

6 Hormones (four of which are tropic hormones)

FSH+LH

A

S: GnRH from hypothalamus
E: increase secretion of hormones and stimulate gamete production

114
Q

The thyroid controls

A

Metabolism

115
Q

The thyroid hormone is a…

S+E?

A

two amine hormone with iodine— exists as T3 or T4

S: TSH from anterior pituitary
E: increase metabolic rate of the cell and so effects thermoregulation, digestion, and energy levels

116
Q

Calcitonin….

S+E

A

is secreted by C cells of the thyroid, is a peptide hormone that

S: high Ca++ in blood
E: Deposit Ca++ in bone

117
Q

parathyroid glands are primary regulators of

A

blood calcium

118
Q

parathyroid glands are located on the

A

back of thyroid

119
Q

Parathyroid secretes parathyroid hormone PTH

S+E

A

S: Low blood Ca++

E: Cause bone to free up Ca++ from bone and put it into blood

120
Q

the adrenal glands produce hormones that are involved in

A

electrolyte balance and the stress response

121
Q

the adrenal gland consists of two regions

A

the cortex and the medulla

122
Q

the adrenal cortex produces

A

corticosteroids

123
Q

mineralcorticoids, mostly aldosterone

A

S:angiotensin 2 (a hormone) and other factors
E: increase sodium retention by kidneys

124
Q

glucocorticoids, such as cortisol

A

S: ATCH from the anterior pituitary
E: long term stress reponse + increase in blood glucose

125
Q

gonadocorticoids are mostly weak…. which are converted to _ and_ in the _

A

adrogens, tesosterone and estrogen, tissue cells

126
Q

the adrenal medulla synthesiszes epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

S: sympathetic neuron firing
E: short term stress response, including increase in heart rate, metabolic rate, and blood sugar

127
Q

the pineal gland secretes

A

melatonin

128
Q

melatonin S+E

A

S: hypothalamus neuron firing
E: sleepiness

129
Q

the pancreas, gonands, and most other organs secrete

A

hormones

130
Q

the pancreas is a mixed gland that secretes _ and _ gland cells

A

endocrine and exocrine

131
Q

alpha pancreas cells produce…. beta cells produce….

A

alpha- glucagon
beta- insulin

132
Q

glucagon S+E

A

S: low blood sugar
E: raise blood sugar by causing liver to convert gulcagon to lots of glucose

133
Q

insulin S+E

A

S: High blood sugar
E: lower blood sugar by increasing glucose absorption in many tissues. liver forms glycogen from many glucose

134
Q

the gonads produce

A

estrogen, testosterone, and progesterone

135
Q

the ovaries (gonads) produce

A

estrogen and progesterone

136
Q

the testes (gonads) produce

A

testosterone

137
Q

Ovaries - Estrogen S+E

A

S: FSH from anterior pitutitary
E: female reproductive functions

138
Q

Ovaries- Progesterone

A

S: LH from anterior pituitary
E: female reproductive funtions

139
Q

testes- testosterone S+E

A

S: LH from anterior pituitary
E: male reproductive functions

140
Q

What are the functions of blood (3)?

A

Transportation, regulation, protection

141
Q

Transport functions include delivery of

and transport of

A

Oxygen

CO2, nutrients/ wastes, hormones

142
Q

blood regulatory functions include maintaining

A

body temperature, fluid balance, pH

143
Q

Protective function include preventing

A

blood loss, infection

144
Q

Blood consists of

A

plasma and formed elements

145
Q

blood is a specialized connective tissue consisting of

A

Plasma (extracellular), fluid, and formed elements (cells+cell fragments)

146
Q

What are the 3 layers when blood is seperated

A

Erythrocytes (RBCS)
buffy coat- WBCs and platelets
plasma

147
Q

The blood hematocrit represents the

A

percentage of whole blood that is RBCs

148
Q

Physical characteristics and volume of blood

A

-viscous
-around 5L per person
-slightly basic (7.35-7.45 pH)

149
Q

Blood Plasma consists of

A

-water (the solvent)
-solutes: electrolytes and proteins

150
Q

components of protein in blood plasma

A

-clotting (e.g. fibrogen)
-antibodies- gamma globulins
-albumins: keep concentration normal

151
Q

Formed elements of the blood are

A

-RBCs, Platelets, WBCs
-only WBCs have nuclei

152
Q

Erythrocytes play a crucial role in

A

oxygen+CO2 transport and exchange

153
Q

Erythrocytes (RBCs) shape+ characteristics

A

-Shape: disc, biconcave, large surface area
-No Nuclei, no mitochondria, no protein synthesis, no DNA
-last around 110 days
-made of membrane, Hb protein, and water

154
Q

Erythrocytes (RBCs) shape+ characteristics

HEMOGLOBIN Characteristics

A

-key protein in RBCs
-made of 4 peptides together
-each peptide holds a heme group (with iron)
-Hb can hold 4 O2 molecules

155
Q

Production of Erythrocytes: hematopoisis and its regulation

A

1) Stim by erythropoietin EPO hormone secreted by the kidneys when O2 is low
2) EPO stimulates red marrow where…
3) Stem cells give rise to more RBCs (Vitamin B12, folic acid, and iron are needed)
4)RBCs last around 110 days and then are removed/ recycled by the spleen

156
Q

Erythrocyte disorders include

A

Anemias and polycythemia

157
Q

Anemia is…
is caused by…

A

is low oxygen carying capacity

a) hemorrhage
b) low RBC production (iron deficency, lacking B12,
c) high RBC breakdown (e.g. sickle cell)

158
Q

Polycythemia

A

-excess RBC production
caused by oxygen deficiency, genetic mutation, or doping

159
Q

Role of leukocytes

A

defending the body

160
Q

Leukocytes are…

A

WBCs
-are complete
-small number of them
-body defenses

161
Q

Granulocytes are..

A

cells with stained granules in cytoplasm

NEUTROPHILLS EOSINOPHILS AND BASOPHILS

162
Q

Neutrophills…

A

-make up the majority of WBCs
-attracted to sites of inflammation
-phagocytose bacteria

163
Q

eosinophils…

A

-attack parasitic worms
-too many seen in allergies

164
Q

basophills are..

A

-least numerous WBCs
-release histamine and heprin for inflammation

165
Q

what are the two Agranulocytes

A

LYMPHOCYTES AND MONOCYTES

166
Q

lymphocytes

A

-2nd most common WBCs
-T cells (thymus cells) attack infected cells
-B Cells (bone-developed) become plasma cells which make and release antibody proteins

167
Q

Monocytes

A

Become macrophanges when they leave blood

168
Q

2 Leukocyte disorders

A

Luekemia- cancer of WBCs
Mononucleosis- many lymphocytes develop to attack virus

169
Q

Platelets

A

-are formed elements but not whole cells
-are fragments of magokaryocytes
-key role in homeostasis (stopping bleeds)
-stick to broken blood vessels; become spiky/ sticky to form a plug

170
Q

Transfusion of whole blood is routine only when

A

blood loss is substantial, treating thrombocytopenia; most of the time-packed RBCs are used

171
Q

Blood types: A/B/O groups

A

depend on presence or abstance of A+B proteins on RBCs (O has no protein, AB has both

172
Q

Antibodies against foreign proteins are found where (blood)

A

Plasma
(e.g. if you have type-A blood you have Anti-B antibodies)

173
Q

What is the universal donor?

Universal recipient?

A

O (donor)
AB (recipient)

174
Q

RH factor is another _ protein

A

RBC

175
Q

Ionotropic (direct) (fast) receptors include

A

For ACH (cholinergic)
nicotinic- excitirory

176
Q

Metabotropic (indirect) (slow) receptors include

excititory or inhibitory

A

For ACH (choliergic)
muscarinic
For NE (adrengeric)
Alpha receptor
beta 1+2 receptor

177
Q

ACH Receptors

A

muscarinic- either excitatory or inhibitory

nicotinic- excitatory

178
Q

Norepi Receptors

A

Adrenergic- either excitory or inhibitory

179
Q

Neurons that release ACH in ANS

A

Long pregang neuron
short postgang neuron
Short pregang neuron

180
Q

Neurons that release NorEPI IN ANS

A

long postgang neuron

181
Q

axons in parasym

A

long pregang axon and short postgang axon (both release ACH)

182
Q

axons in sym

A

short pregang axon (releases ACH) and long postgang axon (releases NE)

183
Q

insecticides containing organophosphatess inhibit acytylcholinesterase (which breaks down ACH) which autonomic receptors are stimulated excessivly as a result of this inhibition

A

Acytylcholine receptors

184
Q

Case study:

which division of ANS has been primary affeced-
constricted pupils and low heart rate

A

Parasympathetic

185
Q

Case study:

under what conditions does parasymp of ANS usually dominate

A

low body energy “rest and digest”

186
Q

Case study:

What effects may the insecticide have on the GI system

A

increase digestion

increase diarrhea

187
Q

Case Study: Is atropine sulfase an antagonist or agonist drug

A

AntagonistL Ach being inhibited so atropine is counteracting

AP2 (6 decks)

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