exam 1 Flashcards
the MHC is divided into how many major regions
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
c. 4
which is not one of the 5 important factors in the functioning of antigens
a. degradability
b. structural stability
c. complexity
d. relativity
e. molecular weight
d. relativity
MCH class I molecules include the regions:
B, C, D
A, B, D
A, B, C
A, C, D
ABC
True or False
Papain generates a single bivalent antigen-binding fragment
false
This immunoglobulin variant is the dominant type found on the immunoglobulins of all animals in a species.
a. allotype
b. idiotype
c. isotype
isotype
What is the correct order for the phases of antibody response?
lag, log, plateau, decline
Which of the following are applications of monoclonal antibodies:
- immunoassay development
- classifications of leukemias and lymphomas
- quantification of hormones
- b and c
- all of the above
all of the above
place in the correct order of phagocytosis
chemotaxis
adherence
engulfment
phagosome formation
fusion
digestion and destruction
opsonization is the coating of organisms by which two molecules
- Fc and C3
- Fc and C4
- C3 and C4
- Fa and C3
Fc and C3
describe adhesion
Upregulation of integrins promote activity of cell adhesion molecules on the endothelium
describe tethering
First contact of leukocyte with endothelium
describe triggering
Neutrophil is prepared to receive signals from chemokines
Monocytes and macrophages are the primary source of which polypeptide hormone:
- IL-1
- IL-17
- IL-10
- IL-25
- IL-1
the cardinal signs of inflammation do not include
- pain
- bruising
- swelling
- redness
bruising
chronic inflammation almost always leads to
- fibrosis
- pus formation
- resolution
- acute inflammation
fibrosis
the progressive stages of sepsis are
- infection, sepsis, severe sepsis
- sepsis, septic shock, death
- sepsis, severe sepsis, septic shock
- infection, severe sepsis, death
- sepsis, severe sepsis, septic shock
what is the sequence of component activiation in the classic pathway
1 4 2 3 5 6 7 8 9
Which acute phase protein has greater specificity for proinflammatory markers for sepsis?
- alpha 1 antitrypsin
- c reactive protein
- procalcitonin
- C4
c reactive protein
as a group, cytokines
- bind to specific membrane receptors on target cells
- act close to the site of synthesis on the same cell or on a nearby cell
- regulate receptor expression in T and B cells
- both a and b
- all of the above
all of the above
who is the father of immunology
pasteur
the innate immune system has how many lines of defense
1st and 2nd
the adaptive immune system has all but
- the ability to exhibit memory of a prior response
- the ability to rearrange genes
- highly targeted precise response
- an immediate protection component
an immediate protection component
The stem cell is a common ________ multipotential cell
- cd4
- cd20
- cd34
- cd80
CD34
Which is not a tissue sentinel cell in the innate immune system?
- macros
- pmns
- mast cell
- dendritic cell
pmn
what is the order of classical pathway stages
recognition, amplification, MAC
Which cell’s primary function is host defense against bacterial and fungal infections?
- pmn
- t lymph
- baso
- nk cell
pmn
Which cell is associated the most with allergic reactions?
eosinophil
All of the microbes that inhabit different locations in our bodies are called
microbiome
what is humoral mediated immunity
antibodies in action
what is cell mediated immunity
direct cell-cell contact or soluble products secreted by cells
The characteristics of:
- rapid recognition of microbes
- use of widely expressed nonvariant receptors to recognize microbes
- receptors to distinguish self from non-self
are seen in which line of defense?
second
Which immunoglobulin is commonly found in tears and saliva?
IgA
True or False
Lymphatic fluid, lymphocytes, and antigens enter the lymph node through the efferent duct and exit through the afferent duct.
false
Which cell would not be considered to be part of the innate immune system?
- monocytes
- dendritic cells
- NK cells
- t lymphs
T lymphs
what IL do PMNs respond to from the adaptive immune system
IL-17
The characteristic associated with IgD is:
- Predominant immunoglobulin in secretions
- Increase in infectious diseases, collagen disorders, and hematologic disorders
- Mediates some types of hypersensitivity reactions
- Primarily a cell membrane immunoglobulin
Primarily a cell membrane immunoglobulin
An appropriate description of IgG is:
- Accounts for 10% of the Ig pool, largely confined to the intravascular space
- Mediates some types of hypersensitivity
- Found in tears, saliva, colostrum, milk, and intestinal secretions
- Diffuses more readily into extravascular spaces, neutralizes toxins, and binds to microorganisms
Diffuses more readily into extravascular spaces, neutralizes toxins, and binds to microorganisms
Bonding of antigen to antibody exists exclusively as
noncovalent bonding
The surface marker for CD3 is found on:
- all or most T lymphs
- helper T
- suppressor-cytotoxic T
- T reg
all or most T lymphs
A characteristic of Chediak-Higashi Syndrome is:
a. Failure to exhibit increased anaerobic metabolism during phagocytosis
b. Marked defect in cellular response to chemotaxis
c. Mild-to-marked defect in bactericidal ability of neutrophils
d. Defective leukocyte locomotion
b. Marked defect in cellular response to chemotaxis
a. is CGD
c. MPO deficiency
d. leukocyte adhesion deficiency
The characteristic associated with colony stimulating factor is:
- stimulate hematopoietic growth factor
- Encoding gene located in the HLA region between the HLA-DR and HLA-B loci
- Induces phenotype transformation in non-neoplastic cells
- Also known as IL-2
Stimulates hematopoietic growth factor
Which of the following conditions can be associated with hypercomplementemia?
- Myocardial infarction
- Systemic lupus erythematosus
- Glomerulonephritis
- Subacute bacterial endocarditis
myocardial infraction
Which is not one of the 4 main sources of Biological Response Mediators?
- b lymphs
- nk cells
- monocytes
- pmns
pmns
