Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the neurotransmitters for the SNS?

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the groups of drugs that affect the SNS?

A

Adrenergic agonists, adrenergic antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is another name for adrenergic agonists?

A

Sympathomimetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is another name for adrenergic antagonists?

A

Adrenergic blockers or sympatholytics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is another name for the SNS?

A

Adrenergic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Adrenergic receptor organ cells are of ______ types

A

Four

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the names of the receptors for the adrenergic system?

A

Alpha1, Alpha 2, Beta 1, Beta 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What drugs stimulate the SNS?

A

Adrenergic agonists, adrenergic, or sympathomimetics (all the same thing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where are the alpha-adrenergic receptor cells located?

A

Blood vessels, eyes, bladder, and prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens when the Adrenergic Alpha 1 receptors are stimulated?

A

Arterioles and Venuoles constrict—> increase BP, mydriasis, bladder relax, prostate contracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where are the Adrenergic Alpha 2 receptors located?

A

In the postganglionic sympathetic nerve endings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens when the Adrenergic Alpha 2 receptors are stimulated?

A

Inhibit release of norepinephrine=vasodilation—>decrease in BP, decrease GI tone and motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where are the Adrenergic Beta 1 receptors located?

A

Primarily in the heart, but also in kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens when the Adrenergic Beta 1 receptors are stimulated?

A

Increases myocardial contractility and angiotensin production= inc BP and HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where are the Adrenergic Beta 2 receptors located?

A

Mostly in smooth muscles of Lungs, GI tract, liver, and uterine muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What happens when the Adrenergic Beta 2 receptors are stimulated?

A

Bronchodilation, decrease in GI tone and motility, Glycogenolysis in liver=increase in blood glucose,decrease in uterine contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the function of Adrenergics?

A

Stimulate the SNS and act on adrenergic receptor sites (i.e. shock)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What kind of response do catecholamines produce?

A

Sympathomimetic response Through direct-acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the two types of catecholamines?

A

Endogenous (made in the body)
Synthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Noncatecholamines simulate _______

A

Adrenergic receptors for a longer reaction; can be direct, indirect, or mixed-acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What kind of receptors are dopaminergic?

A

Adrenergic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where are dopaminergic receptors located and what do they do?

A

Renal, mesenteric, coronary, and cerebral arteries; vasodilation and increased blood flow- only dopamine can activate these receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the three categories of sympathomimetic drugs?

A

Direct-acting, indirect-acting, and mixed-acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do Direct-acting sympathomimetics do?

A

Directly stimulate Adrenergic receptor (i.e. epinephrine and norepinephrine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What do indirect-acting sympathomimetics do?

A

Stimulate release of norepinephrine from terminal nerve endings (i.e. amphetamine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What do mixed-acting sympathomimetics do?

A

Both direct- and indirect-acting; stimulate adrenergic receptor sites and stimulate release of norepinephrine from terminal nerve endings. (I.e. Pseudoephedrine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a catecholamine?

A

Chemical structures of a substance that produce sympathomimetic responses. Two types- endogenous and synthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are some examples of endogenous catecholamines?

A

Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are some examples of synthetic catecholamines?

A

Isoproterenol and dobutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a noncatecholamine?

A

Stimulate adrenergic receptors and (most of the time) have a longer duration of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are some examples of noncatecholamines?

A

Phenylephnrine, metaproterenol, and albuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

T/F: adrenergic agonists can not stimulate more than one adrenergic receptor sites

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is an example of an Adrenergic agonist that stimulates more than one receptor?

A

Epinephrine (Alpha1, Beta1, and Beta2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Is Epinephrine selective or non selective?

A

Nonselective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What receptors does epinephrine act on?

A

Alpha 1, Beta 1, and Beta 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What effects does epinephrine have when it binds to the receptors?

A

Increase BP, pupil dilation, tachycardia, and bronchodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What can epinephrine be used for?

A

Tx: anaphylaxis, bronchospasm, cardiac arrest, status asthmatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the routes that epinephrine can be given?

A

Topical, inhalation, SC, IV, IM, enterocardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What should the nurse monitor when giving a patient epinephrine?

A

BP, blood glucose, and HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a Beta blocker?

A

The opposite of an adrenergic agonist- lowers BP and HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What med can cause cardiac dysrhythmias if given with epinephrine?

A

Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What meds can affect the duration of epinephrine?

A

TCAs(tricyclic antidepressants) and MAOIs (monoamine oxidase inhibitors) (antidepressants)- prolong and intensify duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What Beta 2 agonist did we talk about in class?

A

Albuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does albuterol do?

A

Short acting beta agonist that is selective(Beta 2) and bronchodilates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the most common side effects of albuterol?

A

Tremors, headache, and nervousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are some side effects of albuterol?

A

Tremors, headaches, nervousness/restlessness, N/V, tachycardia, palpations, dizziness, dysrhythmia, urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are some adverse effects of albuterol?

A

Reflex tachycardia and cardiac dysrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How do you know if a drug is a beta blocker?

A

Ends in -olol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is an Adrenergic antagonist?

A

Sympatholytics or blockers, that block effects of adrenergic neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How many types of adrenergic antagonists are there?

A

Two (alpha and beta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How do sympatholytics block the actions of an Adrenergic agonist?

A

Directly occupying receptors-block and inhibit epi and norepi release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are some adverse effects of epinephrine?

A

Palpitations, tachycardia, HTN, Dyspnea, MI, renal insufficiency, injection site reaction, dysrhythmias, pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are some side effects of epinephrine?

A

N/V, restlessness, tremor, agitation, headache, pallor, oliguria, weakness, dizziness, hypo/hyperglycemia, paresthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What kind of onset and peak concentration times does epinephrine have?

A

Rapid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What kind of drug is Prazosin?

A

Adrenergic antagonist(blocker) that vasodilates and treats HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Side effects of prazosin?

A

Orthostatic Hypotension, lethargy, dizziness, nausea, headache, peripheral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Adverse effects of Prazosin?

A

Palpitations, tachycardia, lethargy ; avoid alcohol—> lowers BP and take with Food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Nursing considerations for Prazosin?

A

Monitor VS and no fenylephrine or pseudophed; take before bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What can be used to treat BPH?

A

Tamsulosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are some concerns for Adrenergic agonists?

A

Tachycardia, HTN, and hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What should the nurse teach the patient to do when on an adrenergic blocker like prazosin?

A

Dangle their legs and move slowly (orthostatic hypotension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is a contraindication for nonselective beta blockers? Why?

A

Respiratory disorders- Beta 2 receptors are responsible for bronchodilation and secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the parasympathetic nervous system is called?

A

Cholinergic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the neurotransmitter for the cholinergic system?

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is another name for a cholinergic agonist?

A

Muscarinic agonists or parasympathomimetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is another name for the cholinergic antagonists?

A

Muscarinic antagonist, parasympatholytics, or anticholinergics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the two types of the cholinergic receptors?

A

Nicotinic and Muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How many types of receptors are in the cholinergic system?

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What neurotransmitter stimulates the receptor cells to produce a response?

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What inactivates acetylcholine before it reaches the receptor cell?

A

Acetylcholinesterase (enzyme)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Parasympathomimetic drugs _______ heart rate

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Parasympatholytic drugs ______ heart rate

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Sympathomimetic drugs ____ Heart rate

A

Increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What does the Muscarinic receptors stimulate?

A

Smooth muscle and slows heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What does a nicotininc receptor stimulate?

A

Skeletal muscles (neuromuscular)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How many types of cholinergic agonists are there and what are they?

A

Two; direct acting and indirect acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What do direct acting cholinergic agonists do?

A

Act on receptors to activate a tissue response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What do cholinergic indirect acting agonists do?

A

Inhibit the action of enzyme cholinesterase (ChE) - also called acetylcholinesterase (AChE) by forming a chemical complex that allows acetylcholine to persist and attach to receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the two categories of cholinesterase inhibitors?

A

Reversible and irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What do the reversible cholinesterase inhibitors do?

A

Bind the ChE for several minutes to hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What to irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors do?

A

Bind the ChE permanently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the major response of cholinergic agonists?

A

Stimulate bladder and GI tone, constrict pupils of eyes (miosis), and increase neuromuscular transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are responses of the cholinergic agonists?

A

Decreased heart rate and BP, increased salivary, GI, bronchial secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What do cholinergic agonists do?

A

Increase all secretions, GI motility, constrict bronchi, decreases HR and BP (vasodilation), increase ureter tone and contract bladder, miosis, maintain strength of striated muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the three common cholinergic agonists?

A

Metoclopramide, pilocarpine, bethanechol chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is metoclopramide used for?

A

Increase gastric emptying; tx for GERD, gastroparesis, N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is pilocarpine used for?

A

To treat glaucoma , promote miosis in eye surgery and examination; relieves intraocular fluid pressure

88
Q

What is bethanechol chloride used for?

A

Increase urination, Tx for urinary retention and neurogenic bladder

89
Q

Side effects/adverse reactions for cholinergic agonists?

A

Miosis, bronchoconstriction, increased secretions, SLUDGES

90
Q

Contraindications for cholinergic agonists?

A

Respiratory conditions (COPD), heart failure, intestinal/urinary tract obstructions

91
Q

What does SLUDGES stand for?

A

Cholinergic side effects- salivation, lacrimation, urinating, diarrhea, Gastric upset, emesis, sweating

92
Q

What are two selective beta blockers talked about in class and which beta receptor do they blocK?

A

Metoprolol and atenolol; beta 1 only

93
Q

What is metoprolol?

A

Adrenergic beta 1 blocker that lowers HR and BP; tx for HTN, A.Fib, heart failure, MI, adverse tachycardia

94
Q

Side effects/adverse effects of metoprolol?

A

Bradycardia, orthostatic hypotension, decreased CO, AV block, rebound cardinal HTN/tachycardia

95
Q

What are the nursing considerations for selective beta adrenergic blockers?

A

Monitor HR and BP for decreases, if HR < 50, hold. Do not stop med abruptly —-> taper= if not rebound myocardium excitation, change positions slowly,EKG baseline needed

96
Q

Propranolol

A

Nonselective beta blocker (beta 1 and 2), avoid using with respiratory patients; monitor BGL - hypoglycemia, interacts with antihypertensives and calcium channel blockers

97
Q

Cholinergic agonist nursing considerations

A

Monitor HR and BP, I/O, respiratory status (increased secretions), monitor for overdose (increased salivation, sweating, flushing, ABD cramps)

98
Q

What is the antidote for a cholinergic overdose?

A

Atropine- anticholinergic

99
Q

How do anticholinergics function?

A

Block responses by occupying acetylcholine receptors

100
Q

Anticholinergic effects

A

Increase HR, decrease secretions, bronchodilation, smooth muscles relax (GI), mydriosis, drowsiness/sedation on CNS

101
Q

How can you remember the anticholinergic effects?

A

Can’t see(blurred vision), can’t pee(urinary retention), can’t poop(constipation), can’t spit (dry mouth)

102
Q

What does atropine do?

A

Increase HR, decrease motility and peristalsis and diarrhea; decrease cholinergic crisis

103
Q

How would you recognize an atropine overdose?

A

Mad as a hatter, dry as a bone, red as a beet, blind as a bat

104
Q

Side effects/adverse effects for atropine

A

Tachycardia, mydriosis, dry eyes, constipation, decrease secretions, retention

105
Q

What are contraindications for atropine?

A

Glaucoma, urinary and bowel obstructions, tachycardia

106
Q

What shoulda patient on atropine avoid?

A

Heat! Can’t sweat, heat stroke risk

107
Q

What are some nursing interventions and pt teaching for atropine?

A

Increase fiber, exercise and fluids! Drowsiness and safety, mouth care (candies for dry mouth), sunglasses-photophobia

108
Q

What are the most common uses of atropine?

A

Decrease salivation and respiratory secretions pre operative and sinus bradycardia TX

109
Q

What is an antihistamine?

A

Anticholinergic

110
Q

What is scopolamine

A

An anticholinergic classified as an antihistamine used for motion sickness; typically a skin patch placed behind ear

111
Q

How is transdermal scopolamine delivered?

A

Over 3 days, applied 4 hours before motion sickness activity

112
Q

Scopolamine side effects?

A

Can’t see, cant pee, cant spit, cant poop

113
Q

what is pharmacokinetics?

A

Movement of drug in the body

114
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?

A

What the drug does to the body

115
Q

When is the peak of a drug measured?

A

30-60 min after infusion is complete

116
Q

When is the trough of a drug measured?

A

30 minutes before the next dose (but has to result first)

117
Q

Which administration route has the highest bioavailability?

A

IV

118
Q

What role do proteins play in medication administration?

A

They bind to drugs as a carrier to take them to receptors

119
Q

What is displacement?

A

When two drugs compete for protein binding, but one has a higher affinity for proteins and that drug “kicks off” the other drug

120
Q

What can happen with displacement?

A

Drug toxicity of the drug that does not bind to the proteins and become “free drugs”

121
Q

Where does metabolism take place?

A

Liver; it converts it to the inactive form

122
Q

What labs are used to measure kidney function?

A

BUN (10-20), creatinine (0.5-2), and GFR(90-120). A high BUN and creatinine is bad and a low GFR is bad

123
Q

What is a half-life?

A

The amount of time it takes for half of a drug to be excreted

124
Q

What organs affect the half life of a drug?

A

Liver and kidneys (dysfunction of either increases the half life which increases the chances of toxicity)

125
Q

What are enteric coated tablets?

A

Tablets that are extended release, slow release, and long release- are absorbed in the small intestine not stomach

126
Q

How do pharmacokinetics in pediatrics differ?

A

They are physically immature which (affects the doses(immature liver until age 2), absorption(skin- absorbed faster), distribution (less protein and higher water percentage), excretion (immature kidneys until 1-2 Years)

127
Q

How should orals meds be given to young children?

A

Oral syringes to the cheek or droppers

128
Q

Where should children be given injections?

A

Vastus lateralis

129
Q

What age group should suppository medications be given to?

A

Infants

130
Q

How should you interact with a toddler for medication adminstration?

A

Involve them, give short explanations, involve parents, fave drink afterwards, give them choices of drink or bandaid

131
Q

Where should toddlers and preschoolers be given injections?

A

Ventrogluteal

132
Q

What should schoolage and adolescents be monitored and how should they be administered medications?

A

Understanding that they have increasing independence and we should monitor for risky behaviors

133
Q

Should doses be lowered or increased for pediatric patients?

A

Lowered

134
Q

What should be preserved in older adults?

A

Independence, as long as it is safe to do so

135
Q

What are some physiologic changes in older adults?

A

Dysphagia, lower BMI and functions

136
Q

What is something a nurse can keep in mind when educating an older adult about their medication?

A

Adherence decreases- how can you help them to remember and stick to medication schedules?

137
Q

Older adults have ____ protein, so doses should be _____

A

Lower; lower

138
Q

What should be remembered regarding dosage and older adults?

A

“Start low and go slow”

139
Q

What is the BEERS criteria?

A

A list of medications where the risks of harm from the medication outweighs the potential benefits of the medication

140
Q

what types meds should be given to older adults and why?

A

Generic, because it is cheaper and universally recognized

141
Q

How can we prevent adverse effects of medications in older adults!

A

Assess, educate, and provide medication administration aids ; monitor renal and liver function ; “How do you take this med?”

142
Q

Pregnancy categories

A

A no fetal risk in controlled studies
B no risk to human fetus despite possible animal risk or no risks in animal studies but human studies lacking
C human risk cannot be ruled out. Animal studies may or may not show risk
D evidence of risk to human fetus
X contraindicated in pregnancy

143
Q

What pregnancy category means that it is safe to give?

A

A- no fetal risk in controlled experiments

144
Q

Which pregnancy category means that potential benefits and potential harm must be compared/weighed?

A

D-evidence of risk to fetus

145
Q

Which pregnancy category means that you cannot give it to a pregnant woman?

A

X- contraindicated in pregnancy

146
Q

What are the rights of medication administration?

A

Right client, right med, right dose, right route, right time, right documentation

147
Q

Medication reconciliation

A

Should be done at arrival, admission, transfer, and discharge; visit/checkup/follow up

148
Q

What Gauge and size needle is used for IM injections?

A

18-26G 1- 1 1/2 inch

149
Q

What method is used to administer an IM injection?

A

Z track method

150
Q

What syringe/needle is used for an ID injection?

A

Tuberculin

151
Q

How do you know if an ID is given successfully?

A

Formation of a wheal or bleb

152
Q

What is the degree of angle used for an IM injection?

A

90 degrees

153
Q

What is the degree of angle used for an ID injection?

A

10-15 degrees

154
Q

What is the Z track method?

A

Displacing the skin 1 inch before IM injection to avoid leakage of irritating and discoloring meds into subcutaneous tissue and prevent leakage into needle track and avoid discomfort

155
Q

What should be done before a transdermal medication is administered?

A

Wear gloves, Take old one off and rotate sites where patch is placed. Site must be hairless, clean, and dry. AVOID HEAT

156
Q

Where are sublingual medications administered?

A

Under the tongue against mucous membrane

157
Q

Where are buccal medications administered?

A

Between the cheek and the gum

158
Q

Are eyedrops sterile or clean application?

A

Sterile

159
Q

What can you do to prevent the medication in eyedrops from going systemic?

A

Lacrimal pressure

160
Q

What is BUN normal range?

A

10-20

161
Q

What is the normal creatinine range?

A

0.5-1.2

162
Q

What is the normal GFR?

A

90-120

163
Q

Is it good or bad if the BUN or creatinine is high?

A

Bad

164
Q

Is it good or bad if the GFR is high?

A

Good

165
Q

What is a half-life?

A

The amount of time it takes for half of the drug to be excreted

166
Q

What steps make up the absorption process?

A

Disintegration and dissolution

167
Q

What is disintegration?

A

Breakdown of oral drug into smaller particles

168
Q

What is dissolution?

A

Combining small drug particles with liquid to make a solution

169
Q

What two steps must occur for absorption to take place? Is there an exception and why?

A

Disintegration and dissolution; if meds are already in liquid form it skips some steps before absorption

170
Q

What is an excipient?

A

Fillers and inert substances added to enhance the solution

171
Q

What type of GI fluids absorb faster than the other?

A

Acidic

172
Q

Who has more alkaline gastric fluids?

A

Very old or young patients

173
Q

What are the drug absorption methods?

A

Diffusion, facilitated diffusion, active transport, and pinocytosis

174
Q

Which injection is slower than an IM injection in terms of absorption rates?

A

SC

175
Q

Where do drugs go to be filtered when taken by mouth?

A

Portal vein->liver

176
Q

If a patient has lower protein levels, how will this affect medication adminstration?

A

Lower the dose because their receptors are few= toxicity

177
Q

Do water or lipid soluble drugs pass membranes easier?

A

Lipid

178
Q

Can water soluble drugs pass the blood-brain barrier?

A

No

179
Q

What is another word for metabolism ?

A

Biotransformation

180
Q

what is a prodrug?

A

Metabolized into active form, exception to rule of metabolism

181
Q

Steady state

A

Amount of drug administered is the same amount that is excreted

182
Q

Loading dose

A

Large initial dose used to reach steady state quicker

183
Q

What organ dysfunction can affect half-life?

A

Liver and kidney

184
Q

What happens if a patient has kidney dysfunction?

A

Med is not excreted, so it recirculates in the body= toxicity

185
Q

What happens if a patient has liver dysfunction?

A

Drug is not converted to inactive form, stays active= toxicity

186
Q

ADME

A

Absorption, distribution,metabolism,excretion; process of pharmacokinetics

187
Q

Fluid shift and edema affects what pharmacokinetic phase?

A

Distribution - hypovolemia makes it difficult for sites to be reached

188
Q

Primary effect of a drug

A

Desired effect, why we are giving it to them

189
Q

Secondary effect of a drug

A

Can be desirable or undesirable, can be unexpected

190
Q

Potency

A

Amount of drug needed to elicit specific physiologic response

191
Q

Maximal efficacy

A

Increase in dosage no longer increases therapeutic response

192
Q

Therapeutic index

A

Relationship between ED50(therapeutic dose) and TD50 (toxic dose)

193
Q

Therapeutic range

A

Concentration range of drug in plasma where the drug is effective without causing toxic effects in most people

194
Q

Onset

A

Time it takes for drug to reach minimum affective concentration

195
Q

Peak

A

Highest concentration in the blood

196
Q

Duration

A

Length of time drug exerts therapeutic effect before decreasing again

197
Q

Trough

A

Lowest drug concentration in the blood, just before next dose; taken 15-30 min before next dose

198
Q

When do you monitor for the peak after an oral administration?

A

2-3 hours after

199
Q

When do you monitor a peak for an IM injection?

A

2-4 hours after injection

200
Q

When do you monitor a peak for an IV infusion?

A

30-60 min after completion of infusion

201
Q

Nonselective drug effects

A

Multiple receptors can be affected

202
Q

Nonspecific drug effects

A

Effect receptors in multiple systems

203
Q

Agonists

A

Activate receptors and produce desired response

204
Q

Partial agonist

A

Moderate response when binding to receptors

205
Q

Antagonist

A

Prevent receptor activation or block response

206
Q

Tolerance

A

Decreased response over a course of time even after increasing the dosage until max dose is reached

207
Q

Tachyphylaxis

A

Rapid decrease in response to drug after one or several doses

208
Q

Placebo effect

A

Drug response not attributed to drug chemical properties

209
Q

What is poly pharmacy?

A

When 5 more more prescriptions are taken, typically older adults

210
Q

What are the pharmacodynamic drug effects?

A

Synergistic, additive, antagonist, drug-nutrient, drug-laboratory, and drug induced photosensitivity effects

211
Q

Synergistic effect:

A

One drug heightens the effect of another

212
Q

Additive effect

A

Sum of both drugs acting together is greater than one

213
Q

Antagonistic effect

A

One drug blocks or reduces effect of another drug- desirable or undesirable

214
Q

Drug-nutrient effect

A

Food can increase or decrease or delay drug response effect

215
Q

Drug-laboratory effect

A

Drugs affect lab results

216
Q

Drug induced photosensitivity

A

Skin reaction (drug induced) with severe sunburns when in sunlight

217
Q
A

Pharmacology (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions