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Clinical Pathology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Purple Top Tubes (PTT)
- components:
- function:
- diagnostics used for:

A
  • anticoagulant K2 or K3 & EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacectic acid)
  • strongly chelates Ca2+ to prevent clotting
  • CBC, cavity fluid analysis, blood typing
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2
Q

Glass Red Top Tube (RTT)
- components:
- function:
- diagnostics used for:

A
  • no anticoagulant, glass allows clotting
  • used for clotting, collect serum
  • biochemical profiles/serum diagnostic profiles, fluid culture, crossmatch
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3
Q

what occurs due to delayed removal of serum?

A

A. artifactual hypoglycemia because RBC consume glucose
B. artifactual hyperkalemia because cellular elements leak cytoplasmic contents (best ex is horse due to RBC high in K)

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4
Q

Plastic Red Top Black Ring Tubes
- components:
- function:
- diagnostics used for:

A
  • no anticoagulant, requires clot activator (glass or silica particles)
  • clotting, serum collection
  • biochem profiles/serum diagnostics, NOT fluid analysis
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5
Q

Red & Grey Tube (SST) “tiger tops”
- components:
- function:
- diagnostics used for:

A
  • no anticoagulant , additive is the clot activator, gel separates serum
  • clotting
  • biochem/serum diagnostics
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6
Q

Blue Top Tubes (BTT)
- components:
- function:
- diagnostics used for:

A
  • anticoagulant sodium citrate
  • weakly chelates Ca2+, allows for harvesting plasma
  • PT, aPTT (coagulation assays) & platelet counts
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7
Q

ratio recommended for BTT
what does underfilling cause?
what does overfilling cause?

A

9:1 blood:citrate
underfilling = falsely prolongs clotting times
overfilling = shortens clotting times

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8
Q

Green Top Tube (GTT)
- components:
- function:
- diagnostics used for:

A
  • anticoagulant heparin
  • no clotting, for LA, birds, reptiles because take longer or don’t clot well in RTT; harvest plasma
  • POC biochem panels, lead or ammonia testing
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9
Q

Gray Tube
- components:
- function:
- diagnostics used for:

A
  • anticoagulant sodium flouride +/- oxalate & EDTA
  • no clotting
  • delayed glucose testing
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10
Q

small animal tubes & primary veins for blood draws

A

2-5ml tubes
jugular v. & cephalic v.

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11
Q

large animal tubes & primary veins for blood draws

A

5-7ml
jugular v. & tail v.

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12
Q

hemolysis affect on…
RBC #
HCT (hematocrit)
Hemoglobin
Color
RBC contents

A

RBC # DECREASED
HCT (hematocrit) DECREASED
Hemoglobin NO CHANGE
Color REDISH
RBC contents RELEASED

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13
Q

define pre-analytical
provide examples

A

anything before the sample is sent to the lab
related to the patient, sample collection, sample handling & transport

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14
Q

most lab errors are _______

A

pre-analytical

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15
Q

EDTA contamination results in …

A
  • blood in RTT may not clot due to anticoagulant contamination
  • low Ca, Mg and Fe
  • high K
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16
Q

blood collected inappropriately from indwelling catheters would result in…

A
  • false increase/decrease of glucose, electrolytes or Ca2+ from fluid contents
  • fluids could dilute other results
  • heparin flush prolongs aPTT
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17
Q

how can you minimize effects of fluids on blood collection

A

collect prior to fluids
opposite limb
turning off IV drip for 3-5 min
removing 3-5ml blood before

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18
Q

if blood is not separated soon enough for diagnostic profiles in horses, what will happen?

A

artifactual hyperkalemia

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19
Q

PCV definition & components

A

Packed Cell Volume - % whole blood composed of erythrocytes

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20
Q

buffy coat components

A

leukocytes, platelets, nRBC (if present)

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21
Q

yellow plasma indicates

A

icterus, jaundice, increased bilirubin
not reliable in LA, esp horses due to diet-related

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22
Q

hazy-opaque white plasma indicates

A

lipemia, increased lipids (predominantly chylomicrons)
associated with post-prandial (eating) blood collection & disease associated with abnormal lipid metabolism

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23
Q

red plasma indicates

A

hemolysis - free Hb from ruptured RBC

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24
Q

HCT definition

A

hematocrit - ratio of volume of RBC:volume of blood

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25
Q

PCV and plasma protein during dehydration

A

PCV increased
PP increased

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26
Q

PCV and plasma protein during blood loss

A

PCV decreased
PP decreased

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27
Q

most important layer to examine in a blood smear

A

monolayer

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28
Q

what can you find in the body of a blood smear

A

microfilaria, platelet clumps

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29
Q

what can you find in the feathered edge of a blood smear

A

platelet clumps, critters, cancer

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30
Q

components of blood
55% _____
45% _____

A

55% plasma
45% RBC, WBC, platelets

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31
Q

how much blood can be drawn from an animal without complication?

A

20% of total blood volume can be lost (safe side take 10%)

1% of body weight (in grams)

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32
Q

list if the following cause an increase or decrease in HCT, Hb, RBC
anemia
overhydration
poylcythemia
dehydration
splenic contraction

A

anemia DECREASED
overhydration DECREASED
poylcythemia INCREASED
dehydration INCREASED
splenic contraction INCREASED

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33
Q

MCV increases or decreases…
Fe deficiency
Hereditary stomatocytosis
heinz body anemia
hyponatremia
reticulocytosis
FELV
fragmentation anemia
porotsystemic venous shunt
congential macrocytosis of poodles
inherited malabsorption of cobalamin in giant schnauzers
normal greyhound RBC
asian dog breeds
Leukemia
agglutination

A

Fe deficiency DECREASE TOP DIFFERENTIAL
Hereditary stomatocytosis INCREASE
heinz body anemia DECREASE
hyponatremia DECREASE
reticulocytosis INCREASE
FeLV INCREASE
fragmentation anemia DECREASE
portosystemic venous shunt DECREASE
congential macrocytosis of poodles INCREASE
inherited malabsorption of cobalamin in giant schnauzers INCREASE
normal greyhound RBC INCREASE
asian dog breeds DECREASE
Leukemia INCREASE
agglutination INCREASE

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34
Q

causes of low MCHC “hypochromasia”

A

reticulocytosis
Fe deficiency
lead toxicity

35
Q

causes of high MCHC “increase extracellular Hb”

A

hemolysis
oxyglobin administration

36
Q

what does reticulocytosis, microcytosis and macrocytosis due to RDW

A

increases RDW

37
Q

growth factor for erythropoiesis and where it comes from

A

erythropoietin
- kidney, liver, macrophages

38
Q

what species are reticulocytes not found in

A

ruminants & horses

39
Q

difference between aggregate and punctate reticulocytes

A

aggregate: large amounts mRNA, ribosomes, mitochondria
punctate: not counted as part of regenerative response, little mRNA, seen in cats

40
Q

stacking of RBC, common in cats/horses, disperse with saline, caused by increased protein

A

rouleaux

41
Q

clumps of RBC that do not disperse in saline, indicates immune-mediated diseases

A

agglutination

42
Q

anisocytosis

A

RBC that differ in size
indicates severe anemia

43
Q

polychromasia

A

more reticulocytes than normal

44
Q

basophilic stippling

A

reticulocytes that look like speckled eggs
normal in anemic ruminants
lead toxicity

45
Q

RBC with blue/black aggregates due to excess Fe deposits

A

“siderocytes”
lead poisoning, hemolytic anemia, dyserythropoiesis, myeloproliferative disease, drugs

46
Q

nRBC’s associated with…

A

lead toxicity, Fe deficiency, Cu deficiency, hemangiosarcoma, EMH, myelophthitis, IVD, hereditary macrocytosis of poodles, enndotoxemia, BM trauma/necrosis, mets to BM, myelofibrosis, FeLV, myelodysplastic syndrome

47
Q

howell-jolly bodies

A

splenectomy, drugs, regenerative response

48
Q

heinz bodies

A

Hb oxidative damage, 5% normal in cats
onions, kale in ruminants, winter rye in cattle, red maple leaves in horses, Cu toxicity in sheep/goats, Zn in dogs, acetaminophen in cats, diabetes meelitus, lymphoma and hyperthyroidism in cats

49
Q

difference in shape of cells

A

poikilocytosis

50
Q

discocyte

A

biconcave disc

51
Q

burr cell, mainly drying artifact
normal in pigs

A

echinocyte

52
Q

tear-drop shaped, normal in goats

A

dacrocytes

53
Q

elliptocytes

A

normal in camelids
Fe deficiency

54
Q

depranocyte

A

sickle cells
common in deer

55
Q

irregular spicules due to altered lipid:cholesterol often due to hepatic or splenic diseases or hemangiosarcomas

A

acanthocytes

56
Q

RBC torn apart by fibrin into pieces
DIC, hemangiosarcomas, vasculitis, heart disease

A

schistocytes

57
Q

eccentrocytes

A

Hb located to side of cell, oxidative damage

58
Q

keratocytes

A

helmet cells, oxidative damage, Fe deficiency or hepatopathy

59
Q

large central pallor, Hb outer edges
hepatopathy or Fe deficiency or portosystemic shunt

A

leptocytes

60
Q

codocytes

A

target cells - hepatopathy, Fe deficiency

61
Q

stomatocytes

A

oval with large central pallor
hepatopathy and Fe deficiency

62
Q

round, small, dense formed by phagocytosis of damaged portions of cell membranes seen in dogs/rats; associated with IMHA

A

spherocytes

63
Q

toxic changes of neutrophils:

A

Dohle bodies
vacuolization/foamy
increased basophilia

due to accelerated production/increased demand or inflammation

64
Q

neutrophil degeneration consists of…

A

nuclear swelling
loss of segmentation
loss of coarse nuclear chromatin pattern

due to bacterial infections, neutrophils breakdown/die after job complete

65
Q

hypersegmentation of neutrophils

A

aging, corticosteroids or heat

66
Q

what is the Pelger-Huet Anomaly?

A

inherited neutrophil nuclear abnormality
mature chromatin in shape of immature band neutrophil
indicative of overwhelming infection

67
Q

two inherited neutrophil abnormalities

A

pelger-huet (nuclear)
lysosomal storage disorders (cytoplasmic)

68
Q

changes associated with lymphocytes and their significance

A
  1. cytoplasmic vacuoles - aging, some lysosomal storage disorders (congenital), ingestion of Locoweed containing swainsonine (acquired)
  2. reactive lymphocytes - immune/inflammation
69
Q

leukemia can be ___ or ____ disorders
differentiate acute & chronic

A

lymphoproliferative or myeloproliferative
acute: immature, aggressive, lymphoid or myeolid
chronic: differentiated cells, less aggressive, lymphoid more common

70
Q

what is the most sensitive indicator of stress in a stress leukogram

A

decreased lymphocytes

71
Q

an ill animal lacking a stress response could be a result of what diseases

A

hypoadrenocorticism
thymoma
lymphoma/leukemia

72
Q

____ due to mast cell tumors or some T cell lymphomas

A

eosinophilia

73
Q

____ due to pulmonary, renal, mammary carcinomas that release GM-CSF

A

neutrophilia

74
Q

____ due to thymoma

A

lymphocytosis

75
Q

what does increased MPV or increased giant platelets suggest

A

increased thrombopoiesis

76
Q

3 main mechanisms responsible for thrombocytopenia

A
  1. destruction (immune-mediate e.g. AIHA/IMHA)
  2. consumption (excess demand/activation, hemostatic plug)
  3. decreased production (estrogen, drugs, tumors w/in BM)
77
Q

thrombocytopenia due to depletion can be caused by….

A
  1. immune-mediated/primary/autoimmune usually severe thrombocytopenia 10-20,000 “Evan’s Syndrome”
  2. secondary to drugs
  3. secondary to infection
78
Q

thrombocytopenia due to consumption can be caused by…

A

DIC
vasculitis/endocarditis
hemangiosarcoma

79
Q

thrombocytopenia due to decreased production can be caused by…

A

chemotherapy drugs
estrogen toxicity
Ehrlichia
bone marrow effacement/infiltrative disease

80
Q

thrombocytosis can be caused by…

A

reactive lymphocytosis secondary to inflam
Fe deficiency
hepatocellular carcinomas in dogs
corticosteroids
vincristine

81
Q

excess EDTA results in

A

RBC shrink
diluted sample
decreased PCV

82
Q

best size needle for small animals

A

20-22g

83
Q

best size needle for large animals

A

18g

Clinical Pathology (7 decks)

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