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Developmental Anatomy > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Development of complex, multicellular organisms

A

Developmental Anatomy

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2
Q

2 types of development

A

ontogenetic
phylogenetic

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3
Q

Ontogenetic development = transformation of ____ –> ____.

A

zygote –> new individual

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4
Q

Phylogenetic development = transformation of ____ –> ____ organisms.

A

simple to complex

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5
Q

Another term for developmental anatomy

A

embryology

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6
Q

What is the most critical developmental stage?

A

embryo

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7
Q

Stage of development from fertilization –> completion of organogenesis

A

embryo

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8
Q

Term for “pregnancy” in vet med

A

gestation

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9
Q

Term for “birth” in vet med

A

parturition

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10
Q

Term for establishment of major organ primordia

A

organogenesis

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11
Q

Organ primordia

A

= earliest recognizable stage of organ

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12
Q

Development stage that is remainder of prenatal development devoted to growth, differentiation, maturation of body systems

A

fetus

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13
Q

Fetus = remainder of prenatal development devoted to what 3 things in terms of body systems?

A
  1. growth
  2. differentiation
  3. maturation
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14
Q

What system is first to form in embryo?

A

nervous sytsem

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15
Q

What system is first to form in embryo?

A

nervous system

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16
Q

3 phases of earyl development

A
  1. gametogenesis
  2. cleavage
  3. gastrulation
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17
Q

Term for “differentiation + maturation of primordial germ cells into gametes”

A

gametogenesis

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18
Q

Origin of germ cells is from the ______ of the yolk sac.

A

endoderm

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19
Q

Term for maturation of primordial germ cells into female gametes

A

oogenesis

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20
Q

Primordial germ cells within female embryonic gonad

A

oogonia

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21
Q

Oogonia continue mitotic divisions in the ovary until _____ and then they stop.

A

birth

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22
Q

(T/F) All oogonia differentiate into primary oocytes.

A

False - some

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23
Q

Primary oocytes enter ______ and remain in “resting” stage until when?

A

meiosis I
sexual maturity

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24
Q

Many oogonia and primary oocytes undergo what process?

A

apoptosis

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25
Q

When some oogonia differentiate into primary oocytes, they go from _____ to ____.

A

diploid to haploid

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26
Q

At birth, only ______ oocytes are found in the ovary.

A

“resting” primary oocytes

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27
Q

Ovulatory hormones stimulate completion of meiosis I resulting in (diploid/haploid) (primary/secondary) oocyte and ______.

A

haploid
secondary
polar body

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28
Q

What enters meiosis II?

A

ovulated secondary oocyte

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29
Q

Completion of meiosis II occurs only if _____ occurs.

A

fertilization

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30
Q

In the dog/fox, _____ are released at ovulation.

A

primary oocytes

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31
Q

2 types of ovulation

A

spontaneous OR induced

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32
Q

What 3 species have induced ovulation? (need copulation)

A

cats, rabbits, camels

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33
Q

Term for “maturation of primordial germ cells into male gametes”

A

spermatogenesis

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34
Q

Spermatogonia continue (meiosis I/meiosis II/mitosis) then enter “resting” stage until when?

A

mitosis
sexual maturity

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35
Q

At sexual maturity, spermatogonia differentiate into _______.

A

primary spermatocytes

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36
Q

Meiosis I can be completed at any time resulting in what?

A

2 equal haploid secondary spermatocytes

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37
Q

Order of sperm development (4)

A

primary spermatocytes
secondary spermatocytes
spermatids
sperm cells

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38
Q

Secondary spermatocytes complete (meiosis I/meiosis II/mitosis) and form into ___(#) (diploid/haploid) ______s.

A

4 haploid spermatids

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39
Q

Term for “maturation of spermatids into mature, motile spermatozoa”

A

spermiogenesis

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40
Q

Spermiogenesis is maturation of ______ into mature, motile _____.

A

spermatids
spermatozoa

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41
Q

Term for “functional maturation of spermatozoa in female genital tract necessary for fertilization”

A

capacitation

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42
Q

(T/F) All spermatogenesis stages are found in animals since it is a continuous process.

A

True

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43
Q

What 3 things occur (morphogenetic processes) when forming spermatozoa?

A
  1. lose cytoplasm
  2. get tail
  3. produce lysozyme
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44
Q

Spermatogenesis is a (intermittent/continuous) process.

A

continuous

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45
Q

Fusion of gametes –> zygote occurs in ______.

A

uterine tube

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46
Q

Put fertilization steps in order:

  1. fusion of gametes membranes
  2. penetration of zona pellucida
  3. integration of genetic material
A

2
1
3

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47
Q

3 results of fertilization

A
  1. restore to diploid
  2. sex determination
  3. initiate cleavage
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48
Q

What species has homogametic males? What is the chromosome type?

A

birds, snakes, some insects
ZZ

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49
Q

Female bird, snake, some insect female chromosomes

A

ZY

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50
Q

What determines crocodile/turtle sex?

A

incubation temp of eggs

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51
Q

Term for “mitotic division of zygote”

A

cleavage

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52
Q

A spherical mass of cells formed by rapid mitotic cell divisions

A

morula

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53
Q

(T/F) The size of the embryo changes over time.

A

False!

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54
Q

Why doesn’t the size of the embryo change over time?

A

zona pellucida is still present

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55
Q

Zona pellucida prevents ____ and ____.

A

adherence
embryo rejection

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56
Q

Single layer of cells lining central cavity

A

blastocyst

57
Q

When zona pellucida degenerates, _____ follows.

A

implantation

58
Q

(T/F) Time and form of implantation differ among species.

A

true

59
Q

______ is an outer, single-cell layer that forms the fetal membranes (embryonic part of placenta).

A

trophoblast

60
Q

What is the central core of cells that forms the embryo?

A

inner cell mass

61
Q

3 other roles of trophoblast cells

A

attachment
maternal recognition
pregnancy

62
Q

Cells of the inner cell mass delaminate and form ______ surrounding the trophoblast.

A

hypoblast

63
Q

Hypoblast cells become _________ (forms yolk sac).

A

extraembryonic endoderm

64
Q

Remaining inner cells above the hypoblast form ______.

A

epiblast

65
Q

The epiblasts split to form what 2 things?

A

extra-embryonic epiblast
embryonic epiblast

66
Q

What split of epiblast lines amniotic cavity?

A

extra-embryonic

67
Q

What split of epiblast is a source of all 3 embryonic germ layers?

A

embryonic epiblast

68
Q

2 derivates of ectoderm

A

epidermis
nervous system

69
Q

Derivatives of mesoderm

A

cardiovascular system
urinary + genital systems / blood cells
most connective + muscular tissues

70
Q

Derivatives of endoderm

A

digestive + respiratory tract
urinary bladder
tympanic cavity
parenchyma of thyroid + parathyroid

71
Q

Term for germ layers formation

A

gastrulation

72
Q

Embryonic epiblast cells on the midline form the _______.

A

primitive streak

73
Q

What are the 2 roles of the primitive streak?

A
  1. establish longitudinal axis of embryo (cranial/caudal)
  2. master organizer of mesoderm
74
Q

Term for establishment of nervous sytem

A

neurulation

75
Q

2 steps in neurulation

A
  1. notochord –> form neural plate
  2. neural plate folds fuse –> neural tube
76
Q

3 roles of notochord

A
  1. inductor of CNS
  2. supporting structure for embryo
  3. formation of vert column
77
Q

Term for temporary communication of neural tube with amniotic cavity

A

neuropores

78
Q

Neural tube differentiates to form what 2 things?

A

brain vesicles + spinal cord

79
Q

_______ break free from the crest of the neural plate.

A

neural crest cells

80
Q

Derivatives of pluripotent crest cells

A

ganglia
adrenal medulla
melanocytes
CT of head/face

81
Q

The paraxial mesoderm becomes segmented into paired _____.

A

somites

82
Q

What is the foundation of metameric (segmental) organization of the body?

A

somites

83
Q

Intermediate mesoderm differentiates into _____.

A

urogenital structures

84
Q

Lateral plate mesoderm divides into what 2 layers?

A

dorsal layer w/ ectoderm –> parietal pleurae/peritoneum

ventral layer w/ endoderm –> visceral pleurae/peritoneum

85
Q

What is the space between the dorsal & ventral layers which form parietal/visceral pleurae?

A

intraembryonic body cavity (coelom)

86
Q

Parietal pleurae = ______.
Visceral pleurae = ______.

A

somatic
splanchnic

87
Q

Match cylindrical body form to part of body

Outer tube
Inner tube
Space between

A

body wall
primitive gut
body cavity

88
Q

Term for “ectodermal thickenings in head region which form sensory organs”

A

placodes

89
Q

Term for “aggregations of mesoderm in neck region”

A

pharngeal arches

90
Q

What is the most outstanding event in early development?

A

growth

91
Q

Differential growth account for ______.

A

diversity of form

92
Q

(T/F) Growth rate of different part are relatively constant within same species.

A

True

93
Q

5 factors that control growth

A
  1. constitutional
  2. nutritional
  3. hormones
  4. vitamins
  5. growth-arresting
94
Q

Term for “development of specialized cell types” that is antagonistic to growth

A

differentiation

95
Q

Term for “group of cells direct differentiation of other cells” (essential part of cell differentiation)

A

induction

96
Q

2 stages of cell differentiation

A
  1. uncommitted (totipotent)
  2. committed (pluripotent)
97
Q

Stage in cell differentiation where cell has restricted developmental potential

A

committed (pluripotent)

98
Q

The uncommitted (totipotent) cell differentiation stage is until the _____ stage.

A

8-cell morula

99
Q

2 phases of commitment for cell differentiation

A

specification
determination

100
Q

Phase of commitment where cell can differentiate independently

A

specification

101
Q

Term where differentiated cell can be “re-programmed” to give rise to any cell type.

A

cloning

102
Q

Phase of commitment that is irreversible

A

determination / “conditional” commitment

103
Q

Stages of cell differentiation is critical in development of ____.

A

identical twins

104
Q

Term for “mass of cells becomes a structure”

A

morphogenesis

105
Q

What is a subset of cells forming an organ?

A

morphogenic field

106
Q

Each morphogenic field is controlled by _____.

A

tissue-master genes

107
Q

Which morphogenesis process is important for developing identical twins?

A

cell splitting (cells delaminate + re-aggregate to form new layers)

108
Q

What morphogenetic process is essential for shaping complex organs?

A

cell death (apoptosis)

109
Q

Study of abnormal development

A

teratology

110
Q

Study of abnormal mechanisms of development

A

teratogenesis

111
Q

Any agent that induces defects during development

A

teratogen

112
Q

Any structural, functional, metabolic, behavioral disorder present at birth

A

congenital abnormality

113
Q

Term for “alteration of formed structures from destructive processes”

A

disruptions

114
Q

Term for abnormal development due to mechanical forces

A

deformations (deformities)

115
Q

Congenital abnormalities are usually caused by both ____ and ____ factors.

A

genetic + environmental

116
Q

(T/F) Congenital abnormalities are poorly reported in animals compared to humans.

A

True

117
Q

Congenital abnormalities can be ____ or ____.

A

structural or functional

118
Q

4 manifestations of congenital abnormalities

A

death
malformation
growth retardation
functional defect

119
Q

What body system is most often seen which congenital anomalies?

A

musculoskeletal system

120
Q

In humans, congenital anomalies are almost always associated with what acronym?

A

VACTERL group
vertebral
anal
cardiac
tracheal
esophageal
renal
limb

121
Q

What is the most critical determining factor of abnormal development

A

what stage of development it occurs

122
Q

3 stages of development which abnormal development can occur

A
  1. pre-differentiation
  2. differentiation
  3. advanced morphogenesis
123
Q

Which stage in development is where there is maximum susceptibility for structural abnormalities?

A

stage of differentiation

124
Q

(T/F) The earlier the insult, the more severe the consequences of congenital anomalies.

A

True

125
Q

2 causes of abnormal development

A

embryo genotype
maternal conditions

126
Q

Term for extra chromosome (XXY karyotype)

A

trisomy (klinefelter syndrome)

127
Q

Example of male cat abnormal chromosomes which leads to infertility, gonadal dysgenesis, phenotypic male

A

male tortoise-shell (XXX karyotype)

128
Q

Turner’s syndrome is a (monosomy/trisomy) in the (male/female) with a ___ karyotype.

A

monosomy
female
XO

129
Q

Which karyotype is lethal? Why?

A

YO
because X chromosome has mitochondrial DNA

130
Q

What is a physical environmental factor causing congenital anomalies?

A

ionizing radiation

131
Q

What should avoid exposure to radiation?

A

pregnancy animals

132
Q

Use _______ drugs cautiously in pregnant animals. (chemical factor)

A

cytotoxic

133
Q

______ given to pregnant animals could be an environmental factor which leads to congenital anomalies.

A

live-vaccines (can sometimes revert back)

134
Q

What structure is most commonly affected by plant toxins (environmental factor for congenital anomalies)?

A

appendicular skeleton (joints)

135
Q

Term for developmental failure

A

agenesis / aplasia
(absence of certain body part to form)

136
Q

Developmental excess in number

A

poly/supranumerary

137
Q

Term for incomplete development

A

hypoplasia

138
Q

Term for increase in mass by NUMBER of cells

A

hyperplasia

139
Q

Term for increase in mass by SIZE of cells

A

hypertrophy

Developmental Anatomy (4 decks)

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