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Bio 286 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is microbiology

A

study of small living things

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2
Q

what is the working definition of microbiology

A

study of entities too small to be seen with the unaided human eye (<0.2mm=200micrometers=200,000nanometers)

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3
Q

Which of the following is cellular and which is acellular: Prokaryotes, Eukaryotes, Viruses

A

Cellular: Prokaryotes, Eukaryotes
Acellular: Viruses

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4
Q

Bacteria and archaea are ____

a) prokaryotes
b) eukaryotes
c) viruses

A

a) Prokaryotes

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5
Q

fungi, algae, protozoa, and helminths are _____

a) prokaryotes
b) eukaryotes
c) viruses

A

b) eukaryotes

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6
Q

bacteriophage are ___

a) prokaryotes
b) eukaryotes
c) viruses

A

c) viruses

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7
Q 
Which of these sequences arranges the microbes from smallest to largest: 
1 Escherichia coli (bacterium)
2 Paramecium caudatum (Protozoa)
3 Adenovirus (virus)
4 Candida albicans (yeast)
A
  1. Adenovirus (virus)
  2. Escherichia coli (bacterium)
  3. Candida albicans (yeast)
  4. Paramecium caudatum (protozoa)
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8
Q

What characteristics do both living organisms and viruses share?

A

Ability to reproduce and evolve

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9
Q

what are the characteristics of living organisms

A

metabolism, reproduction, differentiation, communication, locomotion, evolution

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10
Q

Which of the following are reasons it is important to study microbiology:

  1. Microbes are the earliest organisms found in the fossil record
  2. They perform essential reactions in the environment
  3. microbes can be harnessed to work for us
  4. they sometimes cause infectious diseases
A

all of the above are correct

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11
Q

What is biotechnology

A

altering the use of microbes to produce useful products or modify other organisms

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12
Q

T or F: all microbes cause infectious diseases

A

F: only a few percent of all microbes are associated with disease

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13
Q

What is bacteriology

A

study of prokaryotes

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14
Q

mycology

A

study of fungi

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15
Q

phycology

A

study of algae

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16
Q

protozoology

A

study of protozoa

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17
Q

virology

A

study of viruses

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18
Q

immunology

A

study of the immune system

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19
Q

parasitology

A

study of parasites and their hosts

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20
Q

Lipoteichoic acid is found in

a) gram positive cell
b) gram negative cell
c) endospore

A

a) gram positive cell

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21
Q

____ have membranes made of mycolic acids and arabinogalactans

a) gram positive
b) endospores
c) mycobacteria
d) gram negative

A

c) mycobacteria

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22
Q

____ have thin peptidoglycan layers covered by an outer membrane with toxigenic properties on many pathogens

a) gram negative
b) gram positive
c) mycobacteria

A

a) gram negative

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23
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of a lipopolysaccharide

a) Lipid A (six fatty acids)
b) (adaptor structure)
c) O-antigen (repeats)
d) A-antigen (singles)

A

d) A-antigen (singles)

this isn’t a real thing

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24
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of Mycoplasma

a) true bacteria
b) ergosterol in membranes
c) very small in size
d) no peptidoglycan wall
e) variable in shape
f) are important pathogens
g) cholesterol in membranes

A

b) ergosterol in membranes

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25
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of flagellum structures in bacteria

a) bacterial locomotion
b) electric motor
c) dozens of proteins
d) rotates rapidly
e) many are reversible
f) whip back and forth
g) propels the cell through its environment

A

f) whip back and forth

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26
Q

Which of the following best describes the flagellar arrangement monotrichous

a) a single flagellum at one end
b) two flagella, one at each end
c) a clump of flagella at one end
d) flagella all around

A

a) a single flagellum at one end

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27
Q

What flagellar arrangement is two flagella, one at each end?

a) monotrichous
b) amphitrichous
c) lophotrichous
d) peritrichous

A

b) amphitrichous

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28
Q

Aristotle favored ____

a) biogenesis
b) spontaneous generation (abiogenesis)

A

spontaneous generation (abiogenesis)

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29
Q

Who used heat and chemicals to treat the incoming gas (air) for their boiled media broth?

A

Schulze and Schwann

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30
Q

Who discovered endospores

a) Pasteur
b) Redi
c) Hooke
d) Cohn

A

Cohn

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31
Q

Who used carbolic acid (phenol) to clean hands, wound, and operating rooms for application of germ theory

a) Hooke
b) Pasteur
c) Lister

A

c) Lister

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32
Q

What are the four parts of Koch’s Postulate?

A
  1. The suspected pathogenic organism should be present in all cases of disease and absent from healthy animals
  2. Isolate the pathogenic organism and grow in a pure culture
  3. Cells from the pure culture of the suspected organism should cause disease in a healthy animal
  4. The organism is reisolated into a pure culture that is identical to the original pure culture
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33
Q

Microbes belonged to which kingdom

A

monera

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34
Q

What did Woese use to classify his domains

a) DNA
b) 16S rRNA
c) mRNA

A

b) 16S rRNA

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35
Q

Which of the following contain axial filaments?

a) Spirochetes
b) bacillus
c) cocci

A

a) Spirochetes

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36
Q

What flagellar arrangement has a bundle of flagella at one end

a. monotrichous
b. amphitrichous
c. lophotrichous
d. peritirchous

A

c. lophotrichous

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37
Q

T or F: Peritrichous have flagella all around, not just at the ends

A

True

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38
Q

____ is the movement of a bacterium in response to chemical gradients and is described at “Run and Tumble”

a) whipping
b) rolling
c) chemotaxis
d) chemical shifts

A

c) chemotaxis

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39
Q

What movements is analogous to blindfolding your friend and having them walk around

a) unbiased running
b) planned walk
c) Biased random walk
d) unbiased jog

A

c) biased random walk

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40
Q

What attaches cells to surfaces

a. fimbriae
b. stalks
c. pillars
d. both a and b

A

both a and b, fimbriae and stalks

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41
Q

Most capsules/glycocalyx are made of:

a) peptides
b) carbohydrates

A

b) carbohydrates

very few are made of peptides

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42
Q

What is the ability to distinguish two adjacent objects or points from one another called

a) magnification
b) resolution
c) clarity
d) distinguishing factor

A

b) resolution

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43
Q

What is the equation for resolving power (RP)

A

wavelength of light in nm/ 2 times numerical aperture

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44
Q

T or F: shorter wavelengths produce a better resolution

A

True

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45
Q

What is a clump of 4 cells in a single layer referred to as

a. bacillus
b. tetrad
c. sarcina
d. streptococci

A

b. tetrad

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46
Q

what bacterial cell shape is shaped like a bean

a) coccus
b) bacillus
c) vibrio
c) Spirillum

A

c) vibrio

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47
Q

which of the following is NOT an advantage of small size

a) more surface area:cell volume
b) faster growth rates
c) faster evolution
d) slower evolution

A

d) slower evolution

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48
Q

T or F: all cells have a cell membrane

A

True - this is the structure that defines the existence of a cell

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49
Q

A phospholipid consists of glycerol w/ ____ links to ___ fatty acids and a phosphoryl head group

a) ether; 2
b) ester; 2
c) ether; 1
d) ester;1

A

b) ester; 2

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50
Q

T or F: bacterial membranes are 50% phospholipids and 50% proteins

A

True; bacterial membranes are equal parts phospholipids and proteins

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51
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of a membrane

a) structural support
b) secretion of virulence factors
c) transmission of communication signals
d) ion transport and energy storage
e) appear more intimidating to other cells

A

e) appear more intimidating to other cells

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52
Q

Membranes are ____ permeable

a) fully
b) non
c) semi

A

c) semi

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53
Q

What is the purpose of the diffusion of weak acids and bases

a) carry water into the cell
b) change the structure of the cell
c) change the pH of the cell
d) protect the cell

A

c) change the pH of the cell

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54
Q

What are the two types of transport across a membrane?

Which requires transport proteins?

A
  1. Passive transport

2. Active transport - requires transport protein

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55
Q

____ reinforces eukaryotic membranes, ____ and _____ reinforce bacterial membranes

a) hopanoids
b) sterols
c) hopanes
c) steriods

A

b) sterols reinforce eukaryotic membranes

a) hopanoids and c) hopanes reinforce bacterial membranes

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56
Q

Bacteria are ____

a) diploid
b) haploid

A

b) haploid

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57
Q

The total size of a prokaryote ribosome is 70S, which is made of two subunits ___ and ___

a) 50S and 20S
b) 30S and 40S
c) 60S and 10S
d) 30S and 50S

A

d) 30S and 50S

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58
Q

What are extensively folded intracellular membraes called

a) inner membranes
b) endomembrane
c) envelopes
d) thylakoids

A

d) thylakoids

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59
Q

Polyhedral bodies packed w/ the enzyme Rubisco for CO2 fixation are ___

a) carboxysomes
b) oxidizing agents
c) gas vesicles

A

a) carboxysomes

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60
Q

What is the function of gas vesicles in phototrophs?

a) nutrient storage
b) transport
c) increase buoyancy

A

c) increase buoyancy

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61
Q

____ ____ are inclusions bodies that store glycogen, PHB, sulfer, volutin, and magnetosomes

A

storage granules

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62
Q

What forms a “Z ring for septum placement”

a) FtsZ
b) MreB
c) CreS
d) DeG

A

a) FtsZ

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63
Q

What forms a coil inside rod-shaped cells

a) bacillus
b) MreB
c) spirochetes
d) CreS

A

b) MreB (b for bacillus)

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64
Q

What forms a polymer along the inner side of crescent-shaped bacterial

a) cell membrane
b) cell wall
c) MreB
d) CreS

A

d) CreS

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65
Q

What does the cell wall help with aside from the shape and rigidity of the cell

a) transport
b) protein synthesis
c) withstand turgor pressure

A

withstand turgor presure

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66
Q

What consists of a single interlinked molecule

a) cell membrane
b) nuclear envelope
c) bacterial endoplasmic reticulum
d) bacterial cell wall/sacculus

A

d) bacterial cell wall/sacculus

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67
Q

Most bacterial cell walls are made of

a) cellulose
b) cholesterol
c) peptidoglycan (murein)
d) ergosterol

A

c) peptidoglycan (murein)

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68
Q

Peptidoglycan consists of ___ and ___ bound to a peptide of 4-6 amino acids that can form cross-bridges to parallel glycan strands

A

NAG and NAM

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69
Q

A bacterial envelope is additional layers that provide ____ and _____

A

structural support and protection

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70
Q

____ have a thick cell wall and stain the primary stain color, purple

A

gram-positive bacteria

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71
Q

____ have thin cell walls that and stain the secondary stain color pink

A

gram-negative bacteria

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72
Q

the phylum firmicutes are examples of _____-______ bacteria and the phylum proteobacteria are examples of _____-______ bacteria

A

gram-positive: Firmicutes

gram negative: Proteobacteria

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73
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common trait of bacteria

a. RNA polymerase
b. Ribosomal RNAs
c. Translation factors
d. all of the above are common traits of bacteria

A

d. all of the above are common traits of bacteria

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74
Q

What makes most bacterial cell walls?

a. Chitin
b. Chloropyll
c. peptidoglycan

A

c. peptidoglycan

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75
Q

What are examples of Gram-Positive bactera

A

staphylococcus, streptococcus, listeria

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76
Q

Which bacteria are used in food production and preservation for things like yogurt and milk

A

Lactobacillus

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77
Q

What is another genera that is a fermentative bacteria

A

Streptococcus

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78
Q

What bacteria is used to make saurkraut

A

leuconostoc

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79
Q

What are the 2 key gram-positive bacteria that are nonsporulating bacillales and clostridiales

A

Listeria, staphylococcus

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80
Q

Staphylococcus is catalase-_______ and can tolerate ______

A

positive, drying

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81
Q

What are the key genera that are sporulating Bacillaes and Clostridiales (they make endospores)

A

Bacillus, Clostridium

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82
Q

Bacillus and Clostridium are gram-______ endospores

A

positive

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83
Q

What sporulating bacteria produces extracellular hydrolytic enzymes, antibiotics, and toxic insecticidal proteins

A

Bacillus

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84
Q

________ are pathogenic which causes botulism, tetanus, and gangrene

A

Clostridium

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85
Q

Tenericutes lack cells walls and include the genera _____

A

mycoplasma

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86
Q

Actinobacteria include _____ and _____ ______ _____

A

corneyform, propionic acid bacteria

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87
Q

A key genera of Actinobacteria is _______

A

corynebacterium

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88
Q

Actinobateria are mostly harmless commensals with the exception of _______

A

mycobacterium

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89
Q

Gram-______ Actinobacteria have acid-fast cell walls

A

positive

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90
Q

Aerial mycelia carry _____

A

arthrospores

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91
Q

Streptomyces is an example of gram-positive _____

A

actinobacteria

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92
Q

Gram-Negative Proteobacteria are the _____ group of cultured organisms

A

largest

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93
Q

Rhizobium, Agrobacterium, Rickettsias are examples of _____

A

alpha proteobacteria

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94
Q

Nitrosomonas and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are examples of _____

A

Beta Proteobacteria

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95
Q

Lithotrophs are ______, which were the original phototrophs

A

Gamma proteobacteria

96
Q

The anarobic rods “escherichia coli” are _______

A

enteric gamma proteobacteria

97
Q

Myxococcus xanthus and Bdellovibrio bacteriovorus are ______ proteobacteria

A

delta

98
Q

____ _____ are the delta proteobacteria that attacks other bacteria in “packs”

A

Myxococcus xanthus

99
Q

_____ ______ is the delta proteobacteria that parasitizes other bacteria, grows in periplasm, and lyses host

A

Bdellovibrio bacteriovorus

100
Q

______ are ______ proteobacteria that cause stomach ulcers

A

Helicobacter pylori; eplison

101
Q

Nitrospirae is ____ shape, and oxidizes nitritie to nitrate

A

spiral

102
Q

_____ are obligate anaerobes that break down toxins in food

A

Bacteroides

103
Q

_____ are green sulfur bacterium

A

Chlorobium

104
Q

____ are flexible, narrow spiral shape and form axial filaments

A

spirochetes

105
Q

_____ has a larger reticulate body and small elementary bodies

A

chlamydiae

106
Q

Reticulate bodies _______ but small elementary bodies _________ and can be _________

A

Reticulate bodies can not survive outside host but small elementary bodies can survive outside host cells and can be transferred to new host

107
Q

_____ is irregular shaped, contains tubulin, and is part of Planctomycetes

A

verrucomicrobia

108
Q

______ are oxygenic phototrophs that contains thylakoids and carboxysomes

A

cyanobacteria

109
Q

cyanobacteria form ____

A

akinetes

110
Q

Chloroflexi are _____-______ _______ that live at high temperatures and have _____

A

deep-branching thermophiles; chlorosomes

111
Q

______ is a source of PCR tests and belongs to the genera _______

A

Thermus aquaticus; Thermus

112
Q

______ are radiation resistant

A

Deinococcus radiodurans

113
Q

_____ are prokaryotic cells that look very much like bacteria but can also be oddly shaped

A

archaea

114
Q

_____ have the widest range of temperature, environments, and unique biochemistry

A

archaea

115
Q

____ and ____ are the 2 major phyla of archaea

A

crenarchaeotes and euryarchaeotes

116
Q

Archaeal lipids have ___ glycerol and ___links.

A

L; ether

117
Q

Bacterial lipids have __ glycerol and ____ links

A

D; ester

118
Q

Thermophile lipids have a lipid _____

A

monolayer

119
Q

Both Archaea and ___ have circular genomes and operons

A

bacteria

120
Q

Both Archaea and ____ have introns and RNA polymerase with TBP, TFB

A

eukaryotes

121
Q

_____ makes up the Archaea cell wall (name of molecule)

A

pseudopeptidoglycan

122
Q

The Archaea cell wall uses ___ and ____ (polymers)

A

NAG and NAT

123
Q

____ have an irregular shape and contain the unique lipid Crenarchaeol. Crenarchaeol is distinct because it contains ___

A

Crenarchaeota; six membered ring

124
Q

What is the upper temperature limit for life

A

150 deg C

125
Q

Monomers are adaptation for life at ____ temperatures and contain ____ concentrations of cytoplasmic solutes

A

high; high

126
Q

____ and ____ are structural features that improve the thermostability of archaea

A

highly hydrophobic cores and increased ionic interactions

127
Q

___ is the class of proteins that refold partially denatured proteins

A

chaperones

128
Q

_____ is a major chaperonin protein complex in Pyrodictium

A

Thermosome

129
Q

_____ intracellular solute and polyamine levels stabilize DNA and reverse DNA gyrase

A

high

130
Q

archaea have positive _____ to stabilize the DNA

A

supercoils

131
Q

_____ are DNA-binding proteins that compact DNA into nucleosome-like structures

A

Histones

132
Q

____ _____ _____ form a lipid monolayer membrane structure in archaea

A

tetraether type lipids

133
Q

rRNA ____ is another adaptation to life at high temperatures for archaea

A

stability

134
Q

The Crenarchaeota “Nitrosopumilaes” ____ ammonia to fix CO2

A

oxidize

135
Q

_____ are found in ice and seawater in Antarctica

A

crenarchaeota

136
Q

Euryarchaeota includes the _______ which have 5 major orders

A

methanogens

137
Q

_____ are elongated, round, flattened shapes that require high salt content

A

Halophiles

138
Q

Most halophiles are _____

A

photoheterotrophs

139
Q

Halophiles are part of______ and use _____ to pump out H+ and _____ pump in Cl-

A

Eukaryota; bacteriorhodopsin; halorhodopsin

140
Q

_____ is the process by which rhodopsins signal to flagellum

A

phototaxis

141
Q

Euryarchaeota includes ____, which do the opposite of methanogenesis by reducing sulfate to sulfide by oxidizing acetate to CO2

A

Archaeoglobales

142
Q

____, _____, and ____ are new archaeal species being discovered

A

korarchaeota, thaumarchaeota, nanoarchaeota

143
Q

____ is the emerging euryarchaeota that has a secret filament

A

korarchaeota

144
Q

___ is the emerging euryarchaeota that does nitrification

A

thaumarchaeota

145
Q

____ is the emergin euryarchaeota that is the hospitable fireball

A

nanoarchaeota

146
Q

____ is not a living cell

A

virus

147
Q

What are the 2 components that are ALWAYS in viruses

A

small genome and protein coat (“Capsid”)

148
Q

Viruses range from about __ to ____ nm

A

20 to 200 nm

149
Q

_______ capsids have 20 triangular sides each made up of atleast 3 identical capsid proteins

A

icosahedral capsids

150
Q

_____ capsids are long tubes of protein with genome inside

A

filamentous (helical)

151
Q

____ capsids are a mixture of icosahedral and filamentous shapes

A

complex

152
Q

Many complex capsids are ____ with ____ shapes

A

bacteriophages; asymmetrical

153
Q

____ allows for fusion to the host cell for viruses

A

lipid envelopes

154
Q

_____ are NON-enveloped

A

bacteriophages

155
Q

Viruses can be ____ or ____ (genome type), __ or ___ (# strands), ___ or ____ (shape)

A

DNA or RNA; single or double stranded; linear or circular

156
Q

what is an example of group 1

A

poxvirus

157
Q

what type of genome structure does group 1 have

A

dsDNA

158
Q

what is an example of a group II virus

A

parvovirus

159
Q

what is the genome structure of group 2 viruses

A

ssDNA

160
Q

what is an example of a group III virus

A

Epizootic Hemorrahagic Disease

161
Q

what is the genome structure of a Group III virus

A

dsRNA

162
Q

what is an example of a group IV virus

A

Poliovirus

163
Q

what is the genome structure of group IV viruses

A

(+)ssRNA

164
Q

what is an example of a group V virus

A

influenza virus

165
Q

what is the genome structure of group V viruses

A

(-) ssRNA

166
Q

what is an example of a group VI virus

A

HIV

167
Q

what is the genome structure of VI viruses

A

RNA retroviruses

168
Q

What is an example of a VII virus

A

Hepatitis B

169
Q

What is the genome structure of VII

A

DNA pararetroviruses

170
Q 
Bacteriophage life cycle
1.
2. 
3.
4.
5.
6.
A
  1. attach to the host cell
  2. inject genome
  3. replicate genome
  4. synthesize capsid protein
  5. assemble progeny phage
  6. lyse cell wall to release progeny phase
171
Q

In the Hershey-Chase Experiment, radioactively labeled ___ with 35S methionine and ____ with 32P Phosphate before infecting the E. coli

A

protein; DNA

172
Q

In the ____ cycle, the phage quickly replicates and kills host cell

A

lytic

173
Q

In the ___ cycle the phage is quiescent, meaning it integrates into host cell genome and replicates when the host genome divides. The phage later reactivates to become lytic killing host

A

lysogenic

174
Q

Bacteriophage use cell components to _____ ____, assemble ____ ____, and exit from cell

A

synthesize capsids; progeny phages

175
Q

What makes protein to depolymerize peptidoglycan and bursts host cell to release progeny phage

A

lysis

176
Q

what uses filamentous phages that can extrude individual progenies through the cell envelope

A

slow release

177
Q

In the eukaryotic virus life cycle, viruses attach to host cell receptor and enter the host cell by injecting its genome directly and being taken up via endocytosis (_______) where is it brough into cell in an endosome

A

viropexis

178
Q

Genome replication: ____ viruses must go to cell nucleus

A

DNA

179
Q

Genome replication: ___ viruses must encode a viral polymerase

A

RNA

180
Q

Only _____ can be used as mRNA

A

(+) ssRNA

181
Q

All viruses use ___ ____ to make proteins

A

host ribosomes

182
Q

Budding is used in ____ virus life cycles

A

eukaryotic

183
Q

Culturing viruses
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Viruses bound to host
  2. eclipse period
  3. rapid rise period
184
Q

In the ____ period, viruses are making proteins, genomes, and assembling. There is no detectable virus

A

eclipse

185
Q

when the virus binds to host the free virus concentration ____

A

drops

186
Q

a ____ is a “colony” of viruses

A

plaque

187
Q

___ are present in all environments and ___ densities

A

viruses; high

188
Q

____ are single-stranded naked RNA plant pathogens; circle shape and very small

A

viroids

189
Q

____ are animal pathogens that can be referred to as “slow viruses”; these have defectively folded host proteins

A

prions

190
Q

what is an example of prions

A

creutzfeld-jakob disease

191
Q

DNA in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell exists as _____

A

chromatin

192
Q

The genetic material of eukaryotic cells is multiple _______ ________

A

linear chromosomes

193
Q

DNA in the eukaryotic cell is condensed on proteins called _______

A

histones

194
Q

The total size of the eukaryote ribosome is ____

A

80S

195
Q

The _____ _____ is the protein trafficking center

A

golgi body

196
Q

What are the 3 components of the cytoskeleton

A

Actin, microtubles, intermediate filaments

197
Q

______ are a lipid-enclosed space

A

vacuoles

198
Q

Flagellum in Eukaryotes don’t ____ but _______ _____ ___ ____

A

don’t spin; waves like an oar

199
Q

Eukaryote flagellum have a _______ core

A

microtubule

200
Q

Eukaryote capsules are made of ______ ______

A

polymeric sugars (polysaccharides)

201
Q

__________ includes animals and fungi

A

opisthokonts

202
Q

Opisthokonts have _____ flagellum

A

single (eukaryotic)

203
Q

_____ includes algae and plants

A

viridiplantae

204
Q

Cryptophyte algae are _____

A

protists

205
Q

the vestigial nucleus that engulfed algae still maintain their DNA in is called the ______

A

nucleomorph

206
Q

The 5 multiple clades of protists are…

A 
amoebozoa and cercozoa
alveolates
heterokonts
euglenozoa
excavates
207
Q

the cell walls of fungi is made of _____

A

chitin

208
Q

branching forms of fungi hyphal tips is called ______

A

mycelia

209
Q

fungi yeasts reproduce ____ by mitosis and ______ by meiosis

A

asexually; sexually

210
Q

Chytrids (a group of fungi) are motile germ cells that have a ____ reproductive form

A

flagellated

211
Q

The zygomycetes that forms bread mold is

A

Rhizopus

212
Q

______ have sexual spores in sac like structures and includes Neospora

A

ascomycetes

213
Q

Examples of ascomycetes include _____, _____, and ______

A

neurospora, penicillium, and morels

214
Q

Basidiospores are found in_______

A

basidiomycetes

215
Q

Examples of basidiomycetes are ____ and ______

A

mushrooms and cryptococcus

216
Q

All algae have ____, most have _____ flagella

A

chloroplasts, paired flagella

217
Q

the cell wall of algae is made of _____ or _____

A

glycoprotein or cellulose

218
Q

______ have contractile vacuoles

A

algae

219
Q

______ concentrates CO2 for fixation in algae

A

pyrenoid

220
Q

an example of chlorophyta is ______ algae

A

green

221
Q

an example of rhodophya is ____ algae

A

red

222
Q

Red algae is used to make ____

A

agar

223
Q

Secondary endosymbionts are ________ engulfed by a ______

A

algae engulfed by a protist

224
Q

Examples of secondary endosymbionts are ______ and _____ ______

A

diatoms and brown algae

225
Q

an example of the secondary endosymbiont diatoms is ______

A

bacillariophyta

226
Q

an example of brown algae is ______

A

phaeophyceae

227
Q

amoebozoa have lobe-shaped _______

A

pseudopods

228
Q

______ molds are an example of amoebozoa

A

slime

229
Q

_____ are amoebas with filament-shaped pseudopods

A

Radiolarians

230
Q

_____ are shelled amoebas with shells made of calcium carbonate

A

foraminiferans

231
Q

_____ are flattened vacuoles at the outer cortex of Alveolates

A

alveola

232
Q

____ stabilize the structure of alveolates

A

microtubules

233
Q

the group of alveolates with many cilia for motility are called ____

A

ciliates

234
Q

The group of alveolates that have neurotoxins that cause the red tide are _____

A

dinoflagellates

235
Q

apicomplexans have a _____ derived from chloroplast

A

apicoplast

236
Q

____ is a group related to photosynthetic Euglenozoa

A

Trypanosomes

237
Q

the eukaryotic group ____ lack mitochondria

A

excavates

Bio 286 (7 decks)

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