Evidence Based Practice Flashcards

1
Q

Types of observational studies

A

Cohort studies
Case-control studies
Cross-sectional studies

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2
Q

Evidence based medicine (EBM) approaches a clinical dilemma as a clinical question using what pneumonic?

A

PICO
P-patients problem
I- clinical intervention
C- comparison of the intervention with at least one alternative
O- desired outcome used to compare interventions

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3
Q

Margination

A

A process in which white blood cells, or leukocytes, relocate from their normal central location in the bloodstream to the periphery along the endothelium wall. As margination progresses, leukocytes adhere to endothelial cells, before migrating from the blood to the tissue, where they are responsible for limiting the harmful stimuli and beginning the process of repair.

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4
Q

What type of questions is the PICO model best applied to?

A

Foreground questions (specified knowledge questions that affect clinical decisions)

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5
Q

Inflammation

A

Reaction of vascularized tissue in the body to local injury or insult.
Excessive inflammation can be pathogenic
Clinical signs: redness, fever, swelling, pain

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6
Q

Vascular and cellular components of inflammation

A

Vascular- following injury, the body increases blood flow to the site through dilation of the arterioles. This ultimately leads to dilation of the capillaries and venules. This allows increased permeability of macromolecules into the tissue space. This causes swelling/edema.

Cellular- as fluid is lost in the tissue space, large amounts of RBCs, WBCs, and platelets remain behind causing blood viscosity to increase. This increase in viscosity causes margination.

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7
Q

Histamine

A

Mediator of inflammation
Stored in granular tissue of mast cells
Once released, produces vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

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8
Q

Factor XII (Hageman factor)

A

Mediator of inflammation
Stored in an inactive form in plasma
Once activated, this plasma protein triggers the activation of 4 different cascades of systems important to inflammation and repair (coagulation cascade, kinin cascade, fibrinolytic cascade, complement cascade)

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9
Q

Coagulation cascade

A

leads to thrombin formation, which converts fibrinogen into fibrin, ultimately leading to clot formation

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10
Q

Kinin cascade

A

Leads to the production of bradykinin. Bradykinin is a peptide that causes vascular dilation and increases permeability

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11
Q

Fibrinolytic cascade

A

Involves the conversion of plasminogen into the active protease plasmin. Plasmin has two important functions: degradation of fibrin clots and activation of the complement cascade

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12
Q

Complement cascade

A

Has many important functions. Produces proteins that form the membrane attack complex, which attacks harmful microorganisms. Additional activated proteins in this cascade are mediators of inflammation causing vasodilation, increasing vascular permeability, promoting chemotaxis and phagocytosis, and initiating histamine release.

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13
Q

Arachidonic acid

A

A fatty acid found in many cell membranes. Two different pathways metabolize arachidonic acid, which results in the production of potent inflammatory mediators.
Prostaglandins and thromboxanes are produced from arachidonic acid through the cyclooxygenase pathway

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14
Q

Prostaglandins

A

Induce vasodilation and increase vascular permeability

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15
Q

Thromboxanes

A

Facilitate platelet aggregation, which is important to the healing and repair process.

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16
Q

Lipoxygenase pathway

A

results in the production of leukotrienes. Leukotrienes initiate chemotactic activities for WBC, causing vasodilation, and increase vascular permeability

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17
Q

Hemodynamics

A

Defined as the function of blood flow or circulation and the forces involved. Alterations or disturbances in the normal pattern of blood flow can be harmful to the organs and tissues of the body.

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18
Q

Edema

A

The abnormal accumulation of fluids in the interstitial spaces of cells or tissues

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19
Q

Water composition in the body

A

Intracellular compartment- contains approximately 2/3rds of total body water

Extracellular compartment- stores the remaining 1/3rd of total body water
The extracellular compartment is further divided into the interstitial space and plasma space, which are separated by the capillary wall.

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20
Q

What is normal exchange of water controlled by?

A

Controlled by hydrostatic and osmotic pressure, which is regulated by plasma proteins. Disruption of this normal exchange explains the etiology of edema

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21
Q

Causes of edema

A
Increased hydrostatic pressure
Decreased osmotic pressure
Increased vascular permeability caused by inflammation
Obstruction of a lymphatic channel
Sodium retention
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22
Q

Congestion

A

A passive process in which the drainage of blood from a given area is interrupted. An example of congestion can be seen in valvular stenosis. In this disorder, blood volume is increased in the cardiac chamber preceding the valve that is failing to open properly.
Increase in blood volume

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23
Q

Hyperemia

A

An active process in which blood flow is increased to a given area. An example of this process can be seen in acute inflammation.
Increase in blood volume.

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24
Q

Hemorrhage

A

the loss or escape of blood from the circulatory system. Accumulation of this lost blood may be external or enclosed within the tissue space of the body.

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25
Q

Hematoma

A

Referred to the accumulation of blood within the tissues and can range in severity for mild (bruise) to more severe (subdural hematoma)

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26
Q

Petechiae

A

Pinpoint hemorrhages seen most commonly on dermal or mucosal areas

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27
Q

Purpuras

A

Widespread hemorrhages slightly larger than petechiae usually found under the dermal surface

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28
Q

Ecchymoses

A

Larger, often blotchy hemorrhages that also are found on mucosal or dermal areas

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29
Q

Thrombosis

A

The pathologic process of formation of a blood clot within the circulatory system. The formed clot is referred to as a thrombus.

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30
Q

Virchows triad

A

Thrombus formation

  1. ) Decreased blood flow
  2. ) Injury or abnormality of the endothelial wall of the vessel
  3. ) Changes to the normal properties or processes of blood coagulation
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31
Q

Most thrombi are formed because of what?

A

decreased blood flow

On the venous side, blood pressure is lower (as compared to the arterial blood)

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32
Q

Embolism

A

the lodging of a detached mass, or embolus, from one area of the bloodstream to another. Most emboli are formed from blood clots and are referred to as thromboemboli

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33
Q

Infarction

A

the process of forming an ischemic necrosis within a tissue or organ

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34
Q

Shock

A

A serious condition involving decreased perfusion of tissues and organs because of inadequate blood flow. Signs and symptoms can include cold, mottled skin, mental status changes, and oliguria

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35
Q

Hypovolemic shock

A

Due to an inadequate volume of circulating blood most commonly caused by hemorrhage or trauma. In hypovolemic shock, cardiac output (CO) is reduced because of decreased venous return and systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is high because of compensatory vasoconstriction

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36
Q

Distributive shock

A

Due to an inadequate volume of circulating blood; however, fluid is not actually leaving the body as is seen in hypovolemic shock. Infections (septic), anaphylaxis (anaphylactic shock), and medications (neurogenic shock) are common causes of circulatory vasodilation leading to this type of shock.
CO usually is normal to elevated and SVR is reduced in distributive shock

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37
Q

Cardiogenic shock

A

Caused by cardiac malfunction and is most commonly seen in patient suffering myocardial infarction or cardiac arrhythmias. CO is reduced and SVR is increased in cardiogenic shocl

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38
Q

Shock can potentially progress through which 3 stages?

A

Nonprogressive stage-reflex neurohumoral mechanisms are activated, and normal circulation is restored
Progressive stage- tissue and organs remain hypoperfused, thereby increasing damage and decreasing likelihood of compensation. This condition can be seen in cases with severe blood loss.
Irreversible stage

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39
Q

Agenesis

A

the failure of organ formation during embryo formation

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40
Q

Aplasia

A

failure of organ or tissue development

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41
Q

Hyperplasia

A

the enlargement in the size of an organ or tissue because of cellular proliferation

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42
Q

The maintenance of blood pressure depends on what 2 factors?

A

Cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance

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43
Q

What is HTN most commonly caused by?

A

Increases in SVR

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44
Q

ANP

A

Atrial natiuretic peptide is secreted by the atria of the heart in response to increased blood flow. ANP increases urinary excretion of sodium and water thereby causing a decrease in blood pressure.

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45
Q

Nitric oxide

A

Potent vasodilator released by the endothelial cells in response to changes in blood pressure. Oxidative stress has been suggested to cause a deficiency in nitric oxide, and thus HTN

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46
Q

Endothelin

A

Vasoconstricting substance. Overstimulation can cause HTN

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47
Q

Insulin is necessary for

A

the transport of glucose into cells, where it is stored as glycogen to be used for energy

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48
Q

Insulin is produced

A

by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas

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49
Q

In addition to glucose uptake, insulin stimulates

A

amino acid uptake, and thus, protein synthesis by muscle. It can also stimulate fatty acid storage in adipose tissues.

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50
Q

Symptoms of DM

A

polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, fatigue, weight loss

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51
Q

How do most cases of T1DM happen?

A

Most result from an immune-mediated destruction of beta cells of the pancreas by T-lymphocytes.

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52
Q

The majority of calories should come from

A

Fruits, vegetables, whole grains, legumes, and nuts

Intake of red meats and saturated fats should be limited

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53
Q

Calories recommended intake

A

1,800-2,000 kcal/day

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54
Q

Carb recommended intake

A

45-65% of total daily calories

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55
Q

Protein recommended intake

A

10-35% of total daily calories

56
Q

Fat recommended intake

A

20-35% of total daily calories

57
Q

Fish recommended intake

A

8 oz/week

58
Q

Fiber recommended intake

A

14g/1000 calories eaten daily

59
Q

Sodium recommended intake

A

<2,400 mg/day

60
Q

Potassium recommended intake

A

4,700 mg/day

61
Q

Whole grain recommended intake

A

> 3 ounce equivalents

62
Q

Fat free or low fat dairy recommended intake

A

3 cups

63
Q

Vitamin B12 recommended intake

A

2.4mcg/day (esp patients >50 years of age)

64
Q

Folic acid recommended intake

A

400-600 mcg/day

65
Q

Vitamin D recommended intake

A

25 mcg/day or 1000 IU/day

66
Q

5 vegetable subgroups

A

dark green, orange, legumes, starches, and other

4.5 cups/day

67
Q

What is the requirement to be whole grain?

A

Must be at least 51% whole grain ingredients by weight and be low in fat

68
Q

Fat soluble vitamins

A

ADEK

69
Q

Most dietary sources of fat should come from

A

Polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) and monounsaturated fatty acids (MUFAs)

70
Q

Polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) include

A

Omega 6 fats- soybean, corn, safflower oils

Omega 3 fats- soybean, canola, and flaxseed oil, walnuts, fish

71
Q

Avoid salt substitutes (potassium chloride) in patients with

A

kidney disease

72
Q

BMI

A

Weight in kg/(height in m)^2

73
Q

Obesity I

A

BMI 30-34.9

74
Q

Obesity II

A

BMI 35-39.9

75
Q

How much calorie reduction will prevent weight gain?

A

50-100kcal/day

76
Q

What goal calorie reduction for weight loss?

A

500kcal/day reduction

77
Q

What is the healthiest way to reduce calorie intake?

A

Reduce the amount of sugar, fat, and alcohol

Exercise

78
Q

Resistance exercises (weight training or resistance bands) can reduce

A

osteoporosis as well as increase muscle strength and tone

79
Q

A healthcare provider should be consulted before which individuals start an exercise program?

A

Men >40 and women >50
Individuals with a chronic disease
Individuals who have symptoms such as chest pain or pressure, dizziness, or joint pain

80
Q

How is the smoking pack year calculated?

A

Calculated by the number of packs (20 cig/pack) smoked in a day x years smoke.
Example- if a person smokes 2 ppd for 5 years they have a 10 pack year smoking history

81
Q

5 R’s used to encourage pts to quit smoking

A
Relevance
Risks
Rewards
Roadblocks
Repetition
82
Q

In counseling pts, pharmacists should use the five A’s

A
Ask 
Advise
Assess
Assist
Arrange
83
Q

Withdrawal symptoms of smoking cessation

A

Peak 48 hours after cessation, gradually dissipate over the next 2-4 weeks, and completely resolve within 1 month. Increased appetite and weight gain may persist for 6 months

84
Q

4 subsets of atherosclerotic disease

A

Coronary heart disease/ cardiovascular disease
Cerebrovascular disease
Peripheral arterial disease
Aortic atherosclerosis including thoracic or abdominal aortic aneurysm

85
Q

Risk assessment for atherosclerotic disease should begin

A

at age 20 and be assessed every 4-6 years in low-risk patients and more often in those at higher risk (every 2 years). Risk assessment after age 79 is not necessary

86
Q

Nonmodifiable heart disease risk factors

A

Age (>45 in men, >55 in women)
Gender (>men)
Ethnicity (AA at highest risk)
F/H (premature HD in male <55 years of age or females <65 years)

87
Q

Which ASCVD risk score would benefit from statin therapy

A

> 7.5

88
Q

Which ASCVD risk score would benefit from low dose aspirin?

A

> 10

89
Q

Statin primary prevention

A

A pt with LDL > 190
A pt age 40-75 with DM and LDL > 70
A pt age 40-79 w/o DM and LDL >70 and ASCVD >7.5

90
Q

High intensity statins

A

Atorvastatin 40-80 mg

Rosuvastatin 20-40 mg

91
Q

Afib treatments

A

Rate control- beta blocker, non-dihydropyridine CCH (dilt or verapamil)
Rhythm- amiodarone

92
Q

Which diuretics cause metabolic alkalosis and hypocalcemia?

A

Loop

93
Q

CCBs AE

A

peripheral edema, constipation

94
Q

Non-dihydropyridine CCB AE

A

bradycardia and heart block and can worsen HF

95
Q

beta blocker AE

A

fatigue, bradycardia, heart block, and bronchconstriction in pts with lung disease

96
Q

Congestive heart failure treatment

A

ACE or ARB
Beta blocker- metoprolol, carvedilol, bisoprolol
Hydralazine + isosorbide if AA
Spironolactone or epleronone

Digoxin is an add on

97
Q

AE in HF treatments

A
Need to slowly titrate beta blockers to avoid worsening CHF symptoms
Hyperkalemia with spironolactone
Risk of toxicity form digoxin 
HA from isosorbide 
Lupus from hydralazine
98
Q

Ischemic stroke treatment

A

Thrombolysis with alteplase is recommended in pts within 4.5 hours of symptom onset.
Aspirin within 24-48 hours
Anticoagulation with IV heparin or other agents not recommended

99
Q

Venous thromboembolism treatment (DVT/PE)

A

IV heparin titrated to PTT or LMWH or subcutaneous fondaparinux

100
Q

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia

A

Caused by heparin or LMWH. Can be lifethreatening

101
Q

F/U VTE therapy

A

at least 3 months with oral anticoagulation.

Newer agents >warfarin

102
Q

Asthma treatment

A

SABA prn
Add a low dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
If more control needed, increase ICS dose or add LABA (salmeterol) or both
If more control needed, add oral corticosteroid, consider omalizumab to high dose ICS + LABA

103
Q

COPD treatment

A

Use GOLD guidelines

  1. ) Begin with SABA prn plus LABA or long-acting anticholinergic (tiotropium)
  2. ) Add second long acting bronchodilator from class not used
  3. Consider addition of theophylline or roflumilast (if pt has chronic bronchitis)
104
Q

What can worsen bronchoconstriction in COPD and asthma?

A

Non selective beta blockers

105
Q

Peak expiratory flow rate

A

Used to monitor asthma severity

106
Q

Spirometry

A

Used to monitor COPD, FEV1

107
Q

CT scan of chest

A

Diagnostic of PE

108
Q

Which drugs can cause esophagitis?

A

Tetracycline abx, biphosphanates

109
Q

Which drugs worsen GERD by decreasing lower esophageal sphincter tone

A

Beta blockers. CCBs. and caffeine

110
Q

PUD treatment

A

Clindamycin plus either metronidazole or amoxicillin
Plus
PPI for 10-14 days

NSAID induced ulcers are treated with H2RAs or PPIs and the NSAID is stopped or changed to celecoxib. PPIs or misoprostol can be used to prevent NSAID induced ulcers

111
Q

Which drugs cause hepatic dysfunction

A

acetaminophen, amiodarone, statins, phenytoin, carbamazepine, valproic acid, azole antifungals, Isoniazid

112
Q

AST >ALT in

A

alcohol induced liver disease

113
Q

Alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin are present in

A

elevated levels in cholestatic liver disease

114
Q

Otitis media treatment

A

10 days of high dose amoxicillin 1st line

Oral cephalosporins, macrolides, and clindamycins used in allergy

115
Q

Sinusitis treatment (abx)

A

Amoxicillin, doxycycline (adults only)

Resp FQ or clindamycin + cefepime if high risk

116
Q

Pharyngitis treatment

A

Pen VK, amoxicillin, cephalosporins, azithromycin, clindamycin

117
Q

CAP treatment outpatient

A

Doxycycline or azithromycin or clarithromycin

With comorbidities- rep quinolone or high dose Amoxicillin/ clavunate added to above

118
Q

CAP treatment inpatient

A

Respiratory quinolone or a combo of cephalosporin (ceftriaxone) plus azith, clarith, or doxy

119
Q

CAP in ICU

A

Pts require anti-pseudomonal coverage
Cefepime, Pip/Tazo, meropenem

And possible MRSA coverage
Vanc

120
Q

Skin and soft tissue infections abx

A

Nonpurlent, use penicillin, cephalexin, or clindamycin
Severe- Pip/Tazo plus vancomycin
Purulent infections should target MRSA

Doxy or TMP-SMX used for moderate purulent infections, vanc, linezolid, daptomycin, or ceftaroline used for severe

121
Q

CDiff associated diarrhea (CDAD) treatment

A

10-14 days with oral or IV metronidazole if less severe or oral vanc if more severe
Most severe- metronidazole + oral vanc

Recurrence treated with same agent or fidaxomicin.
Frequent recurrences treated with long term oral vanc, fidaxomicin, or fecal microbiota transplant

122
Q

Uncomplicated cystitis treatment

A

Nitrofurantoin for 5 days or TMP-SMX for 3 days

Alternatives include quinolone x 3 days or fosfomycin x 1 day

123
Q

Outpatient pyelonephritis treatment

A

quinolone for 7 days or TMP-SMX for 14 days

124
Q

Hospitalized UTI treatment

A

Quinolone
Anti-pseudomonal Beta lactam
Or both
Aminoglycoside can be added but carry risk of nephrotoxicity

125
Q

Endocarditis treatment

A

Most commonly caused by streptococcus viridans, staphylococci, and enterococci
Pen G or ceftriaxone for 2-4 weeks. Alternative is vanc
Prosthetic valve endocarditis requires combo with aminoglycoside and rifampin for 2-6 weeks

126
Q

Meningitis treatment

A

Pneumococcus and Neisseria meningitides
Empiric therapy of ceftriaxone + vancomycin for children >3 months and adults
Ampicillin is added for listeria coverage if > 60 years old
Ampicillin +cefotaxime or aminoglycoside added if <3 months old

127
Q

Surgical prophylaxis

A

start within 60 minutes of incision (120 min for quinolones and vanc)
Drugs should be redosed every 2 1/2 lifes during surgery (4 hours for cefazolin)
Prophylaxis should not exceed 24 hours
Cefazolin is DOC
Clinda and vanc are alternates.
Add metronidazole in colorectal surgery

128
Q

Sepsis treatment

A

Rapid, aggressive crystalloid (NS, LR) fluid resuscitation to maintain MAP >65 mmHg and normalize hyperlactetemia
Albumin in pts with higher fluid requirements
For persistent shock, NE is vasopressor of choice, which addition of vasopressin or another catecholamine based on hemodynamic needs.
Low dose corticosteroid can be considered for pts failing vasopressors

129
Q

C. glabrata, C. krusei treatmetn

A

Echinocandins (caspofungin), amphotericin B, coriconazole

130
Q

DOC for asperigillus

A

voriconazole

131
Q

Histoplasma, blastomyces, coccidioides, cryptococcus tx

A

fluconazone or itraconazole if mild

amphotericin B +/- flucytosine for serious

132
Q

Mucorales (zyhomycetes, rhizopus) tx

A

amphotericin B or isavuconazole

133
Q

Aminoglycosides and vancomycin are

A

nephrotoxic

134
Q

Linezolid can cause

A

anemia
thrombocytopenia
neuropathies- do not give with serotonergic drugs

135
Q

Nephrotoxic drugs

A

aminoglycoside antibiotics, vancomycin, amphotericin B, IV contrast dye, NSAIDs, ACEIs and ARBs, β-lactams (notably piperacillin–tazobactam), and loop diuretics.

136
Q

Low therapeutic index agents

A

phenytoin, carbamazepine, warfarin, digoxin, aminoglycosides, thyroid supplements, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, theophylline, lithium