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Biology 103 > Everything since the last lecture exam up until the end of the course > Flashcards

Everything since the last lecture exam up until the end of the course Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the major function of the circulatory system for the body?

A

Transport materials
(highways)

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2
Q

What type of tissue if blood?

A

Liquid/ Fluid (connective tissue)

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3
Q

What is the heart?

A

Hollow muscular pump

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4
Q

What is blood made out of?

A

55% plasma (extracellular matrix) (water is 90% of plasma) (protein fibers and ground substance)

45% blood cells (red erythrocytes/white leukocytes, cell fragments platelets)

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5
Q

Where do blood cells originate from?

A

Red bone marrow.

Created by mitosis from our stem cells within the red bone marrow

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6
Q

What do stem cells differentiate into?

A

White blood cells, red blood cells, platelets

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7
Q

What happens to the blood once it matured in the red bone marrow?

A

it enters the blood stream

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8
Q

Fancy name for red blood cells? and how big are they? what shape do they have?

A

Erythrocytes (smallest cell in the body) 5um
Biconcave disk shape

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9
Q

What in the blood cells determines the blood type?

A

The antigens that are on the surface of the cell

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10
Q

What is the main function of erythrocytes?

A

Transport oxygen

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11
Q

Why do erythrocytes not have nuclei?

A

no nucleus= more room for oxygen carrying hemoglobin

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12
Q

Fancy name for white blood cells?

A

Leukocytes

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13
Q

Fancy names of platelets?

A

Thrombocytes (small cellular fragments)

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14
Q

What do thrombocytes do?

A

Aid in blood clotting. they see tears in collagen fibers of torn blood vessels and the platelets activate and glue or plug the tear

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15
Q

What does the hemoglobin do in red blood cells?

A

with the help of Iron (Fe), hemoglobin proteins stabilize oxygen (O2)

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16
Q

What type of muscle surrounds blood vessels?

A

Smooth

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17
Q

Compare the look of leukocytes and erythrocytes

A

Erythrocytes are more abundant. they are smaller and look like disks. no nucleus

Leukocytes are larger and they’re are less of them. they also have a nucleus

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18
Q

What is the main function of leukocytes?

A

To identify and destroy toxins and damaged or damaging cells. Immune response

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19
Q

What materials do red blood cells transport?

A

NUTRIENTS (from intestines to other tissues)

CHEMICAL SIGNALS (hormones from endocrine organs)

IMMUNE CELLS (from lymphatic organs)

CHEMICAL WASTE (CO2, metabolites - from tissues to excretory organs

and oxygen

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20
Q

What do blood vessels do?

A

Carry blood to and from the heart

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21
Q

What do arteries do?

A

Carry blood AWAY from the heart

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22
Q

What do veins do?

A

Carry blood BACK to the heart

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23
Q

What do capillaries do?

A

Allow for diffusion between blood and tissues. (like a school drop off)

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24
Q

Structure of arteries

A

Much narrower than veins (the more narrow the more pressure).
Thick layer of muscle that can contract to increase pressure (vasoconstriction)

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25
Q

What are the smallest arteries called?

A

Arterioles

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26
Q

Structure of Veins

A

Veins are wide (low pressure). have valves to prevent back flow.

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27
Q

What are the smallest veins called?

A

venules

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28
Q

What are capillaries?

A

They connect arterioles and venules. a web of tiny tiny vessels. so small only a single blood cell can fit through at a time. Capillaries are made of a single layer of simple squamous (for simple diffusion)

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29
Q

WHat type of cells are capillaries made of?

A

Capillaries are made of a single layer of simple squamous (for simple diffusion)

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30
Q

What are capillaries?

A

They connect arterioles and venules. a web of tiny tiny vessels. so small only a single blood cell can fit through at a time.

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31
Q

What are the 2 circuits of the heart?

A

1) pulmonary (lungs)
2) systemic (body)

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32
Q

What are the 4 chambers of the heart?

A

Left and Right Atrium (atria pl)
Left and Right Ventricles

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33
Q

What are the ventricles separated by?

A

SEPTUM

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34
Q

What side of the heart is deoxygenated and what side is oxygenated?

A

Right side (deoxygenated)
Left side (oxygenated)

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35
Q

What blood vessel brings deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the heart? and to what chamber does it bring it to?

A

Superior vena cava brings deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the right atrium

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36
Q

What blood vessel brings deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the heart? and to what chamber does it bring it to?

A

Inferior vena cava brings deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the right atrium

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37
Q

Where does the right ventricle send blood to?

A

pulmonary truck –> pulmonary arteries

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38
Q

Where does the left ventricle send blood to?

A

Aorta

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39
Q

What blood vessel brings oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart? and what chamber does it bring it to?

A

Pulmonary veins bring oxygenated blood from the lungs into the left atrium

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40
Q

What are the names of the valves that are between the artia and the ventricles?

A

Atrioventricular valves (AV valves)

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41
Q

What is the name of the valve that sits between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk?

A

Pulmonary (semi-lunar valve)

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42
Q

What is the name of the valve between the left ventricle and the aorta?

A

Aortic (semi-lunar valve)

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43
Q

What type of muscle is in the heart?

A

Cardiac muscle

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44
Q

Tell me some shit about cardiac muscle

A

1) it contracts on its own (no use for neural stimulation)

2) highly branched and has intercalated discs between the cells

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45
Q

What are intercalated disks?

A

little disks between the cells that allow for coordinated contractions of the chambers

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46
Q

What is the “pacemaker” of the heart?

A

Sinoatrial node (SA node).
Found in the right atrium. It sets the pace for the muscular contractions. Sends signals to the left atrium so both atria can contract together

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47
Q

What is the 2nd node in the heart and where is it?

A

Atrioventricular node (AV node). Delays the signal from the SA node before sending it out to the ventricles. The ventricles then contract together AFTER the atria does. Near bottom on right atria*

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48
Q

What is the coordinated contraction of the heart called?

A

Systole

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49
Q

What is it called when the chambers in the heart are at a state of “relaxation”?

A

Diastole

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50
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

The force that the blood exerts on the walls of the blood vessels .

Ventricular systole over ventricular diastole. 120/80 mmHg

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51
Q

name of that thing that tests your blood pressure

A

Sphygmomanometers

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52
Q

What is your pulse?

A

The speed of the rhythmic stretching of the arteries during ventricle systole.

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53
Q

What happens if your blood pressure is too low?

A

Baroreceptors in your aorta will send signals to your brain to speed up your heart and to contract the arteries.

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54
Q

What happens when blood pressure equalizes?

A

baroreceptors will stop sending signals (negative feedback)

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55
Q

What do pedigree charts determine?

A

patterns; they are created to demonstrate the inheritance pattern of a particular trait down a family line

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56
Q

What is autosomal recessive inheritance?

A

child inherits one copy of each gene from parents (who do not show the gene)

trait cannot be dominant

PARENTS MUST BE HETEROZYGOUS

Xx Xx

2 unaffected parents have an affected offspring

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57
Q

What is autosomal dominant inheritance?

A

child inherits one copy of a gene from one parent

trait cannot be recessive

PARENTS MUST BE HETEROZYGOUS

Xx Xx

A child who has a parent with the mutated gene has a 50% chance of inheriting that mutated gene

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58
Q

What is complete dominance?

A

a form of dominance wherein the dominant allele completely masks the effect of the recessive allele in heterozygous conditions

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59
Q

what is incomplete dominance?

A

a form of dominance where neither allele is dominant

the alleles are usually both written as capital letters
i.e. flowers: RR (red), RW (pink), WW (white)

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60
Q

what is a genotype?

A

the specific combination of alleles that an individual possesses for a particular gene

i.e. for flower colour, pea plants could be PP, Pp, or pp

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61
Q

what is a phenotype?

A

the physical expression of those alleles

i.e., Pea plants that are PP or Pp have purple flowers, pea plants that are pp have white flowers

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62
Q

What is an intermediate phenotype?

A

when a heterozygote displays a phenotype that is one allele from each homozygous parent (one is homozygous dominant - XX and one is homozygous recessive - xx )

Xx

a demonstration of partial or incomplete dominance

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63
Q

What is the genotypic and phenotypic ratio for the offspring of a cross between two heterozygotes?

A

genotypic and phenotypic ratio of 1:2:1

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64
Q

What is the genotypic and phenotypic ratio for the offspring of a cross between two heterozygotes?

A

genotypic and phenotypic ratio of 1:2:1

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65
Q

What is co-dominance?

A

where both alleles are dominant and will be expressed

Both allelesare written as capital letters, or as super script letters on a capital letter

A heterozygote will express both alleles

I A I B (BLOOD)

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66
Q

What is the difference in the outcome of incomplete dominance and codominance?

A

Incomplete dominance results in blended intermediate phenotype in heterozygotes, while co-dominance results in both alleles being equally expressed

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67
Q

What is an example of co-dominance?

A

blood groups

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68
Q

What do the different blood types mean?

A

An individual’s blood group relates to what antigens (proteins)they have on the surface of their red blood cells

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69
Q

What are the four possible blood groups (phenotypes)?

A

O, A, B, AB

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70
Q

WHat are the three potential alleles for the blood group gene?

A

IA, IB, and i

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71
Q

WHat alleles for the blood group gene are co-dominant to each other? Which are completely dominant?

A

IAand IBare co-dominant to each other. If they are both present, they will both be expressed
IA and IB are both completely dominant to i. To express i, IAand IB cannot be present

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72
Q

What are the possible genotypes and phenotypes for blood groups?

A

ii= type O (no antigens)
IA IA orIA i= type A (A antigens)
IBIB or IBi= type B (B antigens)
IAIB = type AB (both A and B antigens)

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73
Q

What are sex-linked genes?

A

genes that are found on the X chromosome

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74
Q

What type of inheritance pattern do sex-linked traits follow?

A

XX/XY

Males will always express an X-linked trait
Males either donate an X or a Y to their offspring

Females have two copies of X-linked traits
Females always donate an X to their offspring

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75
Q

What is colour blindness an example of? What are the genotypes for females and males?

A

colour-blindness is a recessive sex-linked trait where at least one dominant allele will prevent colour-blindness

Females can either be:
XNXN (not color-blind)
XNXn (not color-blind)
XnXn (colour-blind)

Males can either be:
XNY (not colour blind)
XnY (colour blind)

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76
Q

What is the law of independent assortment?

A

For many genes, the inheritance pattern of one will not impact the inheritance pattern of another

For example, pea plants have multiple independent genetic traits; none will impact the expression or inheritance of the other

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77
Q

How many gametes will there be when considering the inheritance pattern of two genes?

A

four gametes

Each allele will separate independently of the alleles from another gene (independent assortment in anaphase I of meiosis)

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78
Q

What is the two gene blood type example?

A

In addition to the A, B, and O groups, blood cells also have the Rhesus factor (Rh positive) or lack the Rhesus factor (Rh negative)
The D allele codes for Rh +, while the d allele codes for Rh –
This means that there are two genes that impact your complete blood type (AB-, O+, etc.)

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79
Q

What is epistasis?

A

genes can influence the expression of each other

even though two genes are inherited independently of one another, one gene will impact the expression of the other

EX: Labrador puppoes

when you have a dominant allele

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80
Q

What is a polygenic trait?

A

single traits governed by more than one gene
e.g. eye colour, skin colour, blood pressure, height

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81
Q

What is a gene and how does it relate to a protein?

A

A gene is a segment of DNA that can be transcribed and translated into a protein

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82
Q

What are the two steps involved in protein synthesis (aka gene expression)?

A

transcription, translation

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83
Q

What is gene expression?

A

when a gene is transcribed and translated into a functional protein

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84
Q

What is gene regulation?

A

the process of altering how, or if, that gene is expressed

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85
Q

Why is gene expression tightly regulated?

A

Different cells in our body may express different proteins, even though they have the same DNA

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86
Q

What are the different ways that genes can be regulated? (what levels of protein synthesis can gene regulation occur at)

A

Epigenetic level, transcriptional level, post-transcriptional level, translational level, post-translational level

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87
Q

What happens at the epigenetic level of gene regulation?

A

genes permanently turned off

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88
Q

What happens at the transcriptional level of gene regulation?

A

genes prevented from transcribing

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89
Q

What happens at the post-transcriptional level of gene regulation?

A

mRNA processing

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90
Q

What happens at the translational level of gene regulation?

A

mRNA stabilizing

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91
Q

What happens at the post-translational level of gene regulation?

A

protein stabilizing

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92
Q

What happens if a change occurs upstream of the protein synthesis process and what one of the two types of protein synthesis does this affect?

A

its effect will be more widespread and will last longer; transcriptional

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93
Q

What happens if a change occurs downstream of the protein synthesis process and what one of the two types of protein synthesis does this affect?

A

its effects will be moreimmediate;
translational

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94
Q

What are histones and nucleosomes?

A

histones are proteins; when genes are not in use they are usually wrapped up in histones, which are further wrapped into nucleosomes

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95
Q

What is epigenetic regulation?

A

when the cell will modify the histones or the DNA itself to prevent them from being accessed; Typical modifications are adding methyl groups (DNA methylation)

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96
Q

What happens to genes when the histones are modified or the DNA itself?

A

typically inaccessible and thus permanently “turned off”

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97
Q

How long does epigenetic regulation last for? why?

A

generations; If the DNA itself is methylated (DNA methylation), these genes are permanently shut off and all daughter cells will have them “turned off” too (cell differentiation!)

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98
Q

What is cell specialization?

A

epigenetic regulation; each cell in your body contains the same DNA, but certain parts of their DNA are permanently modified during cell differentiation, resulting in specialized cells

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99
Q

What is X-inactivation?

A

Epigenetic regulation; In female (XX) tortoise-shell cats that have different alleles for fur colour, some cells will shut off one chromosome while others will turn off the opposite, leading to theirpatches

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100
Q

Is epigenetic regulation heritable? if so, why?

A

Environmental factors (diet, stress, trauma) can impact the epigenetic regulation of various genes in our cells
If this regulation occurs in our gametes, it will be passed on (intergenerational impacts)

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101
Q

What are transcriptional factors and what do they do?

A

If a gene is not packed, its transcription can still beregulated

Regulatory proteins called transcription factors can bind to genes

When a transcription factor binds to a target DNA sequence, it either promotes or reduces the transcription of that sequence

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102
Q

What are activators and what do they do?

A

Activators are transcription factors that activate transcription
E.g. in humans, activators promote the transcription of cytokines (chemical messengers) in the inflammation response

The DNA site bound by the activator is referred to as an “activator site”. The part of the activator that makes protein–protein interactions with the general transcription machinery is referred to as an “activating region”

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103
Q

What is a repressor in a prokaryote? idk sorry lol

A

In bacteria, the gene that codes for lactase (an enzyme that will break down lactose) is transcriptionally regulated

When there is no lactose present, a repressor binds to the operator region of the gene and no lactase mRNA is produced

In the presence of lactose, the repressor will bind to lactose molecules, leaving the operator site and allowing the gene to be transcribed

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104
Q

What happens to mRNA before translation?

A

mRNA is processed; If the RNA is successfully transcribed, it must be processed in the nucleus before being sent to a ribosome for translation

RNA processing includes:
- Removal of any introns
- Splicing together of the remaining exons

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105
Q

What does RNA processing include?

A

removal of any introns, splicing together of the remaining exons

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106
Q

WHat does post-transcriptional regulation involve?

A

alternative RNA splicing

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107
Q

What is alternative RNA splicing?

A

exons are spliced together in different combinations, producing more than one type of polypeptide from a single gene

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108
Q

How many exons does a typical human gene have?

A

ten exons

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109
Q

What does translational regulation involve?

A

mRNA stabilization

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110
Q

What is mRNA stabilization?

A

Recall that further RNA processing will help stabilize the mRNA once it leaves the nucleus:

Addition of a cap, coat, and tail to the RNA

mRNA life span (aka Like transcription,mRNA degradation)will affect how many times it will be translated

The length of poly-A tail is often indicative of the stability of mRNA and how often it will be translated

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111
Q

What is added to RNA during mRNA stabilization?

A

a cap, a coat, and a tail

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112
Q

What is an example of translational regulation?

A

mRNA for casein, the major protein of milk, has half-life of 1.1 hours in rat mammary gland tissue
During periods of lactation, presence of hormone prolactin increases mRNA half-life to 28.5 hours, resulting in more casein (lengthened poly-A tails!)

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113
Q

What are microRNA (miRNA)?

A

MicroRNA are small RNA molecules that bind completely or partially to mRNA to either induce mRNA degradation or block mRNA translation

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114
Q

What is an example of miRNA action?

A

miRNA molecules in respiratory epithelial cells act as antiviral defenses against influenza A viruses (Peng et al., 2018)

Useful for designing miRNA-based therapies against viral infection

miRNA -> prevents translation
No viral proteins created

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115
Q

What is activation and inactivation in post-translational regulation?

A

Activation: often involves cutting polypeptides into smaller, active final products

Inactivation: selective breakdown of proteins byproteasomes

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116
Q

What are cells?

A

Individual units of life
Come in many shapes and sizes in the body

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117
Q

WHat are tissues?

A

Many cells working together

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118
Q

WHat are organs?

A

several tissues together

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119
Q

What are organ systems?

A

several organs working together

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120
Q

What is epithelial tissue?

A

Epithelial tissue covers all body surfaces, cavities, hollow organs, and glands
Epithelial tissue is made of tightly packed epithelial cells

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121
Q

What are the different types of epithelial tissue for?

A

Protection (e.g., skin)
Sensation (e.g., receptors)
Absorption (e.g. intestines)
Secretion (e.g., kidneys)
Diffusion (e.g., capillaries)

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122
Q

What are the different shapes of epithelial cells and what are their functions?

A

Thin cells (squamous cells) are useful for diffusion
- Look like flat fried eggs
Cube-shaped cells (cuboidal cells) are good for secretion
- Look like cubes
Tall cells (columnar cells) are great for absorption
- Look like columns (nuclei stretched)

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123
Q

WHat are the different layers that epithelial tissue comes in?

A

Epithelial tissues can be single layered (called simple) for easy diffusion/absorption

Epithelial tissues can have many layers (called stratified) for protection

We name epithelial tissue based on their layering and shape

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124
Q

What is connective tissue and what does it do?

A

Connective tissue (CT) is found in between other tissue types to anchor, cushion, and support them

CT is made of specialized CT cells and their secreted extracellular matrix

The matrix consist of protein fibers (collagen, elastin) within a groundsubstance (liquid, gel, solid)

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125
Q

What are the two subtypes of connective tissue?

A

proper and specialized

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126
Q

What is loose connective tissue and what are the 3 types? what do they do?

A

reticular, adipose, areolar

these CT types are primarily ground substance with fewer fibers

these types of CT cushion and insulate organs they are found in

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127
Q

What is dense connective tissue and what are the 3 types? what do they do?

A

elastic, regular, and irregular CT

These CT types are primarily protein fibers (elastin or collagen)

These types of tissues give strength and support

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128
Q

Where are loose and dense connective tissue found?

A

both in skin

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129
Q

What is specialized connective tissue and what does it do?

A

Specialized connective tissues can be supportive, such as cartilage and bone.

Cartilage and bone have strong mineralized ground substancesand the cells sit in small cavities within it.

Protein fibers are found within the matrix for added support.

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130
Q

What are the three types of cartilage tissue?

A

Hyaline, elastic, fibrous

Hyaline cartilage is the most common and is flexible yet strong

Elastic cartilage contains elastic fibers, giving it elasticity

Fibrous cartilage contains collagen fibers, making it compressible

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131
Q

Where can we find hyaline cartilage?

A

makes up our nose, rib ends, and the ends of ourlong bones, and our larynx

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132
Q

Where can we find elastic cartilage?

A

makes up our ears and epiglottis

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133
Q

Where can we find fibrous cartilage?

A

between vertebrae

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134
Q

Where can we find elastic connective tissue?

A

lungs and arteries

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135
Q

Where can we find regular connective tissue?

A

tendons and filaments

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136
Q

Where can we find irregular connective tissue?

A

under the skin

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137
Q

Where can we find reticular connective tissue?

A

lymphatic organs

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138
Q

Where can we find adipose connective tissue?

A

found around kidneys, under skin

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139
Q

Where can we find areolar connective tissue?

A

under skin

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140
Q

What type of cartilage is the trachea made of?

A

hyaline cartilage

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141
Q

Bone is the hardest connective tissue. What are the two types of bone?

A

Spongy and compact

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142
Q

What is the hardest connective tissue?

A

bone

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143
Q

What does bone do?

A

provide protection and support

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144
Q

What is the bone matrix made of?

A

it is mineralized and filled with collagen fibers

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145
Q

Where is spongy bone found?

A

on the inside of our bones

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146
Q

Where is compact bone found?

A

the surface of our bones

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147
Q

Where is bone found?

A

nasal conchae

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148
Q

What are fluid connective tissues?

A

Fluid connective tissues have liquid ground substances and few fibers and are meant for TRANSPORT of cells and molecules

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149
Q

What are liquid connective tissues?

A

Blood and lymph are liquid connective tissues(primary component of matrix is water)

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150
Q

WHat is muscle tissue and what does it do?

A

Muscle tissue consists of bundles of long, thin muscle cells that can contract, allowing for movement of/within organs.

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151
Q

What are the features of muscle cells that make them moveable?

A

Muscle cells are excitable (by hormones and neurons), extensible (can stretch), elastic (can recoil), and contractile (can shorten)

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152
Q

What are the three major types of muscle tissue?

A

skeletal, smooth, and cardiac (differ in their structure and excitability)

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153
Q

What is skeletal muscle?

A

connects to bones, voluntarily contracts

Is striated (protein fibers aligned and thus strong)

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154
Q

What is smooth muscle?

A

found in hollow organs, involuntary

Lacks striations

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155
Q

What is cardiac muscle?

A

only found in the heart, involuntary
Striated

Intercalated discs allow for synchronized contraction

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156
Q

What muscle is found in the esophagus?

A

smooth muscle

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157
Q

What is nervous tissue and what is its function?

A

Nervous tissue is made up of neurons (nerve cells) and their support cells (e.g., glial cells).

Most tissue types have nervous tissue within them.

Responsible for sending electric SIGNALS to and from organs by creating electrochemical gradients.

Send rapid signals

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158
Q

What does our immune system do?

A

protects and defends our body against pathogens

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159
Q

what are the two types of defences that our body has?

A

1) Innate defences
2) Adaptive defences

160
Q

What does the Innate defense immune response do?

A
  • attacks regardless of invader.
  • always ready to go
  • non-specific
161
Q

What does the adaptive defence response do?

A
  • attacks specific invaders after a period of exposure.
  • specific
  • activated by invader exposure
162
Q

What is our bodies outer immediate immune response called?

A

external innate defence

163
Q

what are 6 examples of external innate defense?

A

1) Saliva
2) Skin
3) Stomach Acid
4) Tears
5) Mucus lining
6) Good gut bacteria

164
Q

what is the primary role of our bodies’ external innate defense system?

A

physical and chemical barriers to prevent pathogen entry into the body

165
Q

what happens if a pathogen enters the body?

A

our internal innate defences kick in

166
Q

what are 4 examples of internal innate defences?

A

1) macrophages
2) Natural Killer Cells
3) Mast cells
- the inflammatory response

167
Q

our inner immediate immune responses of the body are called?

A

internal innate defenses

168
Q

what attempts to destroy bacteria if it enters the blood stream?

A

MONOCYTES (Leukocytes)

169
Q

what is the job of Macrophages?

A

to engulf and destroy pathogens via phagocytosis

170
Q

a monocyte differentiates into what kind of cell when it needs to eat a foreign particle?

A

a macrophage

…. but its still a leukocyte woooooooooo

171
Q

What are Cytokines?

A

small chemical messages involved in cell signalling..

released by macrophages to coordinate immune defence

172
Q

what are the jobs of cytokines?

A
  • regulate cell division
  • cell production
  • and gene expression

does this to produce a variety of different immune responses..

this bitch, cytokine, she ready for ANYTHING

173
Q

What are Natural Killers?

A

They are leukocytes that recognize healthy body cells.

damaged cells don’t have the right antigen, so the Natural Killer cells destroy them by releasing chemicals that kills them.
–> prevents the spread of infection

174
Q

What are Mast Cells?

A

they are specialized Leukocytes that encourage inflammation by releasing cytokines.

175
Q

Why do Mast Cells encourage the inflammation of an area?

A

if an area has experienced trauma, irritation, infection… ect THEN the area becomes inflamed to protect it from futher harm.

176
Q

what do mast cells release to stimulate inflammation?

A

cytokines

177
Q

What are some benefits of swelling?

A
  • Capillary widening (increased blood flow)
  • Increased Permeability (allows fluid to be released into tissue)
  • Attraction of Leukocytes (brings them to the site of injury) [HEY LOU, come herrreeeeee]
  • Systemic response (fever + proliferation)
178
Q

What immune cell kills infected or injured cells?

A

Natural Killer Cells.

179
Q

What are Adaptive Defences?

A

Immune responses that are activated AFTER the initial exposure.

  • they are specific to a particular pathogen.
  • they take LONGER to establish a response
  • takes longer to adapt
180
Q

What do Adaptive defences result in?

A

immunological memory

  • your immune system remembers that shit.
181
Q

What kind of specialized Leukocytes are involved in active defense responses?

A

lymphocytes

pimp limp lymph lymph

182
Q

What do antibodies do?

A

they recognize antigens

they bind to specific antigens causing an immune response

183
Q

What are Antigens?

A

they are signalling molecules on membranes…

example: blood types

184
Q

What are lymphocytes?

A

special leukocytes that have antibodies on their membranes.

they got the juice

185
Q

what are the 2 major groups of lymphocytes?

A
  • B cells
  • T cells

BAD TITIES

186
Q

B-cells are lymphocytes involved in what response?

A

the Humoral Response.

187
Q

Activated B cells will divide into two different types of cells.

NAMMEE thoooose cells!

A
  • Memory B cells
  • Plasma cells
188
Q

how does a B cell get activated?

A

Each B cell has specific antibody on its membrane. If it finds an antigen that matches then it becomes ACTIVATED.

189
Q

What do Plasma Cells do?

A

They create and secrete free antibodies into the plasma.

the antibodies bind with the invading antigen

190
Q

What do the antibodies released by a plasma cell do?

A

1) tags the invader to alert his big bro, macrophage

2) Neutralizes the invader by clumping them together (now you’re a clump haha)

3) Stimulates inflammation

191
Q

An initial response is called what?

A

the primary immune response

192
Q

A stronger and quicker reaction happens if an invader ever comes back… what’s that called?

A

secondary immune response

193
Q

What do Memory B cells do?

A
  • they act as immunological memory.
  • after an infection, memory B cells stay in the blood for months / years to fight that mother fucker if he ever comes back.
194
Q

if a pathogen returns…. is an immune response weaker or greater

A

GREATER

  • memory B cells got your back.
195
Q

A specific antigen on a pathogen is detected by what kinda cell?

A

A B-cell

196
Q

what kind of an immune response is it when Memory B cells remain and circulate in the blood?

A

primary immune response

197
Q

if a pathogen returns to the body, the memory B cells activate and initiate a stronger and quicker production of plasma cells… what kind of an immune response is that?

A

secondary immune response

198
Q

what kind of an immune response are vaccines?

A

primary

  • they deliver a pathogen specific antigen to the body….

stimulates B cells..

if body is exposed to pathogen later then your memory B cells know what’s up

199
Q

vaccines result in heard immunity

not a question.

A

protect the vulnerable and immunodeficient members of our community

200
Q

ok ok…

What are T-cells?

A

a type of lymphocyte that is involved in cell-mediated immune responses.

it targets the infected body cells…

201
Q

How do T-cells become activated?

A

By Antigens!!

infected cells will present the antigen of the pathogen that’s inside of them..

Immature T-cells bind to these cells and become ACTIVATED.

202
Q

What are the 2 cells that Activated T-cells become?

A
  • helper T cells
  • cytotoxic T cells
203
Q

What is the job of helper T-cells

A

they secrete cytokines to activate other lymphocytes…. such as

  • T-cells (for cell-mediated response)
  • B-cells (for humoral response)
204
Q

What do Cytotoxic T-cells do?

also. What is perforin

A

they kill infected cells.

they do this by secreting PEFORIN to destroy the infected cells…

perforin = a protein that makes holes in infected cells plasma membrane.

205
Q

Allergies are an overreaction of the immune response to antigens are called what ____________

A

hypersensitive allergens

206
Q

What are the job of Mast Cells

A

They are sensitized cells that are involved in in allergic responses

they have specific antibodies for an antigen is in the membrane of the mast cell

207
Q

What are histamines?

A

they are a special kind of cytokine.

they cause symptoms of allergies (stuffy nose, sneezing, inflammation)

208
Q

what is an autoimmune disease?

A

its when the immune system turns against the body’s own molecules.

209
Q

An example of an autoimmune disease is insulin-dependant diabetes (Type 1)…

What kind of cell is responsible for this reaction by becoming overactive?

A

T-Cells

they become overactive and destroy insulin-producing cells of pancreas

210
Q

What are immunodeficiency diseases?

A

its when one or more components in the immune system is lacking.

211
Q

what’s the difference between autoimmune and immunodeficiency diseases?

A

autoimmune = immune system turn on body

immunodeficiency = not enough immune system. something missing. cannot do.

212
Q

What is an example of an immune disorder that is caused by an infection?

A

AIDS

or

HIV

213
Q

what does HIV stand for?

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus

214
Q

What type of cells get infected/destroyed when HIV enters the body?

A

T-cells

no T-cells… no immune responses

215
Q

If left untreated…. HIV turns to WHAAAATTTT

A

AIDS

216
Q

what does AIDS stand for?

A

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

217
Q

What is epithelial tissue?

A

-covers all body surfaces, cavities, hollow organs, and glands
-made of tightly packed epithelial cells

218
Q

What are the different shapes of epithelial cells? What is each shape good for?

A

-squamous - fried egg - useful for diffusion
-cuboidal - cube - good for secretion
-columnar - rectangles/columns - great for absorption

219
Q

What are 5 different functions of epithelial cells + an example of where they’re found

A
  • Protection (e.g., skin)
  • Sensation (e.g., receptors)
  • Absorption (e.g. intestines)
  • Secretion (e.g., kidneys)
  • Diffusion (e.g., capillaries)
220
Q

What is the difference between simple and stratified cells?

A

Simple: single layered, easy for diffusion/absorption
Stratified: many layers, used for protection

221
Q

Where is connective tissue found? What is it for? What is it made of?

A

-found between other tissue types
-used to anchor, cushion, and support
-made of specialized CT cells and their secreted extracellular matrix

222
Q

what are the organizational units of biology (atoms, ect)

A

atoms
molecules
macromolecules
organelles
cells
tissues
organs
organ systems
multicellular organisms

223
Q

What is an extracellular matrix? (What does it consist of?)

A

-Consists of protein fibers (collagen, elastin) WITHIN a ground substance (liquid, gel, solid)
-Secreted from connective tissue (CT) cells

224
Q

what are independent, dependant, and control variables?

A

independant = the variable being manipulated

dependant = the variable being measured

control = variables that remain consistent across conditions

225
Q

What 2 types are connective tissues organized into?

A

Proper and specialized
-based on types of fibers and ground substance present

226
Q

what kind of science are correlations?

A

observation based science

(observing the relationship between two variables)

227
Q

what kind of science do we utilize to claim causation?

A

hypothesis based science

(manipulating one variable to see the effect on another)

228
Q

What are the two subtypes of proper connective tissues?
*if you need a visual chart, see slide 11 of Histology lecture slides

A

Loose and dense

229
Q

WHat are the three subtypes of specialized connective tissue?
*if you need a visual chart, see slide 11 of Histology lecture slides

A

Bone, blood, cartilage

230
Q

What are the three kinds of loose and dense
proper connective tissues (like three for each)

A

Loose:
-areolar
-reticular
-adipose

Dense:
-regular
-elastic
-irregular

231
Q

what are ionic bonds?

are they polar or non polar?

A

when one atom donates its electron(s) to another atom

they non polar

both fill up their valence electrons.. both are doing them a favour

they don’t wanna share their circle is already full

232
Q

What is the form and function of loose proper connective tissues?

A
  • Primarily ground substance with fewer fibers
    -cushion and insulate organs they are found in
233
Q

what are covalent bonds?

polar or non polar?

A

hella strong.

happen when one atom shares its electron with another.

can be polar or non polar

234
Q

What is the form and function of dense proper connective tissue?

A

-primarily protein fibers (elastin or collagen)
-give strength and support

235
Q

if the electrons are equally shared in a covalent bond, would it be polar or non polar? what would its charge be?

A

non-polar

neutral.

236
Q

if the sharing of electrons in a covalent bond is unequal what would it be? polar or non polar? what would the charge be?

A

polar.

slight charge

237
Q

What is the form and function fo specialized connective tissue?

A

-can be supportive (cartilage and bone)
-cartilage and bine have strong mineralized ground substances and the cells sit in small cavities within it
-found in the matrix for added support

238
Q

when a positively charged (H+) interacts with a negatively charged atom… what’s it called?

A

a hydrogen bond

239
Q

are hydrogen bonds weak?

A

hell ya

240
Q

What are the three kinds of cartilage? What are they like?

A

Hyaline - most common, flexible yet strong
Elastic - contains elastic fibers that give it elasticity
Fibrous - contains collagen fibers, these make it compressible

241
Q

why is water an excellent solvent?

A

water is polar so it will interact with and dissolve other charged particles.

solvent = dissolving agent

242
Q

Where can you find hyaline cartilage?

A

Trachea

243
Q

what is a solute?

A

dissolved substances

244
Q

what’s a solution?

A

solvent + solutes

245
Q

Tell me about bone. What are the two kinds? where are they found?

A

-its the hardest connective tissue
-provides protection and support
-matrix is mineralized and filled with collages fibers

Spongy bone: found on the inside of our bones
Compact bone: found on the surface of our bones

246
Q

do hydrophilic particles dissolve in water easily?

A

yes, they have partial charges and will readily form hydrogen bonds and dissolve in the water

247
Q

do hydrophobic molecules dissolve in water easy?

A

hell no boi..

those mother fuckers got non-polar covalent bonds. they don’t want anything do do with your hydrogen bonds. silly bitch.

248
Q

what is a neutral ph?

A

same amount of H+ and OH- in a solution.

pH of 7

249
Q

Is bone found in Nasal Chonchae?

A

Yes

250
Q

what are acids?

A

Lots of H+ in a solution

low pH (e.g. 1, 2, 3)

251
Q

what are bases?

A

lots of OH- in a solutions

high pH (e.g. 12,13,14)

252
Q

pH goes _______ when H+ goes up

A

down

253
Q

pH goes _______ when H+ is low

A

up

254
Q

Tell me about fluid connective tissues: what kinds of ground substances? What are they meant for? What are two kinds?

A

-have liquid ground substances and few fibers
-meant for TRANSPORT of cells and molecules
-Blood and lymph are liquid CT (primary component of matrix is water)

255
Q

what is a dehydration reaction?

A

–> builds polymers (longer polymer)

take 2 small polymers and smush em together.

  • 2 functional groups (OH an H) are removed from the smaller subunits, forcing them to covalently link.

water is a product of a dehydration reaction

256
Q

What is muscle tissue? What is it for? What are the tree major types?

A
  • Muscle tissue consists of bundles of long, thin muscle cells that can contract, allowing for movement of/within organs
  • Muscle cells are excitable (by hormones and neurons), extensible (can stretch), elastic (can recoil), and contractile (can shorten)
  • Three major types of muscle tissue: skeletal, smooth, and cardiac (differ in their structure and excitability)
257
Q

what is hydrolysis?

A
  • breaks polymers.
  • water is used to break the covalent bonds between the linked subunits.
  • OH and H are added as functional groups.
  • take 1 big thing… break it into 2 babies (1 gets the H, the other gets the OH)
258
Q

Give a brief description of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle

A
  • Skeletal muscle connects to bones, voluntarily contracts
    -Is striated (protein fibers aligned and thus strong)
  • Smooth muscle is found in hollow organs, involuntary
  • Lacks striations
  • Cardiac muscle is only found in the heart, involuntary
  • Striated
    -Intercalated discs allow for synchronized contraction
259
Q

what are the four major classes of macromolecules?

A
  • lipids
  • carbohydrates
  • nucleic acids
  • proteins
260
Q

What type of tissue does the esophagus have?

A

Smooth muscle

261
Q

what are the subunits of lipids?

A

fatty acids

262
Q

what are the subunits of carbohydrates?

A

monosaccharides

263
Q

what are the subunits of nucleic acids?

A

nucleotides

264
Q

what are the subunits of proteins?

A

amino acids

265
Q

What are the 4 polysaccharides?

where are they found? what is their purpose?

A

starch - plant - energy
cellulose - plant - structure

glycogen - animal - energy
chiten - animal - structure

266
Q

when is a fat considered saturated?

A

when it has the maximum number of hydrogens on each carbon atom

she full hoe.

solid at room temp

267
Q

when is a fat considered unsaturated?

A
  • has fewer than the maximum number of hydrogens on each carbon.
  • has a double bond..
  • double bonds create kinks.
  • liquid at room temp
268
Q

what are trans fats?

A

when one hydrogen atom is opposite to another…

  • one on either side.
  • makes it so the molecule is rigid and has to stay straight.
  • not found in nature.
  • unhealthy af.
269
Q

What does nervous tissue do? What is it made up of?

A
  • Responsible for sending electric SIGNALS to and from organs by creating electrochemical gradients
  • Nervous tissue is made up of neurons (nerve cells) and their support cells (e.g., glial cells)
  • Most tissue types have nervous tissue within them
270
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

The body’s ability to stay within tolerable ranges
* Our bodies require a balance for certain variables (e.g. temperature, pH, blood pressure) to function properly
* If an internal or external stimulus pushes us out of this range, we have various responses that will bring us back

271
Q

What are examples of healthy norms of some of the systems of the body?

A

Blood glucose(0.1%), body temp(37 degrees), blood pH (7.35-7.45)

272
Q

What is Negative feedback?

A

Reversing a stimulus
- A change in the normal range of a variable is called a stimulus (e.g., value is too low or too high)
- The stimulus is then detected by a specific receptor, or sensor (e.g., chemoreceptor, mechanoreceptor)
- Receptor sends signal to “control center” (e.g., central nervous system, brain)
- Effector enacts change to remove stimulus (i.e., brings value back into range)

273
Q

What is an example of negative feedback?

A

Blood sugar:
Stimulus: rising blood glucose level by eating
-high blood glucose is detected by insulin-secreting cells of pancreas
-pancreas secretes the hormone insulin causing liver cells to take up glucose and store it as glycogen
-most body cells also take up more glucose
-as body cells take up blood glucose, glucose levels in the blood decline, and insulin release stops (negative feedback)
REPEAT

274
Q

How is nutrition linked to homeostasis?

A

Nutrition maintains glucose levels:
* Cells in our body break glucose down in cellular respiration to create ATP
* Cells need a constantly supply of glucose to make ATP for cellular processes

275
Q

What is a Calorie? How many do humans need on average per day?

A

Energy stored in food
-A Calorie refers to the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1kg of water by 1°C
-On average, humans need 1500-2000 Calories per day to complete daily activities

276
Q

How do nutrients relate to calories?

A
  • Proteins and carbohydrates provide roughly 4Cal/g
  • Lipids are more “Calorie-dense”; they provide roughly 9Cal/g
  • You can roughly estimate the proportion of Calories coming from each nutrient when looking at a nutrition label
277
Q

What is a nutrient?

A

Macromolecules that we need to consume and absorb that will act as building materials for our cells and tissues
* As our cells divide and grow and our tissues build and repair, building materials are required by our cells

278
Q

What are the 6 major nutrients a human needs to consume?

A

1.Carbohydrates
2.Lipids
3.Proteins
4.Minerals
5.Vitamins
6.Water
*see slide 19 of 18A - Homeostasis and Nutrition lecture slides for a full chart of these + examples (I also made cards for it)

279
Q

What are molecular examples, food examples, and some cellular functions for Carbohydrates?

A

Molecular: Monosaccharides - fructose + glucose, Polysaccharides - cellulose, glycogen, starch
Food: pasta, potatoes, rice, veggies + fruit
Cellular functions: short-term energy - structural components

280
Q

What are molecular examples, food examples, and some cellular functions for Lipids?

A

Molecular: Monomer - omega 3 fatty acids, Polymer - cholesterol
Food: Olive oil, butter, avocado, nuts, dairy, eggs
Cellular functions: plasma membranes - insulate neurons, cushion organs. Long term energy storage - some hormones

281
Q

What are molecular examples, food examples, and some cellular functions for Proteins?

A

Molecular: Polymers - catalase, hemoglobin, neuropeptides
Food: lentils, legumes steak, salmon
Cellular functions: enzymes - cellular structures, chemical signalling

282
Q

What are molecular examples, food examples, and some cellular functions for Minerals?

A

Molecular: calcium, iron
Food: leafy greens, dairy products
Cellular functions: co-enzymes, structure of extracellular matrix (e.g. calcium in bones, iron in blood cells)

283
Q

What are molecular examples, food examples, and some cellular functions for Vitamins?

A

Molecular: folic acid, vitamin D
Food: leafy greens, fruits
Cellular functions: co-enzymes, signalling molecules, hormones

284
Q

What are molecular examples, food examples, and some cellular functions for Water?

A

Molecular: H2O
Food: WATER!
Cellular functions: cytoplasm of cells, extracellular matrix, intestinal fluid

285
Q

Which vitamins are water-soluble and fat-soluble?

A

Fat-soluble: Vit A, D, E, K
Water-soluble: Vit Bs, C

286
Q

What does amylase do?

A
  • Amylase breaks down complex carbohydrates into their simple sugar monomers
  • Amylase hydrolyses the bonds between glucose molecules
  • Amylase is produced by salivary glands and pancreas
287
Q

What does protease do?

A
  • Proteases break down proteins into their amino acid monomers
  • Proteases hydrolyze the peptide bonds between amino acids
  • Pepsin is found in the stomach
  • Trypsin is released by pancreas into small intestines
288
Q

What does lipase do?

A
  • Lipases break down lipids into fatty acids
  • Lipases are released by pancreas into small intestines
  • Note: bile released from gallbladder into intestines acts as an emulsifier; breaks large fat globules into smaller emulsion droplets for lipases to work more easily
289
Q

What are the three major digestive enzymes in the body?

A

Amylase, protease, lipase

290
Q

What is the digestive system?

A

An organ system that aids in the homeostasis of energy and nutrient content in the body

291
Q

What are the 5 major purposes of the digestive system?

A
  1. Ingest food
  2. Digest food
  3. Absorb nutrients and energy
  4. Compact undigested materials
  5. Excrete solid waste
292
Q

What is physical and chemical digestion?

A

Physical: the mechanical break down of larger molecules
- no chemical changes
Chemical: the chemical breakdown of polymers into their absorbable monomers
-enzymes and acids of the body are responsible for chemical digestion

293
Q

Where does the digestive tract begin? List important organs and functions

A

The mouth
* Important organs of the mouth:
-Teeth
-Salivary glands
-Tongue
* Functions of the mouth:
-Ingestion of food
-Physical digestion
-Chemical digestion

294
Q

Explain salivary glands for chemical digestion

A
  • Three pairs of salivary glands produce saliva (spit) which acts as lubricant and chemical digester for food
  • Saliva contains the enzyme amylase
  • Not only does this break down complex carbs into simple sugars, it also can destroys cell walls of bacteria!
295
Q

What does the tongue do for digestion?

A
  • Your tongue is a muscular organ that shapes food and pushes it back for swallowing
  • When you swallow, soft palate and uvula lift, preventing food (now called bolus) from entering nasal cavity
  • Instead, food travels down into pharynx
296
Q

Explain swallowing: Pharynx to Esophagus

A
  • Your pharynx also opens to larynx (respiratory system)
  • The epiglottis is a small cartilaginous flap that folds over the larynx as a reflex when you swallow, preventing the entrance of bolus into airway
  • Bolus passes over epiglottis and down into esophagus when you swallow
297
Q

Describe the esophagus sending food to the stomach

A
  • The esophagus is a thin muscular
    tube lined with mucus
  • After swallowing, bolus enters the
    esophagus via an upper esophageal
    sphincter
  • The smooth muscle of the
    esophagus contracts in waves
    (peristalsis) towards the stomach
  • No digestion occurs in esophagus
298
Q

Describe what happens in the stomach

A

Chemical and physical digestion
* Stomach is a muscular hollow organ
* Bolus enters stomach via cardiac sphincter from esophagus
* Stomach then secretes gastric juices:
- Protective and lubricating mucus
- HCl acid (pH= of 2!)
- Pepsin (breaks proteins into polypeptides)
* Function of stomach is temporary
storage of food, and further physical
and chemical digestion
* Churns bolus and gastric juices into
a thick soup called chyme

299
Q

What are the two stomach sphincters?

A
  • Cardiac sphincter sits between esophagus
    and stomach
  • Pyloric sphincter sits between stomach and small intestine
300
Q

Describe what the small intestine does

A
  • Small intestine is a long and narrow muscular tube that connects the stomach to the large intestine
  • Major organ for chemical digestion and absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream
  • Made of three sections
  • Duodenum
  • Jejunum
  • Ileum
301
Q

What are accessory organs? Which organs are these?

A

Organs that food/bolus/chime/feces
do not pass through
* Liver secretes bile, which is stored in gallbladder
- Bile emulsifies (physically break down) fats
* Pancreas secretes pancreatic juices
- Buffer neutralizes stomach acids
- Enzymes to aids in digestion (lipases, trypsin, amylases)
* All secrete into the duodenum for final digestion

302
Q

What happens in the jejunum?

A

The bulk of absorption
* In the jejunum, the inner lining is highly specialized to increase absorption rate
- Small finger-like projections of inner lining are called villi
- Small plasma membrane projections on cells called microvilli
* These structures increase surface area, and thus increase capacity for absorption

303
Q

What happens on the large intestine?

A

Compaction
* The ileum of the small intestine leads to the large intestine
* Large intestine is a short, wide muscular hollow tube
* Large intestine consists of cecum, colon, rectum, and anus
* Major functions:
- Water reabsorption (compaction)
- Bacterial symbiosis
- Storage of fecal matter

304
Q

What happens in the colon?

A
  • The colon is the main portion of large intestine
  • Reabsorbs water lost from secretions (salivary glands, stomach, etc)
  • Final waste product is formed (feces)
  • Contains gut bacteria that make vitamins and gasses
305
Q

What are the 4 regions of the large intestine?

A
  • Ascending colon
  • Transverse colon
  • Descending colon
  • Sigmoid colon
306
Q

What are the last 2 parts of the large intestine?

A
  • Rectum forms last 15 cm (6 inches) of large intestine
  • Stores feces until elimination
  • Anus consists of two sphincters (external and internal)
  • Regulates opening of rectum for defecation
  • External sphincter is skeletal muscle (neurological control)
307
Q

Overview of the digestive system:

A

Ingestion:
-food into mouth

Digestion:
-Mechanical digestion - chewing in mouth, churning in stomach
-Chemical digestion - saliva in mouth, acid and pepsin in stomach, enzymes in small intestine

Absorption:
- nutrients and water in small intestine
- water in large intestine

Elimination:
- feces formed in large intestine
-elimination from anus

308
Q

compare and contrast prokaryotic cells

A

both: cells (hehe)
- cell membrane
- DNA
- ribsomes
-cytoplasm

Prokaryotic: Small, simple
- no nucleus (have nucleiod space)
- lack complex organelles
- have capsule
- have pili
- have flagellum

Eukaryotic cells: larger more complex cells
- have nucleus
- multi/ or unicellular
- have plasma membrane
- have microvilli
- have complex organelle

309
Q

structure and function of Flagella?

A

Structure: long protein structure on the end of a cell

Fuction: propels cells with whip like motion

310
Q

structure and function of cilia

A

structure: short protein fibres along plasma membrane

Function: coordinated movements to propel cell.
- also used for sensing environment (my cilia are tingling)

311
Q

function of pili

A

attachment

they sticky fuckers

312
Q

structure and function of microvilli

A

structure: projections off of the plasma membrane

function: increase surface area to facilitate absorption of extra cellular materials.

313
Q

what is the extracellular matrix?

A

made up of recreated ground substance (can be liquid, gel like or solid) AND protein fibres…

role: holds cells together and allows for communication between cells (bring bring.. hello… Patricia… is that you?)

314
Q

what are the macromolecules that make up the fluid mosaic phospholipid bilayer?

A
  • phospholipids
  • proteins
  • carbohydrates
  • cholesterol
315
Q

what is the role of phospholipids int he phospholipid bilayer

A
  • make up the majority of the bilayer
  • phospholipids = amphipathic
  • heads = polar (point out)
  • tails = non- polar (point in)
  • heads interact with aqueous fluid inside and outside the cell.
316
Q

what is the role of proteins in the phospholipid bilayer?

A
  • attach to the inside, outside, or are embedded within the membrane
  • wide range of functions: transport (active and passive) enzymatic activity, anchorage, transduction signals, receptors, ect.
317
Q

what are the roles of carbohydrates In the phospholipid bilayer?

A
  • they on the exterior surface of the membrane
  • they are specialized cites for cell-cell recognition
318
Q

what is the role of cholesterol in the membrane?

A
  • embedded in the membrane. lil globs
  • regulates the fluidity of the membrane / keeps it from freezing in the winter
319
Q

the cell membrane is semi-permeable.. what kinds of particles have an easier time passing through.. why?

A
  • lipid-soluble and non polar materials ( fat soluble vitamins, hormones, drugs) go through easy…
    why? idk cause its got a non-polar inside?
  • polar molecules and ions require HELP to travel through.
320
Q

what is osmosis?

A

the diffusion of water down its concentration gradient across a plasma membrane

  • water moves from an area of low solute to an area of high solute
321
Q

what is hypertonicity?

A

higher concentration of solute

322
Q

what is hypotonicity?

A

lower concentration of solute

323
Q

what is isotonicity?

A

equal concentration of solute

324
Q

what would happen if you place a red blood cell in salt water in terms of tonicity?

what would the cell be in terms of tonicity?
what would the salt water be?

A

water would go down its connotation gradient, leave the cell, and the cell would shrink.

cell = hypotonic
salt water = hypertonic

325
Q

what is phagocytosis?

A

a form of active transport / Endocytosis

cell membrane engulfs large particles… eats them

  • cell membrane folds around the parcel, forms a pocket, breaks off… the new vesicle with the particle in it enters the cells.
326
Q

what is the active site of an enzyme?

what would happen to make the active site not work anymore

A

the place that a substrate binds

denatured enzymes can’t bind to substrates

if the bonds in a protein are broke too severely the protein denatures

327
Q

what do enzymes do?

A

they are proteins that catalyze biochemical reactions by LOWERING THE ACTIVATION ENERGY REQUIRED.

328
Q

what are substrates?

A

chemical reactants that bind to the enzymes active site.

329
Q

what is the cellular respiration equation?

what’s the reactants, what are the products

A

C6 H12 O6 + 6O2 —————> 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP

330
Q

What is ATP? How does it store energy?

A
  • the “energy currency” of the cell and its used for various cellular processes
  • stores energy between the second and third phosphate. high energy bond, easy to break.
331
Q

What is the process called where H+ are pushed into the inter membrane space?

A

the electron transport chain

332
Q

how does the electron transport chain work?

A

NADH and FADH2 pass their electrons to the protein channels.

electrons loose energy when the get passed..

but the energy is used to ACTIVELY TRANSPORT H+ into the inter membrane space… creates a gradient.

OXYGEN is the terminal acceptor at the end of the gradient.
–> oxygen pulls the electrons with its negative charge.

333
Q

how does the electron transport chain lead to ATP formation?

A

H+ wants to passively move back to the matrix

ATP synthase is an enzyme embedded on the inner membrane that allows the H+ to pass.

when H+ travels through ATP synthase, ATP is created.

gain 28 ATP from this step

334
Q

development of sperm cells:

A

1 diploid spermatocyte will divide equally into four haploid spermatids

all four spermatids may develop into sperm cells…

this process occurs continuously in the testes from puberty

335
Q

development of egg cells:

A

one diploid oocyte will only give rise to 1 viable haploid egg cell.

in meiosis 1, one haploid cell will get most of the cytoplasm and organelles..

meiosis 1 is paused in early prophase following embryonic development, doesn’t continue until puberty

336
Q

similarities and differences between sperm and egg development?

A
337
Q

WHat type of cells are capillaries made of?

A

Capillaries are made of a single layer of simple squamous (for simple diffusion)

338
Q

What is created during cellular respiration?

A

ATP

339
Q

What does cellular respiration require to work?

A

Glucose and O2

340
Q

What are the 2 major functional divisions of the respiratory system?

A

1) Conducting division: places where air is warmed and moistened and cleaned (nose, pharynx, larynx trachea, bronchus)

2) Respiratory division: places where gas exchange happen (alveoli, aveolar ducts, respiratory bronchioles)

341
Q

What are the 2 major structural divisions of the respiratory system?

A

1) Upper respiratory tract: head/ neck. (nasal cavity, nose, mouth, pharynx, larynx)

2) Lower respiratory tract: chest, thorax. (trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, lungs, diaphragm)

342
Q

what do the nasal conchae do?

A

warm, moisten, turbulate

343
Q

What is the urinary system?

A
  • The urinary system is a collection of organs that filter blood and excrete liquid waste from the body
344
Q

What is osmoregulation on the urinary system?

A
  • This system maintains a balanced chemical
    concentration in the blood as well as pH/electrolyte balance
345
Q

What four major organs make up the urinary system?

A
  • Kidneys (left and right) which filter blood
  • Ureters which send liquid waste away from kidneys
  • Bladder which stores liquid waste
  • Urethra which sends liquid waste out of body
346
Q

What are the four main sections of the kidney?

A
  • Kidneys have external renal capsule
  • Blood/urine will travel from kidney via hilum
  • Outer layer of kidney is renal cortex
  • Inner layer is renal medulla
347
Q

Where does blood enter the kidneys from?

A

Renal artery

348
Q

Describe how blood flows through the kidneys (simple version)

A
  • Blood enters the kidney via the renal artery
  • Blood then travels up renal columns of renal medulla
  • Blood will be filtered in renal cortex
  • Cleaned blood will exit via renal vein
349
Q

Where does urine exit the kidney?

A

Ureter

350
Q

What are nephrons? Where are they found?

A
  • Nephrons are primarily found in the renal cortex
  • Nephrons are capsules and tubes that filter blood and modify that filtrate before excreting it as urine
351
Q

Where does filtration of blood occur?

A

At the glomerulus
* When blood enters the glomerulus, many of its liquid components diffuse into the Bowman’s capsule
* Large components like blood cells are proteins remain in blood, cannot diffuse through
* Smaller components like nutrients, ions, water, toxins, and waste are diffused into the capsule

352
Q

What is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule?

A

Amino acids, glucose, sodium

353
Q

What happens in the loop of henle? what happens in each limb? What surrounds it?

A

Osmolarity - solute concentration of urine is balanced
* Descending limb reabsorbs water
* Ascending limb reabsorbs salts
* Vasa recta capillaries surround loop of Henle

354
Q

What happens in the distal convoluted tubule?

A

Na+ and Cl- will be conditionally reabsorbed, while other substances such as K+ are actively secreted from peritubular capillaries into urine

355
Q

What does the collecting duct do?

A

Collecting ducts will collect urine from multiple
nephrons and may further reabsorb water

356
Q

What signals nephrons to reabsorb more water when dehydrated? (homeostasis)

A

Antidiuretic hormone (also called vasopressin)

357
Q

What are the three major functions of nephrons?

A
  • Filtration:
  • Blood filtered into Bowman’s Capsule from glomerulus
  • Reabsorption:
  • Selective transfer of water and valuable solutes back into the blood at PCT, Loop of Henle, DCT, and collecting duct
  • Secretion:
  • Waste from blood secreted into nephrons at DCT
358
Q

What do ureters use to push urine into the bladder? Are they narrow or wide?

A

They use peristalsis, they’re narrow

359
Q

What sphincter holds urine in the bladder? What sphincter do humans relax to let urine out of the body?

A

The internal urethral sphincter (smothe muscle)
External urethral sphincter

360
Q

What is the difference between the female and male urethra?

A
  • Male urethra conducts both urine and semen (sperm cells and fluid from reproductive system)
  • Female urethra only conducts urine and is much shorter
361
Q

** make sure you can draw and label a kidney and a nephron! **

A

thats it :)

362
Q

How does the digestive system and respiratory system play a role in cellular respiration?

A
  • Cellular respiration will create ATP, but requires glucose and O2
  • The digestive system delivers glucose, while the respiratory system exchanges O2 and CO2 with the environment
363
Q

What are the two functional divisions of the respiratory system?

A
  • Conducting division:
  • Consists of structures that warm, humidify, and clean the air
  • Respiratory division:
  • Structures that allow for gas exchange
364
Q

What are the two structural divisions of the respiratory system?

A
  • Upper respiratory tract:
  • Structures in the head/neck
  • Lower respiratory tract:
  • Structures in the chest/thorax
365
Q

What does the nasal cavity do?

A

It conditions air
- Nasal cavity is lined with mucous
- Nasal cavity has bony bumps called conchae
- Warms, moistens, and filters air

366
Q

______ connects the nasal cavity with _______

A

Pharynx, Larynx

367
Q

What does the larynx do?

A
  • Larynx is the “voice box” of the respiratory system
  • Strong cartilage keeps it open
368
Q

What/where is the epiglottis?

A

Sits at the top of the larynx and folds down to prevent ingested food/water from entering

369
Q

What do vocal cords do?

A

open and close to produce tones (sound)

370
Q

Tell me about the trachea

A
  • Larynx leads to trachea, now part of lower respiratory tract
  • Trachea is ventral to esophagus
  • Trachea is composed of several C-shaped cartilaginous rings to maintain its shape
  • Trachealis muscle can contract to constrict flow and increase pressure
371
Q

What is the purpose of the lining of the trachea being ciliated and producing mucus?

A

Together, these structures keep the respiratory tract clean, while warming and moistening the air

372
Q

What do the bronchi do? List the steps to get to the alveoli.

A

They send air to the lungs
* Air travels down trachea until trachea splits into left and right PRIMARY BRONCHI
* Each primary bronchi enters one lung (left and right)
* Bronchi then branch into SECONDARY BRONCHI, then further branch to TERTIARY BRONCHI, etc.
* These branches branch into even smaller BRONCHIOLES, which lead to TERMINAL BRONCHIOLES

373
Q

Tell me about alvioli

A
  • At the end of terminal bronchioles are stacks of alveoli (singular- alveolus)
  • Alveoli are the respiratory surfaces
  • They are small sac like structures that allow for simple diffusion of gases between blood and the air (sites of external respiration)
  • O2 is taken in
  • CO2 is excreted
374
Q

What is the diaphragm? What does it do?

A

-its a dome-shaped skeletal muscle that separates chest and abdomen and aids in breathing
Inhalation = diaphragm contracts down, chest cavity expands
Exhalation = diaphragm relaxes upward, chest cavity compresses

375
Q

What are chemoreceptors? How do they relate to homeostasis?

A
  • Chemoreceptors in arteries check CO2 levels
  • If CO2 levels are high, send signals to brainstem
  • Brainstem responds by sending signals to
    diaphragm to speed up contraction rate
  • Increased breathing rate results in lower CO2 levels
376
Q

How does the circulatory system transport O2?

A
  • Respiratory system takes in O2 and expels CO2
  • Circulatory system shuttles these gases between lungs and body’s cells via blood
377
Q

How does hemoglobin help stabilize oxygen molecules?

A

Each hemoglobin protein contains 4 heme subunits, each with their own iron atoms, which help stabilize oxygen molecules for transportation

378
Q

What is internal respiration?

A

Gas exchange with cells
* Once O2 reaches cells in need, it will diffuse through their plasma membranes
* Excess CO2 will diffuse out of cells

379
Q

*** be able to draw the upper and lower respiratory tracts, noting key structures and their functions

A

:)

380
Q

what are the two steps of protein synthesis?

A
  • transcription
  • translation
381
Q

what happens in transcription? where does transcription take place?

A
  • a particular gene in the DNA code gets TRANSCRIBED into mRNA
  • process happens in the nucleus… mRNA then leaves the nucleus.

three steps:
1) initiation
2) elongation
3) termination

382
Q

1st step of TRANSCRIPTION:

what is initiation?

what enzymes are involved?

A
  • RNA polymerase binds to the gene at the promoter region
  • RNA polymerase pulls aparts the DNA strand
383
Q

2nd step of TRANSCRIPTION:

what is elongation?

A
  • RNA polymerase creates the mRNA template strand in a 5’ to 3’ direction from the DNA template
384
Q

3rd step of TRANSCRIPTION:

What is termination?

A

when the gene is fully transcribed, RNA polymerase will reach the genes TERMINATOR REGION.

  • repeating nucleotides at the terminating region will cause RNA polymerase to disasociate and fall off.
385
Q

so what is the major enzyme involved in the transcription step of protein synthesis?

A

RNA polymerase

386
Q

what are the 4 ways that mRNA is modified before leacing the nucleus?

A
  1. mRNA stabelizing proteins will be added
  2. 5’ recognition caps added to the 5’ end
  3. Poly-A tails will be added to the 3’ end
  4. mRNA is spliced. (keep exons, leave introns)
387
Q

What are variant and invariant traits?

A
  • Invariant traits are the same in all individuals of a species
  • E.g., all humans have two eyes, same bones, etc.
  • Variable traits may differ among individuals
  • E.g., humans have different eye colours, height, etc.
388
Q

where does mRNA go after it leaves the nucleus?

A

the ribosome’s baby

389
Q

what step of protein sysnthesis happens at the ribosomes?

A

translation

390
Q

what happens in translation?

what are the 3 steps

A
  • mRNA bases (read in groups of 3 called CODONS) are translated into amino acids.
  • creates polypeptide chains
  1. initiation
  2. elongation
  3. termination
391
Q

steps of TRANSLATION:

what is initiation?

A
  • start codon is read by ribosomal subunit.
392
Q

What is incomplete dominance?

A
  • Some genes express incomplete dominance, where neither allele is dominant
  • The alleles usually both written as capital letters
  • A heterozygote will express a
    blended intermediate phenotype
  • Cross between two heterozygotes will give genotypic and phenotypic ratio of 1:2:1

Example: Red flower + white flower become pink flower
*If RR codes for red flowers and WW codes for white flowers, RW is the intermediate phenotype of pink flowers

393
Q

steps of TRANSLATION:

what is elongation?

A
  • tRNA brings specific amino acids to the ribosome that match with the codon from the mRNA
  • tRNA has a anticodon, which reads the codon from the mRNA, that’s how it knows what amino acids to bring.
  • amino acids are added to form a polypeptide chain
394
Q

steps of TRANSLATION:

what is termination?

A
  • elongation continues until a stop codon is read.

-completed polypeptide is freed and ribosome split back into subunits

395
Q

what are mutations?

A

mutations are changes in the genetic code that may or may not lead to changes in the proteins that the gene typically codes for.

396
Q

What is co-dominance?

A

When both alleles are dominant and will be expressed
-both alleles are written as capital letters, or superscript letters on a capitol letter
-a heterozygote will express both alleles

Example: Red flower + white flower + flower that shows red and white parts

397
Q

What are sex-linked genes?

A

genes that are only found on the X chromosome

Biology 103 (5 decks)

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