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Ethernet Fundamentals Flashcards

1
Q

What type of cable does Ethernet use?

A

Twisted pair cables

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2
Q

What type of cable is 10BASE-T?

A

Unshielded twisted pair

Cat 3

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3
Q

What is the maximum speed and distance of 10BASE-T cable?

A

Maximum speed: 10 Mbps

Maximum distance: 100 metres

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4
Q

What type of device access?

  • Very organized and orderly
  • Need an electronic token to transmit
  • Example: Token Ring networks
A

Deterministic

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5
Q

What type of device access?

  • Very chaotic
  • Transmit (almost) whenever you want
  • Example: Ethernet networks
A

Contention-based

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6
Q

What type of transmission do Ethernet devices use?

A

Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detect (CSMA/CD)

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7
Q

Carrier sense multiple access/collision detect (CSMA/CD) is used by which type of devices?

A

Ethernet

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8
Q

The following describes which type of tranmission?
- Listen to the wire, verify if it is not busy
- All devices have access at any time
- If two devices transmit at the same time, a collision occurs
> Back off, wait a random time, try again

A

Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detect (CSMA/CD)

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9
Q
  • Comprised of all devices on a shared Ethernet segment (everything on the same cable or hub)
  • Devices operate at half-duplex when connected to a hub (Layer 1 device)
  • Devices must listen before they transmit to avoid collisions when operating as CSMA/CD
A

Collision domains

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10
Q
  • Ethernet switches increase scalability of the network by creating multiple collision domains
  • Each port on a switch is a collision domain, no chance of collisions, and increases speed
  • Switches can operate in full duplex mode
A

Collision domains with switches

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11
Q
  • The measure of how many bits the network can transmit in 1-second (bps)
  • Capacity is determined by the type of cable
A

Bandwidth

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12
Q

What is the bandwidth capacity of Ethernet?

A

10 Mbps

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13
Q

What is the bandwidth capacity of Fast Ethernet?

A

100 Mbps

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14
Q

What is the bandwidth capacity of Gigabit Ethernet?

A

1000 Mbps (1 Gbps)

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15
Q

What is the bandwidth capacity of 10-Gigabit Ethernet?

A

10 Gbps

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16
Q

What is the bandwidth capacity of 100-Gigabit Ethernet?

A

100 Gbps

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17
Q

What is the media type, bandwidth capacity, and distance limitation of 10BASE-T?

A

Media type: Cat 3 or higher
Bandwidth capacity: 10 Mbps
Distance limitation: 100 m

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18
Q

What is the media type, bandwidth capacity, and distance limitation of 100BASE-TX?

A

Media type: Cat 5 or higher
Bandwidth capacity: 100 Mbps
Distance limitation: 100 m

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19
Q

What is the media type, bandwidth capacity, and distance limitation of 1000BASE-TX?

A

Media type: Cat 6 or higher
Bandwidth capacity: 1 Gbps
Distance limitation: 100 m

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20
Q

What is the media type, bandwidth capacity, and distance limitation of 1000BASE-SX?

A

Media type: MMF
Bandwidth capacity: 1 Gbps
Distance limitation: 220 m

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21
Q

What is the media type, bandwidth capacity, and distance limitation of 1000BASE-LX?

A

Media type: MMF, SMF
Bandwidth capacity: 1 Gbps
Distance limitation: MMF - 550m; SMF - 5km

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22
Q

What is the media type, bandwidth capacity, and distance limitation of 1000BASE-ZX?

A

Media type: SMF
Bandwidth capacity: 1 Gbps
Distance limitation: 70 km

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23
Q

What are the primary devices used in networks?

A

Routers, switches

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24
Q
  • Layer 1 device used to connect multiple network devices/workstations
  • Known as multiport repeaters
  • Three basic types: passive, active, smart
A

Hub

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25
Q

What type of hub repeats signal with no amplication?

A

Passive

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26
Q

What type of hub repeats signal with amplification?

A

Active hub

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27
Q

What type of hub is an active hub with enhanced features like SNMP?

A

Smart hub

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28
Q
  • Hubs (layer 1) were used to connect multiple network segments together
  • Each LAN segment becomes a separate _______
A

Collision domain

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29
Q
  • Analyzes source MAC address in frames entering the bridge and populate an internal MAC address table
  • Makes intelligent forwarding decisions based on destination MAC address in the frames
A

Bridge

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30
Q
  • Layer 2 device used to connect multiple network segments together
  • Essential a multiport bridge
  • Learns MAC addresses and make forwarding decisions based on them
  • Analyzes source MAC addresses in frames entering
  • Populates an internal MAC address table based on them
A

Switch

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31
Q
  • Each port represents an individual collision domain

- All ports belong to the same broadcast domain

A

Layer 2 switch

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32
Q
  • Layer 1 device used to connect multiple network devices/workstations
  • Known as hubs
  • Three basic types: passive, active, smart
A

Multiport repeater

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33
Q
  • Layer 3 device used to connect multiple networks together
  • Makes forwarding decisions based on logical network address information
    > Such as using IP addresses (IPv4 or IPv6)
  • Typically more feature rich and support a broader range of interface types than multilayer switches
  • Each port is a separate collision domain
  • Each port is a separate broadcast domain
A

Router

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34
Q
  • Layer 3 device used to connect multiple network segments together
  • Can make Layer 3 routing decisions and interconnect entire networks (like a router), not just network segments (like a switch)
A

Layer 3 switch

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35
Q

How many possible collision domains, broadcast domains, and which layer of the OSI for hubs?

A

Possible collision domains: 1
Possible broadcast domains: 1
OSI Layer: 1

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36
Q

How many possible collision domains, broadcast domains, and which layer of the OSI for bridges?

A

Possible collision domains: 1 per port
Possible broadcast domains: 1
OSI Layer: 2

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37
Q

How many possible collision domains, broadcast domains, and which layer of the OSI for switches?

A

Possible collision domains: 1 per port
Possible broadcast domains: 1
OSI Layer: 2

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38
Q

How many possible collision domains, broadcast domains, and which layer of the OSI for multilayer switches?

A

Possible collision domains: 1 per port
Possible broadcast domains: 1 per port
OSI Layer: 3+

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39
Q

How many possible collision domains, broadcast domains, and which layer of the OSI for routers?

A

Possible collision domains: 1 per port
Possible broadcast domains: 1 per port
OSI Layer: 3+

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40
Q

The following are features of what?

  • Features to enhance network performance, redundancy, security, management, flexibility, scalability
  • Common switch features
  • VLANs
  • Trunking
  • Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
  • Link aggregation
  • Power over Ethernet
  • Port monitoring
  • User authentication
A

Ethernet Switch features

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41
Q

What is 802.3ad?

A

Link aggregation

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42
Q

What is the standard for link aggregation?

A

802.3ad

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43
Q

Congestion can occur when ports all operate at the same speed. This allows for:

  • Combination of multiple physical connections into a single logical connection
  • Bandwidth available is increased and the congestion is minimized or prevented
A

Link aggregation

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44
Q

What is 802.3af?

A

Power over Ethernet

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45
Q

What is the standard for Power over Ethernet?

A

802.3af

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46
Q

What is 802.3at?

A

Power over Ethernet+

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47
Q

What is the standard for Power over Ethernet+?

A

802.3at

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48
Q
  • Supplies electrical power over Ethernet
    > Requires CAT 5 or higher copper cable
    > Provides up to 15.4 watts of power to device
  • Two device types:
    > Power Sourcing Equipment (PSE)
    > Powered Device (PD)
A

Power over Ethernet

49
Q

Supplies electrical power over Ethernet up to 25.5 W

A

Power over Ethernet+

50
Q

What are the two types of devices with Power over Ethernet?

A
  • Power Sourcing Equipment (PSE)

- Powered Device

51
Q
  • Helpful to analyze packet flows over network
    > Connect a network sniffer to a hub and it sees all
    > Switches require ________ for network analyzer to see all the traffic
A

Port monitoring

52
Q

Makes a copy of all traffic destined for a port and sends it to another port

A

Port mirroring

53
Q

What is 802.1x?

A

User authentication

54
Q

What is the standard for user authentication?

55
Q
  • For security purposes, switches can require ________ before providing access to the network
  • Once this is done, a key is generated and shared between the supplicant (device wanting access) and the switch (authenticator)
  • Server checks the supplicants credentials and creates the key
  • Key is used to encrypt the traffic coming from and being sent to the client
A

User authentication

56
Q

What are the two options to configure and manage switches?

A

SSH and console port

57
Q

Remote administration program that allows you to connect to the switch over the network

58
Q

Allows for local administration of the switch using a separate laptop and a rollover cable (DB-9 to RJ-45)

A

Console port

59
Q
  • Involves keeping all network configuration devices on a separate network
A

Out-of-band (OOB)

60
Q

SSH and console port are two options to _____ and ______ switches

A

Configure and manage

61
Q
  • One type of first-hop redundancy protocol
  • Uses virtual IP and MAC addresses to provide an “active router” and a “standby router”
    > Cisco-proprietary protocol
    > If Active if offline, then standby answers
A

Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)

62
Q

The following are example of what type of protocols?

  • Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)
    > Uses virtual IP and MAC addresses to provide an “active router” and a “standby router”
    > Cisco-proprietary protocol
    > If Active if offline, then standby answers
  • Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)
    > Cisco-proprietary protocol
  • Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
    > Open-source protocol
  • Common Address Redundancy Protocol (CARP)
    > Open-source protocol
A

First-Hop Redundancy protocols

63
Q

What are the two Cisco-proprietary first-hop redundancy protocols?

A

Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)

Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)

64
Q

What are the two open-source first-hop redundancy protocols?

A

Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)

Common Address Redundancy Protocol (CARP)

65
Q

Permits or denies traffic based on a device’s MAC address to improve security

A

MAC filtering

66
Q

Multilayer switches may permit or deny traffic based on IP addresses or application ports

A

Traffic filtering

67
Q

What is 802.1D?

A

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

68
Q

What is the standard for Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

69
Q
  • Permits redundant links between switches and prevents looping of network traffic
  • Availability is measured in 9s
    > Five 9s is 99.999% uptime
    > Only 5 minutes down per year is allowed
  • Without it, MAC address table corruption can occur
  • Shortest Path Bridging (SPB) is used instead of _______ for larger network environments
A

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

70
Q
  • Used instead of STP for larger network environments
A

Shortest Path Bridging (SPB)

71
Q
  • If broadcast frame received by both switches, they can forward frame to each other
  • Multiple copies of frame are forwarded, replicated, and forwarded again until the network is consumed with forwarding many copies of the same initial frame
A

Broadcast storm

72
Q
  • Switch elected to act as a reference point for a spanning tree
  • Switch with the lowest bridge ID (BID) is elected as the ______
  • BID is made up of a priority value and a MAC address (with the lowest value considered root)
  • All ports are designated
A

Root bridge

73
Q
  • All other switches in an STP topology that are not a root bridge
  • Single root port
  • All other ports are non-designated
A

Non-root bridge

74
Q
  • Every non-root bridge has a single ________
  • Port closest to the root bridge in terms of cost
  • If costs are equal, lowest port number is chosen
75
Q
  • Every network segment has a _________
  • Port closest to the root bridge in terms of cost
  • All ports on root bridge are ________
A

Designated port

76
Q
  • Ports that block traffic to create loop-free topology
  • Do not forward traffic during normal operation, but do receive bridge protocol data units (BPDUs)
  • If a link in the topology goes down, the ______ detects the failure and determines whether it needs to transition to a forwarding state
A

Non-designated port

77
Q
  • Blocking
  • Listening
  • Learning
  • Forwarding
A

Port states

78
Q
  • Received by non-designated ports, which do not forward traffic during normal operation
A

Bridge protocol data units (BPDUs)

79
Q

To get to the forwarding state, the non-designated port has to transition through _____ states (in total, including forwarding). What are they?

A

Four states: blocking, listening, learning, forwarding

80
Q

Which port state?

  • BPDUs are received but they are not forwarded
  • Used at beginning and on redundant links
  • Root and non-designated ports
81
Q

Which port state?

  • Populates MAC address table
  • Does not forward frames
82
Q

Which port state?

  • Processes BPDUs
  • Switch determines its role in the spanning tree
83
Q

Which port state?

  • Forwards frames for operations
  • Designated ports
A

Forwarding

84
Q
  • Associated with the speed of a link
  • Lower the link speed, the higher the ______
  • Long STP is being adopted due to higher linker speeds over 10 Gbps
  • Values range from 2 million for 10-Mbps Ethernet to as little as 2 for 10 Tbps
A

Link costs

85
Q
  • Switch ports are in a single broadcast domain
  • Allow you to break out certain ports to be in different broadcast domains
  • Before:
    > You had to use routers to separate departments, functions, or subnets
    > Different switches were required for separation
  • Allow different logical networks to share the same physical hardware
  • Same switches, but switch ports can be different
  • Provides added security and efficiency
A

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

86
Q

What is 802.1q?

A

VLAN Trunking

87
Q

What is the standard for VLAN Trunking?

88
Q
  • Multiple VLANs transmitted over the same physical cable
  • VLANs are each tagged with 4-byte identifier
    > Tag Protocol Identifier (TPI)
    > Tag Control Identifier (TCI)
  • One VLAN is left untagged
    > Native VLAN
A

VLAN Trunking (802.1q)

89
Q

What are the two 4-byte identifiers that VLANs are tagged with in VLAN trunking?

A
  • Tag Protocol Identifier (TPI)

- Tag Control Identifier (TCI)

90
Q

What is the one untagged VLAN called in VLAN trunking?

A

Native VLAN

91
Q

The following are examples of what?

  • VPN concentrators
  • Firewalls
  • DNS servers
  • DHCP servers
  • Proxy servers
  • Content engines and switches

They serve specific functions to improve usability, performance, and security

A

Specialized network devices

92
Q

What are some examples of specialized network devices?

A
  • VPN concentrators
  • Firewalls
  • DNS servers
  • DHCP servers
  • Proxy servers
  • Content engines and switches
93
Q

Creates a secure, virtual tunnel network over an untrusted network like the Internet

A

Virtual private network (VPN)

94
Q

One of the devices that can terminate VPN tunnels (although firewalls can also perform this function)

A

VPN concentrator

95
Q
  • Network security appliance at your boundary

- Can be software or hardware

96
Q

_____ firewalls:

  • allow traffic that originates from inside the network and go out to the internet
  • block traffic originating from the internet from getting into the network
A

Stateful firewalls

97
Q
  • Conducts deep packet inspection at layer 7
  • Detects and prevents attacks
  • Much more powerful than basic stateless and stateful firewalls
  • Continually connects to cloud resources for latest information on threats
A

Next Generation Firewall (NGFW)

98
Q

At what layer does deep packet inspection occur

99
Q
  • Recognizes attacks through signatures and anomalies

- Host or network-based device

A

Intrusion detection systems (IDS)

100
Q
  • Recognizes and responds to attacks

- Host or network-based devices

A

Intrusion prevention systems (IPS)

101
Q
  • Converts domain names to IP addresses

- Similar to the contact list in a phone

A

Domain Name System (DNS)

102
Q
  • Domain name under a Top-Level Domain and represents a web, mail, or file server
A

Fully-Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)

103
Q
  • Contains the FQDN with method of accessing information
A

Uniform Resource Locator (URL)

104
Q

Which DNS Record type?

- Address record maps hostname to IPv4 address

105
Q

Which DNS Record type?

- Address record maps hostname to IPv6 address

106
Q

Which DNS Record type?

- Alias for existing record, e.g. diontraining[.]com = www[.]diontraining[.]com

A

CNAME (canonical name)

107
Q

Which DNS Record type?

- Maps domain name to email server

A

MX (mail exchange)

108
Q

Which DNS Record type?

- Denotes the authoritative name server for the domain

109
Q

Which DNS Record type?

  • Refers to the canonical name
  • Used for reverse DNS lookups
A

PTR (pointer record)

110
Q

Which DNS Record type?

- Provides authoritative information about DNS zone: contact information, primary name server, refresh times

A

SOA (start of authority)

111
Q

Which DNS Record type?
- Generalized service location record; newer protocol that doesn’t require specific protocols records like MX, CNAME, etc.

112
Q

Which DNS Record type?

  • Designed to hold human readable code originally
  • Used now to hold machine readable data like DomainKeys Identified Email (DKIM), Sender Policy Framework (SPF), and opportunistic encryption
113
Q
  • Initially, clients on networks needed IP addresses manually configured (or statically assigned) to communicate
    > Can lead to configuration errors
    > Can become a hassle for large networks
  • Automates process so the majority of devices on a network automatically receive:
    > IP address
    > Subnet mask
    > Default gateway
    > DNS server addresses
A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

114
Q

What are the DHCP steps?

A
  1. DHCP DISCOVER
  2. DHCP OFFER
  3. DHCP REQUEST
  4. DHCP ACK

D.O.R.A

115
Q
  • Device that makes a request to external network on behalf of a client
  • Used for security to perform content filtering and logging
  • Workstation clients are configured to forward their packets to a ________
A

Proxy server

116
Q
  • Dedicated appliances that perform the caching functions of a proxy server
  • Are more efficient than a proxy server
  • Also called caching engines
A

Content engine

117
Q
  • Dedicated appliances that perform the caching functions of a proxy server
  • Are more efficient than a proxy server
  • Also called content engines
A

Caching engine

118
Q
  • Distributes incoming requests across the various servers in the server farm
  • Also known as load balancers
A

Content switches

119
Q
  • Distributes incoming requests across the various servers in the server farm
  • Also known as content switches
A

Load balancers

Network+ (15 decks)

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