ESWS OPS Flashcards
List the 5 functions of CIC
G:
P:
D:
E:
D:
Gathering
Processing
Display
Evaluation
Dissemination
What are the 2 functions of JIC?
Provides ___ ____ to Commander Expeditionary Strike Group, CATF, CLT, & CO.
Provides __ ___ for receipt, stowage, retrieval, processing, & dissemination of intelligence.
PROVIDE OPERATIONAL SUPPORT to Commander Expeditionary Strike Group, CATF, CLT, & CO.
PROVIDES SECURE FACILITY for receipt, stowage, retrieval, processing, & dissemination of intelligence.
Main function of SSES (ships signal exploitation space)?
Collects info & receives ___ (___) from outside sources to disseminate to __ & __ __.
COLLECTS INFO & RECEIVES Signals Intelligence (SIGINT) from outside sources to disseminate to CC & Flag Plot.
Who gives the call “Land the Landing Force” 3 times?
Commander Amphibious Task Force (Commodore)
Who is the MEU Colonel?
Commander Lander Force
Name the suitably marked offshore coordinating LINE that assists in landing of landing crafts & amphibious vehicles on beaches at scheduled times?
Line of Departure
What’s the maneuver that’s ordered by PCS to hold WAVES of amphibious craft prior to LOD?
Wave Forming Circles
4 types of operations:
(DRAW)
Assault
Raid
Demonstration
Withdrawal
Define demonstration:
Amphibious op conducted to __ enemy by __ ___ __, hoping to ___ them into ___ results.
Amphibious op conducted to DECEIVE enemy by show of force, hoping to fool them into unfavorable results.
(think decoy)
What are the 5 phases?
(PERMA)
Planning
Embarkation
Rehearsal
Movement
Action
Responsibilities of Tactical Action Officer:
Safe maneuvering of __, manages employment of ___ w/ ___ release authority, & ___ direction of ship.
Safe maneuvering of ship, manages employment of weapons w/ weapon release authority, & tactical direction of ship.
Responsibilities of Air Intercept Controller:
OS that assists w/ ______ warfare Commander using _____ _____ to intercept _______ air contacts.
OS that assists w/ Anti-Air Warfare Commander using friendly fighters to intercept unknown air contacts.
Responsibilities of PDWC:
Assigns weapon system to destroy threats. (Hard Kill)
Responsibilities of Shipping Officer:
Close in surface p____, close to __.
Manned during sea & anchor to avoid __.
Close in surface picture, close to shore. Manned during sea & anchor to avoid collision.
Responsibilities of Piloting Officer:
Assists bridge w/ ___.
Manned during sea & anchor. Assists bridge w/ navigation.
Primary & secondary purposes of Digital Dead Reckoning Tracer? (DDRT)
Primary: True ________
Secondary: ___ ____
Primary: True geographic plot
Secondary: Man overboard
How many SPA 25G Radar Repeaters onboard?
4 onboard.
Purpose of GCCS-M?
Provides broad overview of __ contact location around world.
Global Command & Control System Maritime provides broad overview of surface contact location around world.
What’s the electronic chart that keeps ships position?
(VMS)
Voyage Management System
What’s electronic warfare?
Action involving _____ spectrum to ___ or ____ enemy.
Action involving electromagnetic spectrum to attack or impede enemy.
Define electronic support (ES):
Gathering intelligence w/ ____sensors
Gathering intelligence w/ electronic sensors.
Define electronic attack (EA):
EM energy or anti-_____ weapons to attack ___, ___, or ____.
EM energy or anti-radiation weapons to attack personnel, facilities, or equipment.
Define EMCON:
Selectively managing own f___ emissions to gain __ over __.
Emissions control. Selectively managing own force emissions to gain advantage over adversary.
6 conditions of EMCON:
A: Total ___
A1: Modified ____ for ___.
A2: Modified for L__ or a__ safety
B: Satellite ____
C: High value u___ protection
D: Essential ____
A - total silence
A1 - Modified safety navigation
A2 - Modified for link or aircraft safety
B - Satellite vulnerability
C - High value unit protection
D - Essential emissions
What does ASMD stand for?
Anti-Ship Missile Defense
How many decoy launchers onboard to blanket entire ship?
6 launchers
What are the 2 types of rounds carried onboard?
S
G
MK 214 SEDUCTION
MK 245 GIANT JR
What does the Sexy-1 provide?
Specific e____ identification c___y
Specific emitter identification capability
What does the joint tactical terminal maritime provide?
A tool for b___ missile defense early ___.
A tool for ballistic missile defense early warning
What 3 evasion tactics are employed during countermeasure?
(B M R)
Base-zag
MAD MAGGIE
RAGING BULL
Define Air warfare (AW)
Deny enemy use of __ & ___ assets
Deny enemy use of air & ground assets
Define Surface Warfare (SUW)
Destroy/neutralize enemy naval surface f____s & m____t vessels
Destroy/neutralize enemy naval surface forces & merchant vessels
Define Undersea Warfare (USW)
Deny enemy access use of ___
Deny enemy effective use of submarines
Define Strike Warfare (STW)
Destroy/neutralize enemy targets __
Destroy/neutralize enemy targets ashore
Define Information Warfare (IW)
Decrease adversary’s __ & __ systems capabilities
Decrease adversary’s info & info systems capabilities
List the 4 Maritime Operations:
Maritime I____ Ops
Non-combatant E___ nOps
S&R
Humanitarian A____& D____ response
Maritime Interdiction Ops
Non-Combatant Evacuation Ops
Search & Rescue
Humanitarian Assistance & Disaster Response
Define OPREP-3 Pinnacle
A r__ where situation of __ level has been d___
A report where situation of national level has been determined.
Define OPREP-3 Navy Blue
Significant situation of h___ navy interest occurred, potentially d____ to c____/n___.
significant situation of high navy interest occurred, potentially detrimental to command/navy.
Define CASREP
Reporting status of ship experiencing d____ combat readiness p___.
Reporting status of ship experiencing diminished combat readiness posture.
Define the following categories of CASREP
CAT 2:____ degradation of primary mission
CAT 3:____ degradation w/o loss of primary mission
CAT 4: Loss of at least _ primary mission
Cat. 2: Minor degradation of primary mission & major degradation to secondary mission.
Cat. 3: Major degradation w/o loss of primary mission.
Cat. 4: Loss of at least 1 primary mission.
Define unclassified & what color it is:
Green. Freely available for public consumption.
Define confidential & what color it is:
Blue. Can cause damage to national security.
Define secret & what color it is:
Can cause ___ damage to national security
Red. Can cause serious damage to national security.
Define top secret & what color it is:
Orange. Can cause exceptionally grave damage to national security.
Define AATCC
Amphibious Air Traffic control center
Define IFF
Identifies s___ & a___ contacts
Identification Friend or Foe
ID surface & air contacts
5 rates that work in CIC
O
F
C
A
G
OS
FC
CTT (EW)
AO
GM
Modes ( MR SNAP BB)
M- M_ I_ C_
R- Tri-____
S-_____
N-__
A-___
P-____
BB-___
M- magnetically influenced countermeasure
R- tri-random
S- swept
N- noise
A- alternating
P- pulsating
BB- broad blast
Max cable length for NIXIE
Combat streamed at __ ft.
Max length: 2350 ft
Combat streamed at 1800 ft
What’s the NXIE known as?
T_____ C______
How many nixie rooms onboard?
Torpedo countermeasure
2 nixie rooms port & stbd
