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ESWS C5I > ESWS OPS > Flashcards

ESWS OPS Flashcards

1
Q

List the 5 functions of CIC
G:
P:
D:
E:
D:

A

Gathering
Processing
Display
Evaluation
Dissemination

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2
Q

What are the 2 functions of JIC?

Provides ___ ____ to Commander Expeditionary Strike Group, CATF, CLT, & CO.
Provides __ ___ for receipt, stowage, retrieval, processing, & dissemination of intelligence.

A

PROVIDE OPERATIONAL SUPPORT to Commander Expeditionary Strike Group, CATF, CLT, & CO.
PROVIDES SECURE FACILITY for receipt, stowage, retrieval, processing, & dissemination of intelligence.

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3
Q

Main function of SSES (ships signal exploitation space)?

Collects info & receives ___ (___) from outside sources to disseminate to __ & __ __.

A

COLLECTS INFO & RECEIVES Signals Intelligence (SIGINT) from outside sources to disseminate to CC & Flag Plot.

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4
Q

Who gives the call “Land the Landing Force” 3 times?

A

Commander Amphibious Task Force (Commodore)

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5
Q

Who is the MEU Colonel?

A

Commander Lander Force

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6
Q

Name the suitably marked offshore coordinating LINE that assists in landing of landing crafts & amphibious vehicles on beaches at scheduled times?

A

Line of Departure

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7
Q

What’s the maneuver that’s ordered by PCS to hold WAVES of amphibious craft prior to LOD?

A

Wave Forming Circles

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8
Q

4 types of operations:

(DRAW)

A

Assault
Raid
Demonstration
Withdrawal

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9
Q

Define demonstration:

Amphibious op conducted to __ enemy by __ ___ __, hoping to ___ them into ___ results.

A

Amphibious op conducted to DECEIVE enemy by show of force, hoping to fool them into unfavorable results.
(think decoy)

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10
Q

What are the 5 phases?

(PERMA)

A

Planning
Embarkation
Rehearsal
Movement
Action

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11
Q

Responsibilities of Tactical Action Officer:

Safe maneuvering of __, manages employment of ___ w/ ___ release authority, & ___ direction of ship.

A

Safe maneuvering of ship, manages employment of weapons w/ weapon release authority, & tactical direction of ship.

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12
Q

Responsibilities of Air Intercept Controller:

OS that assists w/ ______ warfare Commander using _____ _____ to intercept _______ air contacts.

A

OS that assists w/ Anti-Air Warfare Commander using friendly fighters to intercept unknown air contacts.

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13
Q

Responsibilities of PDWC:

A

Assigns weapon system to destroy threats. (Hard Kill)

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14
Q

Responsibilities of Shipping Officer:

Close in surface p____, close to __.

Manned during sea & anchor to avoid __.

A

Close in surface picture, close to shore. Manned during sea & anchor to avoid collision.

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15
Q

Responsibilities of Piloting Officer:

Assists bridge w/ ___.

A

Manned during sea & anchor. Assists bridge w/ navigation.

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16
Q

Primary & secondary purposes of Digital Dead Reckoning Tracer? (DDRT)

Primary: True ________
Secondary: ___ ____

A

Primary: True geographic plot
Secondary: Man overboard

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17
Q

How many SPA 25G Radar Repeaters onboard?

A

4 onboard.

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18
Q

Purpose of GCCS-M?

Provides broad overview of __ contact location around world.

A

Global Command & Control System Maritime provides broad overview of surface contact location around world.

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19
Q

What’s the electronic chart that keeps ships position?
(VMS)

A

Voyage Management System

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20
Q

What’s electronic warfare?

Action involving _____ spectrum to ___ or ____ enemy.

A

Action involving electromagnetic spectrum to attack or impede enemy.

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21
Q

Define electronic support (ES):

Gathering intelligence w/ ____sensors

A

Gathering intelligence w/ electronic sensors.

22
Q

Define electronic attack (EA):

EM energy or anti-_____ weapons to attack ___, ___, or ____.

A

EM energy or anti-radiation weapons to attack personnel, facilities, or equipment.

23
Q

Define EMCON:

Selectively managing own f___ emissions to gain __ over __.

A

Emissions control. Selectively managing own force emissions to gain advantage over adversary.

24
Q

6 conditions of EMCON:
A: Total ___
A1: Modified ____ for ___.
A2: Modified for L__ or a__ safety
B: Satellite ____
C: High value u___ protection
D: Essential ____

A

A - total silence
A1 - Modified safety navigation
A2 - Modified for link or aircraft safety
B - Satellite vulnerability
C - High value unit protection
D - Essential emissions

25
Q

What does ASMD stand for?

A

Anti-Ship Missile Defense

26
Q

How many decoy launchers onboard to blanket entire ship?

A

6 launchers

27
Q

What are the 2 types of rounds carried onboard?

S
G

A

MK 214 SEDUCTION
MK 245 GIANT JR

28
Q

What does the Sexy-1 provide?

Specific e____ identification c___y

A

Specific emitter identification capability

29
Q

What does the joint tactical terminal maritime provide?

A tool for b___ missile defense early ___.

A

A tool for ballistic missile defense early warning

30
Q

What 3 evasion tactics are employed during countermeasure?
(B M R)

A

Base-zag
MAD MAGGIE
RAGING BULL

31
Q

Define Air warfare (AW)

Deny enemy use of __ & ___ assets

A

Deny enemy use of air & ground assets

32
Q

Define Surface Warfare (SUW)

Destroy/neutralize enemy naval surface f____s & m____t vessels

A

Destroy/neutralize enemy naval surface forces & merchant vessels

33
Q

Define Undersea Warfare (USW)

Deny enemy access use of ___

A

Deny enemy effective use of submarines

34
Q

Define Strike Warfare (STW)

Destroy/neutralize enemy targets __

A

Destroy/neutralize enemy targets ashore

35
Q

Define Information Warfare (IW)

Decrease adversary’s __ & __ systems capabilities

A

Decrease adversary’s info & info systems capabilities

36
Q

List the 4 Maritime Operations:

Maritime I____ Ops
Non-combatant E___ nOps
S&R
Humanitarian A____& D____ response

A

Maritime Interdiction Ops
Non-Combatant Evacuation Ops
Search & Rescue
Humanitarian Assistance & Disaster Response

37
Q

Define OPREP-3 Pinnacle

A r__ where situation of __ level has been d___

A

A report where situation of national level has been determined.

38
Q

Define OPREP-3 Navy Blue

Significant situation of h___ navy interest occurred, potentially d____ to c____/n___.

A

significant situation of high navy interest occurred, potentially detrimental to command/navy.

39
Q

Define CASREP

Reporting status of ship experiencing d____ combat readiness p___.

A

Reporting status of ship experiencing diminished combat readiness posture.

40
Q

Define the following categories of CASREP

CAT 2:____ degradation of primary mission
CAT 3:____ degradation w/o loss of primary mission
CAT 4: Loss of at least _ primary mission

A

Cat. 2: Minor degradation of primary mission & major degradation to secondary mission.
Cat. 3: Major degradation w/o loss of primary mission.
Cat. 4: Loss of at least 1 primary mission.

41
Q

Define unclassified & what color it is:

A

Green. Freely available for public consumption.

42
Q

Define confidential & what color it is:

A

Blue. Can cause damage to national security.

43
Q

Define secret & what color it is:

Can cause ___ damage to national security

A

Red. Can cause serious damage to national security.

44
Q

Define top secret & what color it is:

A

Orange. Can cause exceptionally grave damage to national security.

45
Q

Define AATCC

A

Amphibious Air Traffic control center

46
Q

Define IFF

Identifies s___ & a___ contacts

A

Identification Friend or Foe
ID surface & air contacts

47
Q

5 rates that work in CIC

O
F
C
A
G

A

OS
FC
CTT (EW)
AO
GM

48
Q

Modes ( MR SNAP BB)

M- M_ I_ C_
R- Tri-____
S-_____
N-__
A-___
P-____
BB-___

A

M- magnetically influenced countermeasure
R- tri-random
S- swept
N- noise
A- alternating
P- pulsating
BB- broad blast

49
Q

Max cable length for NIXIE

Combat streamed at __ ft.

A

Max length: 2350 ft

Combat streamed at 1800 ft

50
Q

What’s the NXIE known as?

T_____ C______

How many nixie rooms onboard?

A

Torpedo countermeasure

2 nixie rooms port & stbd

ESWS C5I (18 decks)

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