Ergogenic Aids Flashcards

1
Q

define ergogenic aid

A

a substance, object or method to improve or enhance performance

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2
Q

what are the 3 ergogenic aid categories

A

pharmacological aids, physiological aids, nutritional aids

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3
Q

define a pharmacological aid

A

are taken to increase levels of hormones or neural transmitters naturally produced by the body. Most are illegal

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4
Q

define anabolic steroids

A

a group of illegal synthetic hormones resembling testosterone to promote proteinsynthesis for muscle growth, recovery and repair

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5
Q

what kind of events are anabolic steroids associated with

A

maximal/ explosive events

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6
Q

what are 3 performance benefits of anabolic steroids

A
  • increased muscle mass and strength
  • increased speed of recovery
  • increased intensity and duration of training
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7
Q

list 3 risks of anabolic steroids

A
  • irritability, aggression and mood swings
  • liver damage
  • acne and hormonal disturbances
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8
Q

define erythropoietin

A

natural hormone responsible for producing red blood cells.

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9
Q

define RhEPO (recombinant erythropoietin)

A

a synthetic copy of EPO which has the same role and increases red blood cell production

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10
Q

what kind of events is EPO used for

A

endurance events

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11
Q

what is EPO’s WADA status

A

illegal

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12
Q

list 3 performance benefits of EPO

A
  • increased red blood cell and haemoglobin count
  • increased O2 transport and aerobic capacity
  • increased intensity and duration of performance before fatigue
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13
Q

list 4 risks of EPO

A
  • increased blood viscosity
  • decreased cardiac output
  • increased risk of heart failure and blood clotting
  • decreased natural production of EPO
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14
Q

define human growth hormone

A

synthetic product copying natural growth hormone to increase protein synthesis for muscle growth, recovery and repair

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15
Q

which events is HGH used for

A

maximal and explosive events

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16
Q

what is the WADA status of HGH

A

illegal

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17
Q

list 5 performance benefits of HGH

A
  • increased muscle mass and strength
  • increased fat metabolism and decreased fat mass
  • increased blood glucose levels
  • increased speed of recovery
  • increased intensity and duration of training
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18
Q

list 3 risks of HGH

A
  • abnormal bone and muscle development
  • enlargements of the vital organ, potentially leading to multi-organ failure
  • increased risk of certain cancers and diabetes
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19
Q

define physiological aids

A

a group or ergogenic aids used to increase the rate of adaption by the body to increase performance

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20
Q

define blood doping

A

an illegal method of increasing red blood cell content by infusing blood prior to competition

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21
Q

what is the WADA status of blood doping

A

illegal

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22
Q

what kind of events is blood doping used for

A

endurance events

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23
Q

list 3 performance benefits of blood doping

A
  • increased red blood cell and haemoglobin count
  • increased O2 transport and aerobic capacity
  • increased intensity and duration of performance before fatigue
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24
Q

list 4 risks of blood doping

A
  • increased blood viscosity
  • decreased cardiac output
  • increased risk of heart failure and blood clotting
  • risk of transfusion reactions and infections such as hepatitis and HIV
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25
Q

define intermittent hypoxic training

A

interval training work intervals performed under hypoxic conditions

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26
Q

what are some examples of IHT equipment

A

masks, rooms, sleeping tents

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27
Q

define hypoxic

A

low partial pressure of O2

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28
Q

what events are associated with intermittent hypoxic training

A

endurance events/ acclimatisation before events

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29
Q

what is the WADA status of intermittent hypoxic training

A

legal

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30
Q

describe a method of IHT

A

4-8 weeks of high intensity work intervals of 1-3 mins during 15-40 mins of hypoxic conditions with relief intervals of 1-40 mins.

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31
Q

list 4 performance benefits of IHT

A
  • acclimatisation for events at altitude
  • increased red blood cell, haemoglobin and O2 carrying capacity
  • increased intensity and duration before fatigue
  • increased mitochondria and buffering capacity, delaying OBLA
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32
Q

list risks of IHT

A
  • any benefit is quickly lost when IHT stops
  • hard to reach normal work rates
  • decrease immune function and increase risk of infection
  • dehydration
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33
Q

define cooling aids

A

a range of products such as ice vests, packs and baths, used to reduce core temperature, treat injury and speed up recovery

34
Q

what is the effect of using cooling aids pre-event

A

cooling aids such as ice vests and cold towel wrap:

  • reduce core body temperature to reduce cardiovascular drift.
  • reduce overheating
  • reduce sweating
  • reduce dehydration
35
Q

what kind of climates can ice vests and cold towel wraps be used in

A

hot climates

36
Q

which cooling aids are used to treat injuries

A

ice packs and sprays

37
Q

how do cooling aids help treat injuries

A
  • nerve endings are numbed to reduce pain

- arterioles vasoconstrict to reduce blood flow and minimize swelling

38
Q

which cooling aids are used post- event

A

ice baths

39
Q

why are ice baths used post- event

A

speed up recovery and reduce DOMS

40
Q

what happens to the body during and after an ice bath

A

during: vessels constrict, removing waste products and lactic acid from muscle tissue
after: blood vessels vasodilate flushing muscle tissue with oxygen rich blood which heals and repairs damaged cells

41
Q

what is the WADA status of cooling aids

A

legal

42
Q

list 5 benefits of cooling aids

A
  • reduce core body temperature
  • decreased sweating, dehydration and early fatigue
  • decreased injury pain and swelling
  • increased speed of recovery and repair
  • decreased DOMS
43
Q

list risks of cooling aids

A
  • ice burns & pain
  • hide or complicate injuries
  • chest pain & reduced efficiency in the elderly
  • dangerous for those with heart conditions if used in chest area
44
Q

3 hours before an endurance event what should an athlete eat

A
  • slow digesting carbohydrate meal

- with a low glycacemic index to maximise glycogen stores and prevent glycogen depletion

45
Q

define glycaemic index

A

a rating scale showing how quickly a carbohydrate affects blood glucose levels

46
Q

what should an athlete eat 1-2 hours before an endurance event

A
  • smaller carbohydrate meal
  • with a high glycaemic index
  • eg. honey on bagel/ energy bar
47
Q

why shouldn’t an athlete take take glucose supplements immediately before an event

A
  • their body may try to counteract the raised blood glucose levels by leaving the athlete dizzy and fatigued
  • this is called hypoglycaemia
48
Q

what food should an endurance athlete consume during an endurance event

A
  • regular amounts (30-60g) of fast- digesting carbohydrates to maintain blood glucose levels and preserve muscle glycogen stores
  • eg glucose tablets, gels, banana, sports drink
49
Q

what should an athlete consume after an endurance event

A
  • 1- 1.5kg of carbohydrate per hour
  • consumed within 30 mins of the event finishing
  • repeated at 2 hour intervals up to 6 hours post event
50
Q

what is the WADA status of carboloading for endurance training

A

legal

51
Q

if an athlete is training for 1 hour per day how high is their carbohydrate intake

A

5-7g per kg of body mass

52
Q

if an athlete is training 4 hours per day how high is their carbohydrate intake

A

10-12g per kg of body mass

53
Q

how high is the carbohydrate intake of an athlete 13 hours before an event

A

1-4g per kg of body mass

54
Q

how high is the carbohydrate intake of an athlete 1-2 hours before an event

A

small meal

55
Q

how high is the carbohydrate intake of an athlete during an endurance event

A

60-90g per hour

56
Q

how high is the carbohydrate intake of an athlete post endurance event

A

1-1.5g per kg of body mass within 30 mins and then repeated 3 times every 2 hours

57
Q

how does sweating decrease performance

A
  • increased temperature
  • increased blood viscosity
  • increased heart rate
  • increased fatigue
  • decreased cognitive function and skill level
58
Q

what can the loss of electrolytes cause

A

fatigue and cramping

59
Q

define electrolytes

A

salt and minerals, that conduct electrical impulses

60
Q

for every 1 Kg of body mass lost during activity how much water should be consumed

A

1 litre

61
Q

define a hypotonic solution

A

lower concentration of glucose (4%) than blood stream

62
Q

define isotonic solution

A

equal concentrations of glucose (5-8%) to the blood stream

63
Q

define hypertonic solution

A

higher concentration of glucose (15%) than the blood stream

64
Q

what kind of nutritional plan will an athlete need to follow to increase muscle mass and strength

A
  • 5-6 small meals a day every few hours
  • up to 30% lean protein to enhance muscle building and repair (turkey/tuna)
  • complex carbohydrates to release energy slowly, control blood sugar levels and minimise storage of fat (black beans/ oatmeal)
  • limited fat intake, which also provides energy and is important for hormone production (flaxseed rich in omega-3 fatty acids)
65
Q

what should consist of a pre- strength training meal

A
  • 30-60 mins before training
  • small meal with equal quantities of fast digesting carbohydrates and protein
  • eg. white bagels or rice with whey protein or egg whites
66
Q

what should consist of a post- strength training meal

A
  • within 2 hours
  • meal consisting of fast digesting carbohydrates and protein, this replaces lost glycogen and satisfy the far higher need for protein to boost protein synthesis and muscle and strength gains
  • protein shakes
67
Q

what is the WADA status of strength training

A

legal

68
Q

define glycogen/ carbohydrate loading

A

manipulation of carbohydrate intake in the week before competition to maximise stores of glycogen

69
Q

how does glycogen/ carbohydrate loading benefit performance

A
  • increased glycogen storage
  • delays fatigue
  • increases endurance capacity
  • increased time to exhaustion by up to 30%
70
Q

what are the risks of glycogen/ carbohydrates loading

A
  • hypoglycaemia on the depletion phase
  • poor recovery rates in the depletion phase
  • lethargy and irritability in the depletion phase
  • gastrointestinal problems
  • affects mental preparation
71
Q

define creatine supplementation

A

consumption of creatine monohydrate to increase stores of PC to increase intensity and duration of performance

72
Q

what are the performance benefits of creatine supplementation

A
  • increased PC stores
  • increased fuel for very high intensity energy production (ATP-PC system)
  • increased intensity and duration of training
  • increased maximum and explosive strength
73
Q

what are the risks of creatine supplementation

A
  • increased weight gain
  • water retention
  • muscle cramps
  • gastrointestinal problems
74
Q

define caffine

A

a stimulant used to heighten the central nervous system and metabolise fats to prolong aerobic energy production

75
Q

what are the performance benefits of caffeine

A
  • increased mental alertness
  • reduces effects of fatigue
  • delays use of glycogen stores
  • improves decision making and reaction time
76
Q

what are the risks of caffeine

A
  • diuretic effect leading to dehydration
  • insomnia and anxiety
  • gastrointestinal problems
77
Q

define sodium bicarbonate

A

an alkaline which acts as a buffer to reduce effects of lactic acid and delay fatigue

78
Q

what are the performance benefits of sodium bicarbonate

A
  • reduces acidity in the muscle cells
  • increases tolerance to to lactic acid
  • delays OBLA
  • increases the buffering capacity of the blood
79
Q

what are the risks of sodium bicarbonate

A
  • possible gastrointestinal problems

- unpleasant taste, causing nausea

80
Q

define nitrates

A

compounds which dilate blood vessels, reducing blood pressure and increasing blood flow to the muscles

81
Q

what are the performance benefits of nitrates

A
  • reduced blood pressure -
  • increased blood flow
  • increased intensity of performance
  • delays fatigue
82
Q

what are the risks of nitrates

A
  • headaches, dizziness or light- headedness
  • long term effect on health unclear
  • possible carcinogenic risk