Equine Written Exam Flashcards

1
Q

order of the horse GI tract following the stomach (11)

A

duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum (R side), r ventral colon, left ventral colon, left dorsal colon, right dorsal colon, transverse colon, descending (small) colon, rectum

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2
Q

what are three flexures in the horse?

A

sternal flexure, pelvic flexure, and diaphragmatic flexure

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3
Q

taenia and haustra

A

bands and pouches between, respectively

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4
Q

what organ primarily sits along the entire L side of the equine abdominal cavity

A

spleen (little liver)

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5
Q

what is the most common organism in the avian microbiota

A

phylum fermicutes

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6
Q

which type of parasite is likely implicated in an ileocecal intussusception

A

tapeworms

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7
Q

what is a likely cause of a cecal impaction

A

secondary to surgery and NSAIDS

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8
Q

nephrosplenic ligament

A

ligament between kidney and spleen, often entraps left dorsal colon

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9
Q

meconium impaction

A

first poop of a foal, brown and sticky from digested amniotic fluid

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10
Q

normal heart rate in a horse

A

28-40 bpm

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11
Q

heart sounds

A

S4- contraction of atria
S1- closure of AV valves (lub)
S2- closure of semilunar valves
S3- filling of ventricles

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12
Q

what are the four lymph nodes you can palpate in the horse

A

mandibular, parotid, cervical, inguinal

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13
Q

where can you hear sand on ascultation?

A

ventral midline

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14
Q

approved methods of large animal euthanasia

A

injectable barbiturates, captive bolt and exsanguination, gunshot, potassium chloride while anesthetized

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15
Q

where should you aim a gun to efficiently kill a horse?

A

x marks the spot between ears and eyes

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16
Q

hoof-pastern axis (HPA)

A

straight line that passes through the center of the 3 phalanges, should be perfectly level with dorsal surface of the hoof wall

17
Q

medial to lateral hoof imbalance

A

outside toe strikes the ground before the heel

18
Q

sheared heels

A

displacement of one heel bulb proximally relative to other bulb

19
Q

contracted heels

A

heels narrower than normal

20
Q

thrush

A

degenerative condition of the frog, wet conditions with bad smell

21
Q

white line disease

A

keratolytic process on the solar surface, separation of the inner zone of the hoof wall

22
Q

canker

A

infectious process thta results in chronic hypertrophy of the horn-producing tissue, starts in the frog

23
Q

navicular disease

A

most common cause of chronic forelimb lameness, degenerative condition of the navicular bone

24
Q

pedal osteitis

A

inflammatory demineralization of P3

25
sidebone
ossification of the collateral cartilages of the foot
26
quittor
infection of the collateral cartilages
27
gravel
ascending infection of the white line
28
keratoma
keratin tissue growing between hoof wall and distal phalanx, usually can tell from deviation of the coronary band
29
how much of their body weight should horses consume of food and water?
food: 1.5-3% of body weight water: 5% of body weight
30
anisognathic jaw
figure of eight dental grind in horses, predisposes to sharp points
31
ascarids (parascaris equorum)
dangerous in weanlings, start deworming at 6-8 weeks, some resistance to everything, usually use fenbendazole
32
strongyles (strongylus vulgaris and cyathostomes)
large causes thromboembolic colic, ivermectin effective, small encysted ones have some resistance to all (use moxidectin), use to determine shedding status
33
tapeworms (anoplocephala perfoliata)
doesn't show up in fecal, usually present in the cecum, pyrantel effective with double dose, use praziquantel
34
bots (gasterophilus spp)
doesn't show up on fecal, limited pathology, stomach
35
pinworms (oxyuris equi)
notice on tail and anus, doesn't show up on fecal
36
difference between low, moderate and high shedders
low: 0-200 epg moderate: 200-500 epg high: >500 epg
37
when should initial vaccination of foals start?
3-6 months of age