Equine respiratory 2

Question 1

RAO is characterized by?

1. Excessive mucus production, intraluminal macrophage accumulation, bronchiolar hyperreactivity, and bronchospasm
2. Excessive mucus production, intraluminal neutrophil accumulation, bronchial hyperreactivity, and reversible bronchospasm
3. Excessive surfactant production, intraluminal macrophage accumulation, bronchiolar hyperreactivity, and bronchospasm
4. Excessive surfactant production, alveolar neutrophil accumulation, bronchial hyperreactivity, and reversible bronchospasm.

Answer 1

b. Excessive mucus production, intraluminal neutrophil accumulation, bronchial hyperreactivity, and reversible bronchospasm

Question 2

There are many causes of Equine Interstitial Pneumonia. Which pair do not match with etiology and acute/chronic?

1. Inhaled chemicals (oxygen or smoke)- Acute
2. Adverse drug reactions- Acute
3. Inhaled inorganic dust (pneumonoconises- silicosis)- Chronic
4. Endogenous metabolic/toxic conditions (ARDS, DIC) Uremia)- Chronic

Answer 2

d. Endogenous metabolic/toxic conditions (ARDS, DIC) Uremia)- Chronic

Question 3

In interstitial pneumonia, what are the changes in the proliferative phase that leads to fibrosis and decrease in lung capacities?

Answer 3

Increase in pneumocytes type II

Question 4

How can you differentiate between mild and severe equine asthma?

Answer 4

• Poor performance –> mild
• H2 challenge test –> mild
• Bronchoconstriction at rest –> severe
• Hay challenge test –> severe
• BALF cytology

Question 5

T/F

Oestrus ovis only infects sheep, and less commonly, goats.

Answer 5

F- other animals and humans can become accidentally infected

Question 6

Characteristic pulmonary lesion of EIPH

Answer 6

Bilateral and caudo-dorsally

Question 7

When is it appropriate to vaccinate a horse for strangles after recovering from clinical disease?

a. Never- immunity is lifelong
b. Titer > 1:3200
c. 3-5 years
d. Titer < 1:3200

Answer 7

d. Titer < 1:3200

Question 8

Cytology of a normal BAL, in horses and llamas?

Answer 8

• Neutrophils: < 5%
• Mast cells: < 2%
• Eosinophils: <1%

Question 9

How does furosemide help RAO affected horses, and which drug blocks this effect?

a. Removes pulmonary edema from negative-pressure pulmonary edema, blocked by diphenhydramine
b. Causes a prostaglandin E2 mediated bronchodilation, blocked by diphenhydramine
c. Removes pulmonary edema from negative-pressure pulmonary edema, blocked by flunixin
d. Causes a prostaglandin E2 mediated bronchodilation, blocked by flunixin

Question 10

A horse presents for respiratory evaluation and chronic weight loss. The animal shares pasture with a mini donkey (Panchito), and the owner does not do any primary health care on Panchito since it is a donkey, and donkeys are tough. How would you diagnose the horses condition?

Answer 10

• Presence of D. arnfieldi larvae in BAL or TTW
• Increase eosinophils in TTW or BAL

Baerman usually false

Peripheral eosinophilia does not correlate.

Question 11

Which receptors are upregulated in cases of severe equine asthma and may be a tool for genetic testing?

Answer 11

IL-4 receptors –> enhances IL-8 production

Question 12

When treating equine asthma, bronchodilation is often times necessary. For rapid relief of bronchospasm, atropine is an anticholinergic that can be given, but the owner is worried about colic. Which other drug from the same family might be safer?

Answer 12

ipratropium bromide

Question 13

Equine multinodular pulmonary fibrosis is thought to be caused by which infectious agent? How would you diagnose?

Answer 13

EHV-5

PCR or IHC in lung biopsy or BALF

Is this a definitive diagnosis?

Question 14

What breed is most prone to rhinitis/enzootic nasal granulomas?

a. Hereford + Angus
b. Limousin
c. Friesian + Guernsey
d. Belted Galloway

Question 15

Which toxicity causes congenital tracheal stenosis in lambs?

a. perilla ketones
b. pyrrolizodine alkaloids
c. Californicum veratrum
d. Perennial ryegrass

Answer 15

c. Californicum veratrum