Epilepsy Flashcards

1
Q

Define epilepsy

A

Epilepsy is a chronic neurological disorder characterised by recurrent seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define a seizure

A

Symptom not a condition

Seizures are transient episodes of abnormal synchronous, hyperexcited neuronal activity in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Epilepsy most commonly occurs in isolation although certain conditions have an association with epilepsy.

Name a condition that is associated with epilepsy?

A

Cerebral palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define a primary seizure

A

Unprovoked seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define a secondary seizure

A

Clear precipitate leading to the seizures e.g. stroke, head injury, alcohol, severe infection, medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

GABAergic characteristically:

a) Inhibitory
b) Excitatory

A

a) Inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

GABAergic signals are characterised by which type of receptors

A

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Glutamatergic characteristically:

a) Inhibitory
b) Excitatory

A

b) Excitatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Glutamatergic signals are characterised by which type of receptors

A

Glutamate receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

GABA is the main ____ neurotransmitter

a) Inhibitory
b) Excitatory

A

GABA is the main Inhibitory neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of receptors are GABA receptors and what ion does it influence?

A

Ligand-gated ion channel that allows flow of chloride ions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Glutamate is the main ____ neurotransmitter

a) Inhibitory
b) Excitatory

A

b) Excitatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of receptors are glutamate receptors?

A

Multiple types e.g. G coupled receptors, ion channels etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens during the tonic phase of seizure

A

Prolonged depolarisation with action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What happens during the clonic phase of seizure

A

Period of depolarisation followed by hyperpolarisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

There are four stages of a seizure.

Name these stages

A
  1. Prodromal
  2. Early-ictal
  3. Ictal
  4. Post-ictal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the prodromal phase of a seizure

A

Describes a period of subjective feeling or sensation a set of non-specific symptoms that occurs before the onset of a seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the early ictal phase of a seizure

A

This phase is characterised by aura

An aura is a sensory disturbance e.g. visual, olfactory etc, that precede an attack, usually just by a few minutes.

Not all patients will experience an aura – it is more suggestive of focal seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the ictal phase of a seizure

A

Refers to the seizure

Highly variable depending on seizure type.

It may be associated with urinary incontinence and tongue biting, and normally lasts 1-2 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the post-ictal phase of a seizure

A
  • This is the recovery period, when the seizure has abated
  • During the period of recovery there may be altered consciousness, confusion, memory loss, drowsiness, general malaise, feeling irritable and/or depressed
  • This period may last hours
  • It typically does not occur if they retained consciousness during the ictal phase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the two key clinical features of a seizure which is able to distinguish it from other differential diagnosis?

A
  • Tongue biting
  • Experience incontinence of urine during the seizure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Seizure can be classified based on 3 key features.

Name these three features

A
  1. The area where the seizures begin in the brain
  2. Level of awareness they have during a seizure
  3. Features e.g., motor features, non-motor features
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the characteristics of a focal seizure

A
  • Seizures which arise from a specific area, on one hemisphere – typically the temporal lobe
  • Level of awareness varies
  • They may experience either motor or non-motor features
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In focal seizures the level of awareness varies depending on what type of focal seizure it is.

What is the name given to the two types of level of awareness

A

Primary focal aware

Primary focal impaired awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define the term “primary focal aware”

A

Primary focal aware refers to when they are aware that the seizure is happening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Define the term “primary focal impaired awareness”

A

Primary focal impaired awareness refers to when they are not aware the seizure is occurring. These types of seizures are most commonly originating at the temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Name some of the motor features associated with a focal seizure

A

Jacksonian march, lip-smacking, blinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Name some of the non-motor features associated with a focal seizure

A

déjà vu

Hallucination

Doing things on autopilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a focal to bilateral convulsive seizure

A

A focal seizure that has spread to affect a wider network of neurons involving both hemispheres and thus eveolves to a generalised seizure, which is typically tonic-clonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the first line antiepileptic pharmaceutical therapy in managing focal seizures

A

Carbamazepine or lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the second line antiepileptic pharmaceutical therapy in managing focal seizures

A

Sodium valproate or levetiracetam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the characteristics of a generalised seizure

A
  • Involve networks on both hemispheres
  • Generalised seizures will always occur with no awareness as all loss consciousness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the first line antiepileptic pharmaceutical therapy in managing generalised seizures

A

Sodium valproate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the second line antiepileptic pharmaceutical therapy in managing generalised seizures

A

Lamotrigine or Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Name some of the types of generalised seizures

A
  • Tonic-Clonic: Stiffening and shaking
  • Tonic: Generalised muscle stiffening
  • Clonic: Rhythmic muscle jerking
  • Atonic: drop seizure
  • Myotonic: brief, shock-like jerking
  • Absence: staring blankly into space and returns back to normal after 10-20 secs
36
Q

What are the key characteristics of a generalised tonic clonic seizure

A
  • Characterised by a loss of consciousness and tonic (muscle tensing/stiffening) and clonic (muscle jerking) – typically in that order
  • May be associated with tongue biting, incontinence, groaning and irregular breathing
  • Prolonged post-ictal phase
37
Q

What is the first line antiepileptic pharmaceutical therapy in managing generalised tonic clonic seizures

A

Sodium Valproate

38
Q

What is the second line antiepileptic pharmaceutical therapy in managing generalised tonic clonic seizures

A

Lamotrigine or Carbamazepine

39
Q

What are the key characteristics of a generalised atonic seizure

A
  • Characterised by brief lapses in muscle tone
  • Lasting < 3 mins
  • Typically begin in childhood
40
Q

Atonic seizures may be indicative of what syndrome

A

Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

41
Q

Name the three types of generalised seizures that typically occur in childhood

A

Atonic seizure

Myoclonic seizure

Absence seizure

42
Q

What is the first line antiepileptic pharmaceutical therapy in managing generalised atonic seizures

A

Sodium Valproate

43
Q

What is the second line antiepileptic pharmaceutical therapy in managing generalised atonic seizures

A

Lamotrigine

44
Q

What are the key characteristics of a generalised myoclonic seizure

A
  • Characterised by sudden brief muscle contractions – almost like a sudden “jump”
  • These contractions can be of a limb, trunk or face
  • Patient usually remains conscious during these seizures
45
Q

Myoclonic seizures typically happen in children as part of what syndrome

A

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

46
Q

What is the first line antiepileptic pharmaceutical therapy in managing generalised myoclonic seizures

A

Sodium valproate

47
Q

What is the second line antiepileptic pharmaceutical therapy in managing generalised myoclonic seizures

A

Lamotrigine, levetiracetam or topiramate

48
Q

What drug should not be used in the managing of myoclonic seizures as it can worsen the seizures

A

Carbamazepine

49
Q

What are the key characteristics of a generalised absence seizure

A
  • Patients, often children, becomes blank, stares into space briefly, < 10 seconds, and then abruptly returns to normal
  • During the episode they are unaware of their surroundings and won’t respond
50
Q

What is the first line antiepileptic pharmaceutical therapy in managing generalised absence seizures

A

Sodium valproate or ethosuximide

51
Q

What drug should not be used in the managing of absence seizures as it can worsen the seizures

A

Carbamazepine

52
Q

What are the two key investigations that help support a diagnosis of epilepsy (as it is a clinical diagnosis)

A

Neuroimaging (usually MRI)

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

53
Q

What does an electroencephalogram (EEG) assess?

A

A non-invasive method of assessing and recording the electrical activity of the brain

It is not used as a sole diagnostic tool and cannot be used to exclude epilepsy, particularly if the clinical presentation supports a diagnosis of epilepsy.

54
Q

If MRI is not available or suitable what is the second line neuroimaging technique for assessing epilepsy

A

CT

55
Q

Following a single seizure, patients are typically referred to a “first fit” clinic for further assessment.

What are the assessments involved in this visit

A

The clinic involves formal assessment (history and examination) and organisation of relevant investigations (e.g. MRI, EEG) to determine whether the seizure is likely to represent epilepsy.

56
Q

What is the aim of anti-epileptic drug treatment?

A

The aim of treatment is to be seizure free on the minimum anti-epileptic medications

Ideally they should be on monotherapy with a single anti-epileptic drug

57
Q

As a general rule sodium valproate is used first-line for patients with what kind of seizures

A) Generalised

B) Focal

A

A) Generalised

58
Q

As a general rule carbamazepine is used first-line for patients with what kind of seizures

A) Generalised

B) Focal

A

B) Focal

59
Q

Ethosuximide is the 1st line therapy drug of choice for what kind of seizures

A

Absence seizures

60
Q

Carbamazepine may worsen what kind of seizures.

A

Myoclonic and absence

61
Q

In what patient group should sodium valproate use be avoided (or use should be carefully monitored)

A

Women of wearing bearing age as it is highly teratogenic

62
Q

What is the mechanism of action of sodium valproate

A

Increases GABA activity

63
Q

Name some of the adverse effects associated with sodium valproate

A

Highly teratogenic

Increase in appetite and weight gain

Alopecia: causes hair loss and when regrown it is curly

Drug induced hepatitis

Pancreatitis

Thrombocytopenia i.e. low platelet count

64
Q

What is the mechanism of action of carbamazepine

A

Sodium channel antagonist – binds to sodium channels, preventing sodium influx. Leading to an increase in their refractory period

65
Q

Name some of the adverse effects of carbamazepine

A

Agranulocytosis - increased risk of infections

Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH)

p450 enzyme inducer – commonly causes drug interactions

66
Q

What is the mechanism of action of lamotrigine

A

Sodium channel blocker – preventing sodium influx in the presynaptic terminal

67
Q

Name some of the adverse effects of lamotrigine

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Leukopenia - low WCC

68
Q

What is the mechanism of action of levetiracetam

A

Acts by binding to SV2A, interfering with synaptic vesicles and inhibiting neurotransmitter release

69
Q

What is levetiracetam used (in regards to epilepsy control)

A

Used second-line drug choice in myotonic seizures

70
Q

Name some of the adverse effects of levetiracetam

A

? teratogenic

CNS disturbance

Neuropsychiatric disturbance

71
Q

What is the mechanism of action of phenytoin

A

Sodium channel antagonist – binds to sodium channels increasing their refractory period

72
Q

When is phenytoin used (in the control of epilepsy)

A

No longer used first-line due to side-effect profile

However does give excellent seizure control in difficult cases (only used under the guidance of specialists)

73
Q

Name some of the adverse effects of phenytoin

A

P450 enzyme inducer

Folate and vit D deficiency

Megaloblastic anaemia (folate deficiency)

Osteomalacia (vitamin D deficiency)

Gum hypertrophy

Cerebellar atrophy

74
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ethosuximide

A

Calcium channel blocker – inhibits the T-type calcium channels in the presynaptic terminal. Calcium influx drives neurotransmitter release

75
Q

When is ethosuximide used (in epilepsy control)

A

Used first line in absence seizures

76
Q

Name some of the adverse effects of ethosuximide

A

Night terrors

Rashes

77
Q

Generally patients cannot drive for how long following a seizure

A

6 months

78
Q

For patients with established epilepsy they must be fit free for how long before being able to drive

A

12 months

79
Q

Name some of the complications of epilepsy

A
  • Status epilepticus
  • Depression
  • Suicide
  • Sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP) - thought to be due to excessive electrical activity causing a cardiac arrhythmia and death.
80
Q

Define Status epilepticus

A
  • Defined as continuous seizure activity, which has failed to self-terminate.
  • Medical emergency
81
Q

Name the two criteria which can be used to diagnosis status epilepticus

A
  • A single epileptic seizures lasting > 30 minutes
  • A run of epileptic seizures (≥2) without regaining consciousness between episodes
82
Q

What is the 1st line therapy for status epilepticus

A

Benzodiazepine

83
Q

In what form is the Benzodiazepine given in status epilepticus

A
  • IV lorazepam 4mg
  • Rectal diazepam 10mg*
  • Buccal midazolam 10mg*

* if you do not have access

84
Q

If the seizures are still ongoing (in status epilepticus) despite the initial dose of Benzodiazepine.

What is the 2nd line treatment

A

2nd dose of Benzodiazepine

85
Q

If the seizures are still ongoing (in status epilepticus) despite the 1st and 2nd dose of Benzodiazepine.

What is the 3rd line treatment

A

IV loading of anti-epileptic medication e.g. phenytoin (alternatives are sodium valproate or levetiracetam)

NOTE: When giving phenytoin ensure ECG monitoring as it can lead to significant arrhythmias