Epigenetics, Stem Cells & Development Flashcards

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1
Q

For multicellular organisms, tissue/organ formation and cell replacement depends on:

A

Specific patterns of cell division

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2
Q

Match the following terms to their definitions:

1) Symmetric division
2) Asymmetric cell division
3) Cell lineage
4) Lineage tracing

A) the developmental history of a differentiated cell as traced back to the cell from which it arises.

B) two daughter cells are identical to each other and to the parent cell

C) labels cells (ex: fluorescent label) and track the progress of cell division + differentiation

D) two daughter cells may differ in size, shape, protein composition, gene expression and have different fates: they can be different from the parent cell and from each other OR one daughter identical to parent, other daughter cell different.

A

Symmetric division: two daughter cells are identical to each other and to the parent cell

Asymmetric cell division: two daughter cells may differ in size, shape, protein composition, gene expression and have different fates: they can be different from the parent cell and from each other OR one daughter identical to parent, other daughter cell different.

Cell lineage: the developmental history of a differentiated cell as traced back to the cell from which it arises.

Lineage tracing: labels cells (ex: fluorescent label) and track the progress of cell division + differentiation

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3
Q

For stem cell asymmetric division, what do the daughter cells look like?

A

One daughter - identical to parent stem cell

One daughter cell - matures into a differentiated cell type

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4
Q

Asymmetric cell division can enable _______ stem cell or __________ cell production or ___________ of stem cell production.

A

Increased; Differentiated; Maintenance

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5
Q

While a zygote is ___________, stem cells can be pluripotent or _________.

___________ stem cells take on cellular functions.

A

Totipotent (can be differentiated into anything)

Multipotent (can give rise to only some lineages)

Differentiated

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6
Q

What are hematopoietic stem cells (HSC)?

A

Hematopoietic stem cells are MULTIPOTENT stem cells that generate blood cells throughout an individual’s life.

HSC from human bone marrow can divide to produce more HSCs. HSC daughter cells are capable of becoming a different progenitor and differentiated cell types.

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7
Q

What are the five master transcription factors? How do they achieve their functions?

A

aka YAMANAKA factors: Oct4, Sox2, Nanog, KIf4, and Myc. These control ES (embryonic stem) cell pluripotency.

With the right combination of these, a cell can become any other kind of cell. They:

1) Activate genes for self-renewal, pluripotency
2) They repress genes that induce specific differentiation pathways

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8
Q

The master TFs bind to own promoter as well as to promoters of others, causing a ____________ __________ loop.

A

Positive autoregulatory

These activate transcription of each of these genes.

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9
Q

The master TFs also bind to the transcription-control regions of many ________ genes.

They _______ genes encoding proteins for the proliferation and self-renewal of ES cells.

They _________ genes that are typically silenced in undifferentiated ES cells and that encode proteins essential for the formation of many differentiated cell types.

A

downstream
activate
repress

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10
Q

What happens if the Yamanaka factors are virally inserted into differentiated fibroblasts?

A

The cells will de-differentiate into induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs).

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11
Q

Like embryonic stem cells, iPSCs can give rise to progeny of all _____ germ layers (________, ________, and __________)

A

Three; mesoderm, ectoderm, endoderm

Ectoderm (outer layer)
Mesoderm (middle layer)
Endoderm (internal layer)

*stem cells of fertilized eggs form three distinct embryonic germ layers (so do iPSCs)

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12
Q

(T/F) The ectoderm becomes skin, CNS, and pigment cells, while mesoderm becomes notochord, bones, kidney, head and RBCs, and endoderm becomes stomach, thyroid, and lung cells.

A

True!

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13
Q

Briefly describe medical uses of iPS cells.

A

If a patient has a disease caused at a molecular/cellular level like a neurodegenerative disorder caused by neurons (Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis), extracting neurons/glial cells from living humans can’t be simply extracted to analyze or culture.

Therefore if you take their skin cells, you can over express YAMANAKA factors and create iPS cells. These have two uses:

1) If you know the disease-causing mutation, you can GENE TARGET to repair the DNA sequence and differentiate the iPS into neurons affected by the disease and transplant these into the patient’s brain.

2) You can differianted the iPS cells into the affected neuronal subtype carrying mutation and test/screen for drugs that their neurons respond to best.

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14
Q

What are morphogens? What does its gradient help establish?

A

Morphogens are signals that induce different cell fates depending on their concentration at their target cells.

Morphogen gradients help establish CELL DIFFERENTIATION, the BODY AXES, ORIENTATION + PATTERNING of tissues and organs.

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15
Q

(T/F) Wnt and Hh are morphogens.

A

True!

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16
Q

What happens when morphogens diffuse farther and farther away from secreting cells?

A

Their concentration decreases.

Morphogen concentration induces different fates in target cells; cells that detect a large amount of morphogens turn on certain genes and form certain structures, while cells that detect a smaller amount turn on different genes and so form different structures.

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17
Q

While the Wnt RNA is expressed in both the anterior and posterior wound sites, the Wnt inhibitor ________ is only expressed at the _______ wound site in adult planaria.

This forms a ______-__-______ gradient of Wnt protein.

A

Notum; Anterior

Posterior-to-anterior

*planaria is a worm
*gradients of Wnt are essential for normal regeneration of a head and a tail by planaria

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18
Q

(T/F) After 14 days in culture, the excised body piece from the middle of the body of the planaria regenerates a normal, smaller, worm with a head from the posterior and a tail from the anterior.

A

False!

After 14 days in culture, the excised body piece from the middle of the body of the planaria regenerates a normal, smaller, worm with a head from the ANTERIOR and a tail from the POSTERIOR.

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19
Q

β-catenin, stabilized by addition of ____ to cells, causes expression of genes that promote _____ formation in planarians.

Inhibition of Wnt/β-catenin signaling by _____ causes a _____ to be formed.

Therefore, if you inhibit/lose β-catenin, you will have ____-_____ planarian.

If you inhibit Notum, you will have a _____-_____ planarian.

A

Wnt; tail

Notum; head

Two-headed planarian

Two-tailed planarian

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20
Q

What is a sonic hedgehog (Shh)?

A

Sonic hedgehog (Shh) is a morphogenetic ligand of the Hh pathway. As a morphogen, its protein polarizes the developing limb.

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21
Q

Sonic hedgehog is expressed in the nervous system, gut and the limb bud and carniofacial structures of a 3-day chick embryo.

What happens when you implant the Shh-producing cells into the anterior of the developing limb?

A

You mirror duplication of posterior of the developing limb.

The anterior begins to develop like the posterior of the developing chick wing.

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22
Q

What happened to the sheep that ate Veratrum Californicum early in pregnancy?

A

The alkaloid (cyclopamine) made by the plant inhibits cholesterol synthesis, which is needed for Hedgehog production and reception.

Shh is expressed in the developing face. Inhibiting its production and reception led to a one eye sheep, a cyclops.

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23
Q

Match the following genes of dorsophila melanogaster to their definitions:

1) Maternal Axis-determining genes
2) Gap genes
3) Pair-rule genes
4) Segment polarity genes
5) Homeotic genes

A) Enable the expression of pair-rule genes. When you mutate these genes, the whole genes are gone; resembling a gap.

B) Divide the embryo into segment-sized units along the anterior-posterior axis.

C) Deposited by the female fly. These form gradients and regions of MORPHOGENETIC proteins. These proteins are TFs that activate the gap genes.

D) Master regulator genes that direct the development of particular body segments or structures.

E) Divides the embryo into regions about two segments wide into a series of stripes (odd/even).

A

1) Maternal axis-determining genes: Deposited by the female fly. These form gradients and regions of MORPHOGENETIC proteins. These proteins are TFs that activate the gap genes.

2) Gap genes: Enable the expression of pair-rule genes. When you mutate these genes, the whole genes are gone; resembling a gap.

3) Pair-rule genes: Divides the embryo into regions about two segments wide into a series of stripes (odd/even).

4) Segment polarity genes: Divide the embryo into segment-sized units along the anterior-posterior axis.

5) Homeotic genes: Master regulator genes that direct the development of particular body segments or structures.

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24
Q

The different genes (axis-determining, gap, pair-rule, segment polarity) define the _______ _______ of the ______ genes that define the identities of each of the segments.

A

Spatial domains; homeotic

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25
Q

What are bicoid and nanos?

What do they activate?

A

Bicoid and nanos are morphogens that are originally depostied as mRNAs by the mother fly.

These translate into morphogens and form a COORDINATE SYSTEM based on their RATIOS.

Each position along the axis is distinguished from any other position. When the nuclei divide, each nucleus is given its positional information by the ratio of the proteins.

These gradients activate the TRANSCRIPTION of genes specifying the segmental identities of the larva and the adult fly.

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26
Q

Theres a greater concentration of bicoid in the ______ position of the fly and a greater concentration of nanos in the ________ position.

A

Anterior; Posterior

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27
Q

What is “find it, move it, lose it”?

A

It is a saying that determine what certain genes do:

Find where genes are expressed

Move the genes to where they are not expressed; WHAT CAN THEY DO WHERE THEY DON’T BELONG?

Lose the gene by mutating the gene; WHAT IS IT NECESSARY TO DO?

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28
Q

Give an example of “find it, move it, lose it”.

A

For example: Bicoid mRNA is located in the anterior side (FIND IT).

When you add bicoid in the middle of embryo, a head forms in the middle and tails form in the ends (MOVE IT).

When bicoid is removed (LOSE IT); a tail forms in the anterior side.

Looking at the experiment, we can tell that bicoid promoters anterior formation and suppresses posterior formation.

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29
Q

What is the even-skipped gene?

A

Even-skipped is a PAIR-RULE GENE.

Specific promoter regions of the even-skipped gene control specific transcription bands (stripes 1-7) in the embryo.

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30
Q

The enhancer element for stripe 2 in the even skipped gene contains binding sequences for several _______ and ______ gene proteins.

A

maternal; gap

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31
Q

(T/F) In the even-skipped gene, every activator site is closely related to the repressor site, suggesting COMPETITIVE INTERACTIONS at these positions.

A

True!

Moreover, a protein that is a repressor for stripe 2 may be an activator for stripe 5; it depends which proteins bind next to them.

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32
Q

Wings of the wild-type fruit fly emerge from the _______ __________ segment.

A four winged fly is constructed by putting together _____ mutations in cis-regulators of the ____________ gene.

These mutations transform the ____ thoracic segment into another _____ thoracic segment.

A

Second thoracic

3; Ultrabithorax

third; second

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33
Q

(T/F) In the center of hox genes, there are genes of the antennapedia and bithorax complexes.

A

True!

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34
Q

What are the three major molecular epigenetic mechanisms?

A

1) MicroRNAs

2) DNA methylation

3) Histone modifications

35
Q

What are microRNAs (miRNAs)?

A

Small, endogenous cellular RNAs (20-30 nts long) that are processed from double-stranded regions of hairpin secondary structures in long precursor RNAs.

They do not encode proteins but rather RNAs! They hybridize to the 3’ UNTRANSLATED REGIONS of specific target mRNAs and set up a cascade to destroy them.

36
Q

(T/F) miRNAs were first discovered in the lin-4 and let-7 genes of C.elegnas that influence the development of the organism.

lin-4 miRNA hybridizes to the 3’ UTR of lin-28 mRNAs and destabilize them and repress translation.

A

True!

37
Q

The expression of ____% of human genes is regulated by one or more of the ____ human miRNAs.

A

60; 556

38
Q

What is the difference between miRNAs and siRNAs?

A

miRNA:
- represses translation of mRNAs
- hybridize IMPERFECTLY with target mRNAs
- miRNA nucleotides 2-7 are the most critical for targeting it to a specific mRNA 3’ UTR

siRNA:
- causes cleavage of mRNA, triggering its RAPID degradation
- hybridizes PERFECTLY with target mRNAs
- can be designed to experimentally inhibit the expression of specific genes

39
Q

RNA polymerase ____ transcribes primary miRNA transcripts

A

II

*miRNA folds to form double strand region

40
Q

Match the following steps of miRNA biogenesis/processing:

1) Step 1
2) Step 2
3) Step 3
4) Step 4

A) Dicer in conjunction with TRBP (double-stranded RNA-binding protein) processes pre-miRNA into a double-stranded miRNA with a two-base single-stranded 3’end. miRNA no longer a hairpin.

B) Nuclear double-strand RNA-specific endoribonuclease (DROSHA) and double-strand RNA-binding protein (DGCR8) bind pri-miRNA double strand regions. Drosha cleaves the pri-mRNA, generating a ~70 nucleotide pre-miRNA.

C) RISC complex incorporates mature miRNA into complex with Argonaute proteins (now miRNA is ss).

D) Exportin 5 (nuclear transporter) transports processed pri-miRNA to the cytoplasm

A

Step 1: Nuclear double-strand RNA-specific endoribonuclease (DROSHA) and double-strand RNA-binding protein (DGCR8) bind pri-miRNA double strand regions. Drosha cleaves the pri-mRNA, generating a ~70 nucleotide pre-miRNA.

Step 2: Exportin 5 (nuclear transporter) transports processed pri-miRNA to the cytoplasm

Step 3: Dicer in conjunction with TRBP (double-stranded RNA-binding protein) processes pre-miRNA into a double-stranded miRNA with a two-base single-stranded 3’end. miRNA no longer a hairpin. MOST CRITICAL STEP

Step 4: RISC complex incorporates mature miRNA into complex with Argonaute proteins (now miRNA is ss).

41
Q

The double-strand RNA binding proteins, DGCR8 is ________ and TRBP is ________ in Drosophila .

A

Pasha; Loquacious

42
Q

How does the miRNAs inhibit mRNA translation?

A

miRNA-RISC complexes associate with target mRNPs by base pairing between Argonaute-bound mature miRNA and complementary regions in the 3’ UTRs of target mRNAS.

The more RISC complexes bound to the 3’ UTR of an mRNA, the greater the repression of translation.

Alternative polyadenylation increases miRNA control options.

43
Q

(T/F) miRNAs don’t 100% complement to mRNAs so they can bind to 3’UTR regions of many mRNAs. This allows them to be flexible!

A

True af

44
Q

Let-7 miRNAs _______ the translation of Ras (an oncogene) mRNA.

Thus, in the absence of the miRNAs, Ras is ________, contributing to __________.

A

repress

overproduced; tumorigenesis

45
Q

What is miR-21?

A

A miRNA that is over expressed in most solid tumors.

This miRNA targets several tumor SUPPRESSOR genes, among them the gene encoding the PTEN phosphatase, which normally inhibits the PI3K kinase signal transduction pathway.

46
Q

(T/F) A general theme that emerges in the study of miRNAs in cancer is that each miRNA has multiple targets and therefore ample opportunities to contribute to tumorigenesis.

A

True!

47
Q

(T/F) miRNAs strictly remain in the cell they are transcribed and processed in.

A

False!

miRNAs can be detected in various human body fluids and can be reported as potential non-invasive DIAGNOSTIC MARKERS for many types of cancers/disease.

48
Q

miRNAs can be transmitted in:

A

1) Breast milk
2) Saliva
3) Seminal fluid

49
Q

What is Ant Trophallaxis?

A

Trophallaxis is the transfer of food or other fluids among members of a community through mouth-to-mouth or anus-to-mouth feeding as a form of communication.

These fluids have miRNAs so miRNAs can socially transferred!

50
Q

Which miRNAs are in ant social fluids that are conserved in humans?

A

Mir-92b, 375, 190 and 184

51
Q

Changes in diet, influences ___________ hormones and ___________ mechanisms (miRNAs, DNA methylation and histone modifications).

This can lead to significant changes in _____ activity.

Differential gene expression can lead to development of different tissues and organs.

A

Developmental; epigenetic

Gene

52
Q

Why does a larvae that is exposed to beebread/pollen turn into a worker bee while a larvae that is exposed to royal jelly turn into a queen bee?

A

There is high plant miRNA level of miR162a in pollen.

miR162a inhibits gene expression levels of the critical cell-signaling pathway regulator TOR, which regulates transcription, ribosome biogenesis and translation.

TOR is very important for queen development. miR16a found in pollen suppresses TOR, shutting off queen’s program, leading to more WORKERS!

*queen bees eat royal jelly which has low plant miRNA level.

53
Q

Plants can produce miRNAs (like miR162a) and bind to bees influencing bee’s gene activity. What benefit does this bring to the plant?

A

miR162a stimulates worker genes; more worker bees, leading to cross pollinating more plants!

54
Q

During early embryogenesis, DNA is mostly devoid of ____________. Post implantation, de novo methylation begins, mediated primarily by ___________.

When methylation affects ______ islands, methyl-binding proteins trigger a SILENCING CASCADE whereby histone H3K9 is sequentially __________ and then _________, allowing heterochromatin protein 1 (HP1) to bind; eventually resulting in __________ chromatin.

A

methylation; DNA (cytosine-5-)-methyltransferase-3 (DNMT3)

CpG; deacetylated; methylated; closed

55
Q

Methylation pattern established during embryogenesis by de novo methyltransferase _________ and __________ which is maintained by __________ following DNA replication.

A

DNMT3A; DNMT3B; DNMT1

Methylation pattern (methylated –> silenced –> hemi-methylated –> restored methylation –> unmethhylated –> methylated)

56
Q

(T/F) After DNA replication, newly synthesized DNA is unmethylated. However, DNMT1 rapidly scans DNA and deposits methyl groups on newly synthesized DNA, opposite methyl groups present on the old DNA strand.

A

True!

This results in faithful replication of methylation patterns and the MAINTENANCE OF SILENCING.

57
Q

How and when are adult patterns of methylation mostly erased?

A

Adult patterns of methylation are mostly erased by epigenetic reprogramming in early embryogenesis.

58
Q

How does DNA methylation affect gene expression?

A

1) direct interference with binding of TFs to DNA

2) recruitment of proteins containing a methylated-DNA binding domain (MBD) –> establishment of a repressive chromatin environment

59
Q

What is 5-azacytidine?

A

5-azacytidine is a chemical analogue of cytidine.

When incorporated into growing strands, it inhibits action of DNA methyltransferases that normally methylate DNA.

60
Q

What facilitates cytosine to become 5-methyl cytosine?

When does it occur? What can this lead to?

A

1) DNMT (adds methyl group to cytosine)
2) S-adenosyl-metionine (gives methyl group)

Methylation occurs when 1’ N of the cytosine is bound to a CG.

5-methyl cytosine leads to profound effects on gene expression + regulation.

61
Q

What are the three major aspects/properties of DNA methylation?

A

1) Reversible
2) Environmentally-sensitive
3) Heritable transmission (transmitted to one cell to another & one organism generation to second generation)

62
Q

DNA __________ done by _______________ (enzyme?) leads to gene transcription being OFF while DNA _________ done by _____________ (enzyme?) leads to gene transcription being ON.

A

Methylation; DNA Methyltransferases

Demethylation; DNA DeMethylases

63
Q

(T/F) DNA methylation regulates coat color plasticity in mice.

A

True!

Dietary folate (methyl donor for SAM) affects pigmentation of mice by affecting the methylation of a Transposon. Methylated transposon suppresses gene activity.

64
Q

(T/F) The Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor (Egfr) is a key locus for sizing in ants which can be qualitatively regulated by DNA methylation.

A

False!

The Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor (Egfr) is a key locus for sizing in ants which can be QUANTITATIVELY regulated by DNA methylation.

65
Q

Match the following terms to their definitions:

1) Intergenerational inheritance

2) Transgenerational inheritance

A) Progeny which were NOT EXPOSED DIRECTLY (neither in the uterus nor as germ cells) to the environmental changes are NEVERTHELESS AFFECTED, and therefore an inheritance mechanism which amplifies the original response is likely in place.

B) The effect is observed in the F1 and F2 progeny of the animals exposed to the environmental trigger. In these cases, the embryo (F1) or its germ cells (F2) might be DIRECTLY exposed to the environmental cue in utero. The ones not directly exposed do not show effects. “Parental effects.”

A

1) Intergenerational inheritance: The effect is observed in the F1 and F2 progeny of the animals exposed to the environmental trigger. In these cases, the embryo (F1) or its germ cells (F2) might be DIRECTLY exposed to the environmental cue in utero. The ones not directly exposed do not retain phenotype. “Parental effects.”

2) Transgenerational inheritance: Progeny which were NOT EXPOSED DIRECTLY (neither in the uterus nor as germ cells) to the environmental changes are NEVERTHELESS AFFECTED, and therefore an inheritance mechanism which amplifies the original response is likely in place.

66
Q

(T/F) DNA methylation can be caused by the plastic bisphenol A (BPA), which can be found in our water. It is an example of a Transgenerational Epigenetic Inheritance (TEI).

A

True!

67
Q

What is the histone code?

A

Specific post-transcriptional modification (PTMs) combinations (done by WRITERS and ERASERS) in different chromatin regions specifically influence chromatin function by creating or removing chromatin-associated protein (READERS)- binding sites.

68
Q

What are the four post-transcriptional modifications (PTMs)?

A

1) Methylation
2) Acetylation
3) Ubiquitination
4) Phosphorylation

69
Q

__________, ___________, and _________ modify and interpret the histone code. They also are influenced by environmental factors. Histones can therefore mediate _______-__-_________ interactions.

A

Writers, Erases, Readers

Gene-by-Environment

70
Q

Match the terms with their definitions:

1) Writers
2) Readers
3) Erasers

A) Bind to the modifications. Using specialized domains.
B) Remove the modifications. Introduced by the writers.
C) Introduce modifications. On DNA and histone tails.

A

1) Writers: Introduce modifications. On DNA and histone tails.

2) Readers: Bind to the modifications. Using specialized domains.

3) Erasers: Remove the modifications. Introduced by the writers.

71
Q

(T/F) There is an ancient conservation of the histone code.

A

True.

Enzymes involved are evolutionally conserved.

72
Q

How does chromatin condensation inactivates gene transcription?

A

It blocks RNA polymerases and general transcription factors from interacting with gene promoters.

73
Q

What are the functions of repressor proteins?

A

They may bind to transcription-control elements to inhibit transcription initiation by Polymerase II.

They can also interact with multiprotein co-repressor complexes to CONDENSE chromatin.

74
Q

What are the functions of pioneer transcription factors?

A

They bind to a specific regulatory sequence within a CONDENSED chromatin.

They interact with chromatin-remodeling enzymes and histone acetylases that DECONDENSE the chromatin, making it accessible to RNA polymerase II and general TFs.

75
Q

Induction of a particular gene by a transcription factor depends not only on binding sites for the factor, but also on the gene’s ________ _____ and on the presence of master TFs and other nuclear proteins.

A

Epigenetic State

76
Q

Heterochromatin is the _________/________ state of DNA, while euchromatin is the _________/_______.

A

Inactive/condensed

Active/open

*open chromatin is accessible for TFs

77
Q

Histone N-terminal tail modifications differ in heterochromatin and euchromatin, tails generally are much more extensively __________ in euchromatin than in heterochromatin.

A

Acetylated

78
Q

What do Histone H3K9 methyl transferase and HP1 (Heterochromatin Protein 1) do?

A

Open chromatin –> closed chromatin

First, open chromatin is trimethylated at lysine 9 in the N-terminal tails by H3K9 methyl transferase.

Then, HP1 binds to histone H3 N-terminal tails trimethylated at lysine 9, and condense the heterochromatin.

HP1 also associates with other histone-bound HP1 molecules. It makes tri-methylated open chromatin –> closed chromatin.

79
Q

How can heterochromatin condensation spread along a chromosome?

A

HP1 binds a histone methyltransferase (H3K9 HMT) that methylates lysine 9 of a histone H3 in an adjacent nucleosome, which creates a binding site for another HP1 on the neighboring.

*spread of methylation

80
Q

Ume6 repressor-directed DEACETYLATION of histone N-terminal tails contains DBD, RD, and Rpd3. Match the terms with their definitions:

1) DBD (DNA binding domain)
2) RD (Repression domain)
3) Rpd3

A) HISTONE DEACETYLASE - deacetylates histone N-terminal tails on nucleosomes in the region of the Ume6-binding site (Ume6 is a repressor). It inhibits TFs from binding to the TATA box, and REPRESSES gene expression.

B) Interacts with a specific URS1 (upstream control element) of the genes it regulates.

C) Binds Sin3, a subunit of a multiprotein complex that includes Rpd3.

A

1) DBD (DNA binding domain): interacts with a specific URS1 (upstream control element) of the genes it regulates.

2) RD (Repression domain): binds Sin3, a subunit of a multiprotein complex that includes Rpd3.

3) Rpd3: HISTONE DEACETYLASE - deacetylates histone N-terminal tails on nucleosomes in the region of the Ume6-binding site (Ume6 is a repressor). It inhibits TFs from binding to the TATA box, and REPRESSES gene expression.

*in yeast, similar mechanism in higher eukaryotes

81
Q

While _________ of histone N-terminal tails leads to repression of gene expression, ____________ leads to activation of gene expression.

A

Deaceylation; Hyperacetylation

82
Q

Gnc4 repressor-directed HYPERACETYLATION of histone N-terminal tails contains DBD, AD, and Gnc5. Match the terms with their definitions:

1) DBD (DNA binding domain)
2) AD (Activation domain)
3) Gnc5

A) Hyperacetylates histone N-terminal tails on nucleosomes in the vicinity of the Gcn4-binding site. It DECONDENSES chromatin to facilitate access of TFs to the TATA box, activating gene expression.

B) Interacts with specific UPSTREAM ACTIVATING SEQUENCES (UAS) of the genes it regulates.

C) Interacts with a multiprotein SAGA (histone acetylase complex) that includes the Gnc5 catalytic subunit.

A

DBD (DNA binding domain): Interacts with specific UPSTREAM ACTIVATING SEQUENCES (UAS) of the genes it regulates.

AD (Activation domain): Interacts with a multiprotein SAGA (histone acetylase complex) that includes the Gnc5 catalytic subunit.

Gnc5: Hyperacetylates histone N-terminal tails on nucleosomes in the vicinity of the Gcn4-binding site. It DECONDENSES chromatin to facilitate access of TFs to the TATA box, activating gene expression.

*in yeast, similar mechanism in higher eukaryotes

83
Q

H3 lysine 9 methylation is maintained following __________ ___________.

A

Chromosome replication

84
Q

How is the maintenance of histone H3 lysine 9 methylation during chromosome replication done?

A

Following DNA replication, parent histones randomly associate with the two daughter chromosomes.

Unmethylated histones synthesized during S phase assemble into other nucleosomes in both daughter chromosomes. Histone H3 lysine 9 methyl transferases.

This mechanism maintains histone H3 lysine 9 methylation marks during repeated cell divisions, unless removed by histone demethylase.