EOG300 Flashcards

1
Q

Apparatus placement at a fire scene is dependent on many factors:

A
  • function of the apparatus
  • tactical positions based on visual fire conditions
  • wind conditions
  • possible rescue situations
  • water supply requirements
  • exposure potential
  • terrain
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2
Q

Apparatus should be positioned with the consideration of_________________________.

A

Present fire conditions and an aggressive evaluation of fire spread potential.

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3
Q

Do not drive all fire apparatus directly to the fire. Later arriving companies should_______________.

A

Level 1 stage until assigned.

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4
Q

Hoselines should be laid with attention to_____________.

A

Access problems.

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5
Q

The first 6 letters SAWCSS are________ throughout the incident.

A

Ongoing.

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6
Q

The remainder of the items RECEO with a floating VSS represent a_____________.

A

Fire incident sequence of operations.

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7
Q

The next three items VSS are_______.

A

Floating.

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8
Q

At working structure fires, the first two benchmarks are reported on the radio (_____ and_____)

A

All clear and under control.

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9
Q

-
-.

A

Number, location and condition of victims.
Realistic ability to rescue victims
Protection in place vs evacuation.

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10
Q

As quickly as fire control is achieved, the IC should conduct a ___________________.

A

Secondary search for victims.

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11
Q

Secondary means of egress (aerial devices, ground ladders, etc.) Must be utilized in their order of _______.

A

Effectiveness.

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12
Q

A critical command decision ( both initial and on going) relates to the__________________________.

A

Strategic mode of operations.

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13
Q

Time becomes an extremely important factor with regard to _____________.

A

Attack operations.

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14
Q

The most effective tactical analysis involves an ______________________________________.

A

Evaluation of what is not burning rather than what is actually on fire.

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15
Q

The unburned portion represents where the fire is going and should establish the ______________________________________.

A

Framework for fire control requirements.

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16
Q

Support activities generally include ( but are not limited to):

A

Ventilation
Utility control
Scene lighting

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17
Q

To ensure that these three critical support functions are accomplished on every structure fire, the company assigned to ventilation will be responsible to provide ___________________________.

A

Lighting and control the utilities.

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18
Q

Fire stream selection should consider__________________________________.

A

Fire size and location, fireground strategy, and the water supply available.

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19
Q

When applying master streams, a ___________ is most effective most of the time.

A

Solid bore.

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20
Q

1 3/4 preconnect and SM20F fog nozzle delivers about ____ gpm at the TFD recommended pump pressure (____).

A

100, 110 psi.

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21
Q

SM30F fog nozzles are primarily used on 3 inch, however when used on 1 3/4 or 2 inch lines. The officer can expect a ____ % increase in flow on 1 3/4 lines.

A

25

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22
Q

Automatic nozzles vary their flow to keep the nozzle pressure at ____.

A

100 psi.

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23
Q

The fog tip of TFD high rise nozzles is a low pressure, Constant gallonage nozzle which provides_________ (or greater) nozzle pressure. This feature is provided for sandpiper that have___________.

A

150 gpm at 75 psi.
Pressure reducing valves.

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24
Q

Beyond its primary use as high rise firefighting line, it is also effective for other uses:

A

Extending a 1 3/4 preconnect or bumper line.
Replacing a broken section of 1 3/4
Making up a large flow, maneuverable handline.

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25
Q

3 inch lines provide flows in the range of ____-____ (depending on _____,______and_____).

A

210-350 gpm.
Length, pdp and nozzle.

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26
Q

When applying a master stream (other that a RAM) the standard minimum flow is ______.

A

1000 gpm.

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27
Q

The class B foam concentrate used by TFD is mixed at _____ concentration for any liquid fuel (hydrocarbon or polar solvent).

A

3 %

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28
Q

Anytime a significant amount of foam is needed (more than ____ or whats carried on ___), the IC should call for the TFD foam trailer to respond.

A

80, 2 engines.

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29
Q

The physical resources staff will bring this trailer with ______ gallons of the appropriate foam and foam transfer equipment.

A

750.

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30
Q

At 1000 gpm, 5 inch hose has a friction loss of ____ per _____ ft.

A

5 to 6 psi, 100

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31
Q

When the anticipated fire flow exceeds the capacity of two preconne to and or the distance to the hydrant is over ____ feet, 3 inch supply line should not be used.

A

300.

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32
Q

As life safety and incident stabilization benchmarks are obtained, the effort changes to a _____ and _____ effort.

A

Property conservation, loss control.

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33
Q

High-rise: groups operating within the building will ensure that they area equipped with a minimum if ________.

A

Two forcible entry tools.

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34
Q

When possible, rope may be used as guidelines when moving out from the core area remembering never to attach the rope to a _____ or ____ due to the possibility of _______.

A

Firefighter, rescuer, entanglement.

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35
Q

When advancing into smoke areas or fire areas from stairways, members should_____________ to ensure that the fire is not travelling overhead.

A

Remove some of the acoustical tiles in hanging ceilings.

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36
Q

Examine ______ (cocklofts) for heat and smoke, both for fire spread and when searching for the fire location.

A

Plenum areas.

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37
Q

Engines supplying water shall utilize hydrants within the _____ perimeter but as close to its outer boundary as possible.

A

300 feet.

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38
Q

Horizontal ventilation should be accomplished on the ___________ side only, if possible, especially on _________ where strong winds can be expected.

A

Leeward, upper floors.

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39
Q

Before ventilating consider _____, _____, and, ______.

A

Outside Temperature, the wind direction, the location of the fire.

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40
Q

In a working fire, control of a stair shaft or a vertical escape passage must be gained before__________ floor.

A

Placing firefighters above the fire.

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41
Q

The district chief from the third alarm assignment will be assigned as____. Subsequent arriving officers will be assigned as____,____, and ____.

A

Operations.
Base, logistics, and planning.

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42
Q

Safe refuges are located a minimum of _________.

A

Three floors below fire floor, five floors above fire floor.

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43
Q

After occupants are in refuge areas and building is all clear, begin a systematic floor by floor evacuation once determined safe to do so by___.

A

Operations.

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44
Q

Rescue/evacuation: recommended personnel, minimum of ___ companies for____ endangered floor to be searched. Minimum of ___ for each floor that needs____.

A

2, each.
1, evacuated.

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45
Q

Staging is set up at least _____ below fire floor.

A

2.

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46
Q

As resources are used from staging, request additional resources from ____.

A

Base.

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47
Q

Normally, ____ companies should be kept at base for each company held at _____.

A

2, staging.

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48
Q

Stairwell support- one member per ____. One officer per____ members.

A

2 floors.
4/5.

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49
Q

Phase II can be a valuable _____ tool.

A

Search and rescue or medical emergency.

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50
Q

The investigation group on business fire alarms may use elevators under the following conditions:

A

The fire alarm does not show multiple trips.
The group members are trained in the operation, use and methods of escape from elevators.
The elevator is equipped with ANSI fire service phase I and II features.

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51
Q

The ___ or ____ may deem elevator use appropriate during a working fire.

A

IC, Operations.

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52
Q

Avoid taking an elevator to the top floor served by any bank of elevators or to a floor where _________.

A

A partial stairwell terminates.

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53
Q

Where smoke is reported on several floors, get off the elevator a minimum of ____ below the ______ where smoke is reported.

A

Two floors, lowest floor.

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54
Q

Before entering the elevator, firefighters are to note___________.

A

The direction of the stairway and the distance to it.

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55
Q

No more than ___ firefighters are to use the elevator at one time.

A

6

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56
Q

Lobby control is to record________,___, and_______ of each group that enters an ____.

A

car and crew designation.
Elevator.

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57
Q

Rather than ascending directly to the floor two floors below the fire, the trip should consists of a series of precautionary stops, every ____ floors.

A

5.

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58
Q

Modern vehicles fires contain greater than ___% plastic.

A

50.

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59
Q

Airbags remain activated and charged via a ____.

A

Capacitor.

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60
Q

Depending on the vehicle, they may remain charged from____________ after the battery is disconnected.

A

30 seconds up to several minutes.

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61
Q

Fire stream selection for vehicle fires. The officer should choose a size and type of ______ that is appropriate for the size of____.

A

Fire stream, the fire.

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62
Q

The main challenge with vehicle fire is___________.

A

Gaining access to the seat of the fire.

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63
Q

When completing an incident reporting in firehouse, the officer will need the following information:

A

Owner information: name, address, phone.
Make, model, year.
VIN.
Tag number.

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64
Q

A slight decrease in relative humidity will cause_________.

A

A significant increase in fore intensity.

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65
Q

Between the hours of _____ the fire danger is normally the greatest when considering ________.

A

1200 and 1600, the ease of ignition and speed of flame fronts.

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66
Q

On an uphill slope, the fire will tend to crown over the top and start spot fires a considerable distance down__________.

A

The receding slope.

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67
Q

A direct water attack is _______.

A

The fastest control option available.

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68
Q

When conducting a direct/mobile attack, ____ is an effective mixture of class A foam.

A

1 %.

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69
Q

Most compactors are manually fed and are_______ that either bails material or compacts it into_________.

A

A stand alone unit, a large detachable container.

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70
Q

A compactor arrangement that is found less often has ______________.

A

Trash chutes in the building

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71
Q

In addition to extinguishing the fire in the compactor, internal exposures must be considered. Often these fires start from a_______.

A

Plugged chute.

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72
Q

When is determined that relay pumping is to be used, the TFD will use the constant pressure method(__________ hose per engine).

A

150 psi and 1000 feet of 5 inch.

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73
Q

When charged hoselines are needed, angle the apparatus so that the pump panel faces______ to protect the operator whenever possible.

A

Downstream.

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74
Q

Cone placement:
35 mph?

A

100 feet

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75
Q

Cone placement: more than 55 mph?

A

250 feet.

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76
Q

In order to save radio traffic, when calling AAA wreckers at the owners request, company officers should provide ___________.

A

The make, model, and color of the vehicle.

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77
Q

MVC extrication: if one has not been dispacthed, the IC will call for a second company. Once the second company arrives, the IC will apoint one member on the scene as _______.

A

Safety officer

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78
Q

MVC extrication: the IC will establish an ______,_______, _________.

A

Inner work circle, an outer crowd control circle, and a tool staging area (tarp).

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79
Q

All vehicles will be _____ prior to conducting operations and further stabilized as directed by the sequence of the operation. At a minimum, the vehicle should be secured from moving and ______.

A

Stabilized. The battery disabled.

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80
Q

The company officer will determine the best method of retrieving the firefighters based on _________________.

A

The ability of the company to return to service.

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81
Q

As a general guideline, the department limits individual lifting to _______.

A

75 pounds.

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82
Q

Tripped breakers do not go fully to the __________.

A

Off position.

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83
Q

Transmission lines carry up to_________.

A

345000 volts.

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84
Q

Transmission lines can be identified by the number of insulators. They will have at least ______.

A

6 insulators.

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85
Q

Within the city limits, PSO has approximately _____ of their distribution lines below grade.

A

35 %

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86
Q

Distribution lines are the lines most evident throughout the city. These lines will carry up to ______ volts. They will be ____,_____,or ______ wires.

A

34500.
Copper, aluminum, aluminum-coated steel.

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87
Q

As life safety and Incident stabilization benchmarks are obtained, the effort changes to a ___ ___ and ___ ___ effort.

A

Property conservation, loss control.

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88
Q

As resources are used from staging, request additional resources from ____.

A

base

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89
Q

Normal ventilation in a high rise structure will occur by pressurizing_____ with multiple fans, venting across the involved floors and then exhausting out the other______.

A

one stairwell, top penetrating stairwell.

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90
Q

The third alarm district chief will normally establish ____ at the most ______ (usually the same floor as ____)

A

operations, advantageous, staging.

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91
Q

stairwell support. an auxiliary water supply requires laying hose up a ___ for _____.

A

stairway, operations

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92
Q

For stairwell operations, the following guidelines will be used:
___ member per ___ floors.
___ officer per_/__ members.

A

one, two.
one, four/ five

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93
Q

To activate phase II , key the thre position car station switch to ON. this allows the elevator to be operated from________.

A

the car station only.

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94
Q

All elevator cars manufactured after 1991 must have a ___ ___ button on the car’s control panel.

A

call cancel

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95
Q

Once you arrive at the destination (usually two floors below the fire) all members should be prepared to don their face piece and move to the ________ if smoke pours in.

A

nearest stairway.

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96
Q

Company officers should ensure that all crewmembers are familiar with the operation of ____ within their run area,

A

elevators.

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97
Q

Prying a hood latch open in an invitation for an injury and is a ___ ___.

A

last resort.

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98
Q

The main challenge with vehicle fires is_______.

A

gaining access to the seat of the fire.

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99
Q

Commercial occupancies. Isolating an electrical problem to a particular floor is ______ so as to not interrupt service to the entire building.

A

the primary consideration.

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100
Q

The danger zone is the area that all persons and vehicles must be kept out of. It should extend at least_______ (distance from pole to pole) beyond damaged poles or wires.

A

one full wire span

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101
Q

Jones is the airport name, the tower is named ______.

A

Riverside ground

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102
Q

Jones, Tulsa Fire:
Alert 1:

A

First arriving engine will respond to the airport control tower area.

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103
Q

Jones, Tulsa Fire:
Alert 2:

A

Tulsa fire companies will respond directly to the control tower parking area.

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104
Q

Jones, Tulsa Fire:
Alert 3:

A

Tulsa fire companies will respond directly to the crash location and operate to best advantage after receiving clearance from the tower.

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105
Q

To cut into the fuselage of an aircraft, typically, the best place to cut is ________________.

A

around the windows, doors, and roof area.

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106
Q

Hydraulic rescue tools and pry bars do not work well on aircraft metals due to lack of ___________.

A

solid supports to work against.

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107
Q

knock down the fire immediately to reduce the fire in the critical fire area adjacent to the aircraft fuselage. Control ___ of the fire intensity within one minute.

A

90%

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108
Q

Turret operations are primarily for the________ knockdown.

A

fuel spill.

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109
Q

ARFF guides. Rescue.
Use normal exits, emergency exits, or _____, in this order.

A

force entry.

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110
Q

If the product name is highlighted in the yellow or blue bordered pages of ERG it means the product is ________.

A

an inhalation hazard.

111
Q

If the product name is highlighted in the yellow or blue bordered pages of ER, refer to special note about fire on _____ before yellow or blue bordered pages.

A

white page.

112
Q

Rope rescue: A _____ should be assigned as a safety officer.

A

competent member

113
Q

Caution!! there are approximately __ preventable confined space fatalities annually

A

67

114
Q

_____ of the fatalities are those of would-be rescuers associated with secondary entries.

A

60

115
Q

____ of those would be rescuers are professional rescuers.

A

thirty-nine

116
Q

Confined space killers:

A

complacency.
safety shortcuts
misplaced compassion

117
Q

The TFD rescue task force and hazmat shall be dispatched to or requested by the IC to any incident that involves____ entering a confined space.

A

bodily

118
Q

Confined space: an enclosed area that:

A

1- is large enough and so configured that an employe can bodily enter and perform assigned work.
2- has limited or restricted means for entry and exit
3- is not designed for continuous employee occupancy

119
Q

Permit required confined spaces have one or more of the following additional requirements.

A

Contains or has the potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere.
Contains the material that has the potential for engulfing an entrant.
has an internal configuration such that an entrant could be trapped or asphyxiated by inwardly converging walls or by a floor that slopes downward to a smaller cross section.

120
Q

CAUTION!!! cave ins in the US result in ___ to ___ fatalities and an estimated 5,000 serious injuries annually.

A

60, 100

121
Q

cave ins and collapses generally occur because of ___ ___ conditions combined with improper or inadequate shoring.

A

unstable soil

122
Q

Elevator rescues can be divided into two categories:

A

non emergency
true emergency

123
Q

If a stalled elevator does not return to the designated level upon activation of ____ , wait for the elevator mechanic.

A

phase I

124
Q

For TFD purposes there are two types of elevators:

A

Traction or cabled elevators as they are sometimes called,use a hoist motor and traction sheave.
Hydraulic elevators

125
Q

Door restrictors: located on the car doors, they prevent the opening of the car doors _____ floors

A

between

126
Q

leap frogging (polling) is an extra step that becomes necessary when there is limited ____ access.

A

hoistway

127
Q

A manual lowering rescue can be done on a _____ elevator only.

A

hydraulic

128
Q

When a company repeatedly responds to alarm system activations in a structure, the company officer will make a request through the FAO for a ______ to address the situation.

A

code enforcement officer.

129
Q

Responding to a structure for ___ or more false alarms or inadvertent activations in ___ days will be considered a repeat alarm,

A

three, three.

130
Q

If the option to break a window is selected, the __ __ should be avoided as they usually cost more to replace

A

wing window

131
Q

The animal shelter is available from _____ monday through saturday for the drop off of abandoned animals.

A

0800 to 1800

132
Q

Animal control officers are on duty from the hours of __ to ___ monday through friday.

A

0900, 1730.

133
Q

A response time of _____ minutes should be considered when requesting an ACO after hours.

A

30-45

134
Q

Set the appropriate flow rate for the animal:
- feline mask: ___ lpm
- small canine: ___ lpm
- large canine: ____ lpm

A

1-3
3-5
5-7

135
Q

Any report of an extensive area of storm damage to multiple properties by a fire company will immediately trigger an ____.

A

SDR

136
Q

A SDR notification to the FAO will initiate the dispatch of a ____ and a ____ assignment in addition to the companies that have previously been dispatched to the affected area.

A

district chief, class A.

137
Q

Upon initiation of the SDR, the assistant chief, the communications officer and or other designee will respond to ___ and prioritize incoming calls for assistance.

A

FAO.

138
Q

Helicopter transport criteria:

A

Hazardous or impassable road conditions exist resulting in delays for patients requiring transport.

Multiple victims of a serious nature requiring rapid transport.

Initial resuscitation measures have been successful and rapid transport by ground ALS is not available.

other circumstances, such as a prolonged extrication time, may occur requiring individual judgement on the use of the helicopter transport.

139
Q

(LZ) After choosing a spot that is clear, be sure it meets these requirements:

A
  • 70’ X 70’
  • no more than 2 % slope
  • The approach and take off from this perimeter should be free of obstructions at a 45 degree from grade level.
140
Q

Determine the wind direction- helicopters land and take off into the ___.

A

wind

141
Q

Marking a night landing zone: arrange two vehicles facing into the ___ with headlights crossing at the center of the LZ.

A

wind

142
Q

When working around the helicopter, always approach and depart toward the front, never from ____.

A

the rear.

143
Q

If the helicopter has landed on a slope, approach and depart from the ___ slope side only.

A

down

144
Q

While the helicopter is on the ground, keep all ground vehicles at least ____ away from the aircraft.

A

70’

145
Q

Hoselines should be laid with attention to _____.

A

Access problems

146
Q

If possible, consider spotting apparatus with a ___ plan in mind.

A

back up

147
Q

Whenever possible, an aerial apparatus should be placed ___.

A

In front of the address.

148
Q

Engine co ops.
Life safety functions:

A

*deploy hoselines to protect avenues of egress
*primary search
*secondary search
*provide extrication
* emergency medical treatment to citizens and firefighters

149
Q

Engine co ops.
Incident stabilization functions:

A
  • develop initial IAP
    *deploy hoselines for fire control
    *provide reliable water source
    *supply standpipe to support fire protection systems
    *deploy master stream devices
    *preserve evidence
    *develop scene safety plan
150
Q

Engine co ops.
Property conservation functions:

A

*perform customer service
*overhaul
*salvage
*support ladder co functions

151
Q

Ladder co ops.
Life safety functions:

A

*primary search
*secondary search
*deploy ladders necessary fro rescue including firefighter escape route
*evacuation of buildings
*provide lighting
*emergency medical treatment for citizens and firefighters
*support engine co functions

152
Q

Ladder co ops.
Incident stabilization functions

A

*deploy elevated streams
*determine ventilation technique and placement
*control utilities
*assist with scene safety
*determine CO levels

153
Q

Ladder co ops.
Property conservation functions:

A

*perform customer service
*overhaul
*salvage
*remove water
*secure property
*leave scene in a safe condition

154
Q

______ are the three standard functions that must be completed in order on every incident.

A

tactical priorities

155
Q

Fire companies should utilize reports as to the location, number, and condition of victims as supporting information for _____ efforts and complete a ___ ___ wherever entry is possible

A

primary search
primary search

156
Q

Time is the critical factor in the _____ process.

A

primary search

157
Q

Throughness rather than time is the critical factor in a _____.

A

secondary search.

158
Q

Smoke showing and working fire situations:
In such cases, the IC and operating companies should be aware that the operation is in a ____ until the primary search is complete.

A

rescue mode

159
Q

Fully involved:
As quickly as fire control is achieved, the IC should conduct a _____ search for victims.

A

secondary

160
Q

During rescue efforts, ____ placement is crucial to control access, protect avenues of escape and confine the fire.

A

hoseline

161
Q

___ means of egress (aerial devices, ground ladders, etc.) must be utilized in their order of effectiveness.

A

secondary

162
Q

Time becomes an extremely important factor with regard to ______.

A

attack operations

163
Q

Exposure protection:
The most effective tactical analysis involves an evaluation of what is __ ____ rather than what is actually on fire.

A

not burning

164
Q

The ____ portion represents where the fire is going and should establish the framework for fire control requirements.

A

unburned

165
Q

Rescue, fire control, extension and exposure problems are solved in the majority of incidents by a __,___ , ____ attack.

A

fast
strong
well placed attack

166
Q

Early recognition that the forward progress of the fire has been stopped is an important element in ______ loss.

A

reducing

167
Q

__ ___ operations must be integrated into the cause determination phase of the incident.

A

loss control

168
Q

Customer service group.
One of the most important priorities of this function is to contact the ___/___ and do everything possible to meet their immediate needs.

A

occupant
owner

169
Q

Support activities generally include (but are not limited to):
*
*
*

A

Ventilation
Utility control
scene lighting

170
Q

To ensure that these critical support functions are accomplished on every structure fire, the company assigned to ____ will also be responsible to provide lighting and control the utilities.

A

ventilation

171
Q

__ ___ should consider fire size, and location, fireground strategy, and the water supply available,

A

fire stream

172
Q

1 3/4 preconnects with SM20F delivers about 100 gom at 110 psi. A single preconnect is effective for up to ___ to ___ sqft of single story involvement.

A

600
1000

173
Q

SM30F can be removed from the ___ and used on 1 3/4 or 2 inch lines. the officer can expect a ___ % increase in flow in 1 3/4 lines.

A

playpipe
25

174
Q

TFD high rise nozzles have the ability to provide a high flow solid stream from a 1 3/4 preconnect. With 200’ of 1 3/4 hose and a pdp between __ and ___ psi, these nozzles will produce a ___ -___ gpm stream that can be easily handled by one or two firefighters,

A

70 80
140 150

175
Q

automatic nozzles vary their flow to keep the pressure at ___.

A

100 psi

176
Q

The fog tip of TFD high rise nozzles is a low pressure, constant gallonage nozzle which provides ___ gpm at __ psi or greater nozzle pressure.

A

150
75

177
Q

2 inch high rise hose.
Beyond its primary use as high rise firefighting line, it is also effective for other uses:
*
*
*

A

extending a 1 3/4 preconnect or bumper line.

replacing a broken section of 1 3/4

making up a large flow maneuverable handline.

178
Q

3 inch lines provide flows in the range of ___ ___ gpm (depending on the length, pdp, and nozzle)

A

210
350

179
Q

When applying a master stream (other than a RAM), the standard minimum flow is ___ gpm.

A

1000

180
Q

TFD master stream options consists of the following options:
*
*
*

A

pre pided deck guns

portable master stream bases (for deck guns)

ladder pipes

181
Q

TFD apparatus with electric foam injection systems default to ___ % foam concentrate when set to A.

A

0.3

182
Q

Operators may lean down the foam to ___ %. This will triple the length of the foam supply ans still be very effective.

A

0.1

183
Q

The class B foam concentrate used by the TFD is mixed at a ___ concentration for any liquid fuel (hydrocarbon or polar solvent)

A

3%

184
Q

Anytime a significant amount of foam will be needed (more than __ gallons or what is carried on __ engines) the IC should call for the foam trailer to respond. The physical resources staff will bring this trailer with ___ gallons of the appropriate foam and foam transfer equipment.

A

80
2
750

185
Q

____ lays of 5 inch hose are adequate for most one and two family dwellings, apartments, and small commercial fires.

A

forward

186
Q

Other indications for a reverse lay and pump hook up with 5 inch hose include:
*
*

A

weak hydrants/insufficient water supply
relay pumping

187
Q

When the anticipated fire flow exceeds the capacity of __ preconnects and or the distance to the hydrant is over ___ feet, 3 inch supply line should not be used.

A

two
300

188
Q

Take command.
*Assume/take command
*Transmit:

A

Name of command
corrected/clarified address
status report including strategic mode.

189
Q

As life safety and incident stabilization benchmarks are obtained, the effort changes to a ____ and ____ effort.

A

property conservation
loss control

190
Q

High rise.
Groups operating within the building will ensure that the are equipped with a minimum of ___ forcible entry tools

A

two

191
Q

Telephones should be in service ___ the fire floor.

A

below

192
Q

Determine if any of the stairwells have been designed with their own ______ system (s)

A

pressurized

193
Q

high rise
Fire apparatus committed to operational assignments should be positioned with control/pump panels facing ___from the fire building whenever possible.

A

away

194
Q

Engines supplying water shall utilize hydrants within the ___ feet perimeter but as close to its outer boundary as possible.

A

300

195
Q

___ ventilation in a high rise structure will occur by pressurizing one stairwell with multiple fans, venting across the involved floors, and then exhausting out the other top penetrating stairwell.

A

normal

196
Q

____ ventilation should be accomplished on the leeward side only, if possible, especially on upper floors where strong winds can be expected.

A

horizontal

197
Q

Before ventilating consider the ___ temperature, the ___ direction, and the location of the fire.

A

outside
wind

198
Q

ventilation up a stair shaft that pierces the roof should be ___ until all occupants above the fire are evacuated or warned to stay out of stairway.

A

delayed

199
Q

In a working fire, control of a stair shaft or a vertical escape passage must be gained and maintained before placing firefighters above the ____.

A

fire floor

200
Q

High rise procedures will be used on all structures that are ___ stories or more.

A

five

201
Q

If a confirmed working fire occurs in a high rise building, the IC will call for a ____ or greater.

A

third alarm

202
Q

Once third and third alarm resources begin to arrive, the IC will dedicate one company to __ and one company to ___.

A

base
staging

203
Q

The district chief from the third alarm assignment will be assigned as ___.

A

Operations

204
Q

The following assignments will be made in the most advantageous order:
*
*
*
*
*
*
*

A

Fire attack inv 2 cos
RIC 1 co
water supply 1 co
lobby control 1 co
rescue evac 1 co
vent 1 co
cp 1 dc

205
Q

Fire attack/investigation group
_ companies from the initial response (minimum of __ firefighters) shall proceed to the are where the emergency exists, assess the scope of the emergency, communicate this information to the IC and initiate rescue and fire control measures

A

two
five

206
Q

Obtain set of pass keys, elevator keys, floor plans, contact numbers, and other pertinent building information from the __ __.

A

knox box

207
Q

High rise:
Proceed to the fire area and transmit size up to IC:
*
*
*

A

extent of fire and location
life hazard
estimate of personnel and equipment needs

208
Q

High rise. RIC:
One company from the initial response (minimum of ___ firefighters) shall proceed to a safe refuge adjacent to where the emergency exists.

A

three

209
Q

high rise. water supply:
One company will be assigned to supply the ____ and /or ___ system.

A

standpipe
sprinkler

210
Q

Safe refuges: minimum ___ floors below the fire floor, ___ floors above the fire floor.

A

three
five

211
Q

After occupants are in refuge areas and building is all clear, begin a systematic floor by floor evacuation once determined safe to do so by ____.

A

operations

212
Q

Rescue/evac.
Recommended personnel:
minimum of __ companies for each endangered floor to be searched.
minimum of __ company for each floor that needs evacuated.

A

two
one

213
Q

A minimum of one company will be assigned to ____ ventilation operations.

A

coordinate

214
Q

Establish command post a minimum of ___ feet from building. consider___, ____ and _____. Communicate location to FAO.

A

300
Control
observation
isolation

215
Q

High rise IC.
Establish and maintain: ___,___, and relief companies for operations.

A

base reserve
staging reserve

216
Q

Staging is set up at least ___ floors below the fire floor.

A

two

217
Q

High rise. staging.
As resources are used from ___, request additional resources from ___.

A

staging
base

218
Q

high rise. base.
Consult with the IC to determine resource levels that need to be maintained at base. (normally___ companies should be kept in base for each company held in ___).

A

two
staging

219
Q

An auxiliary water supply requires laying hose up a stairway for _____.

A

Operations

220
Q

Determine and obtain the number of members required. For stairwell ops, the following guidelines will be used:
__ per __ floors.
__ officer per __/__ members.

A

one two
one four five

221
Q

Fire service phase I
Activated either by keying the ___ position hall station switch, or automatically by a ___ detector located in the elevator lobbies, elevator hoistway, or the mechanical room.

A

three
smoke

222
Q

To activate phase II, key the three position car station switch to __.

A

On

223
Q

Upon arriving at a selected floor and opening the doors, keying the phase II switch to ___ will hold the car at that floor with the doors open.

A

hold

224
Q

Phase two can be a valuable ___ or ____ tool.

A

search and rescue
medical emergency

225
Q

The investigation group on business fire alarms may use elevators under the following conditions:
*
*
*

A

the fire alarm panel does not show multiple trips

the group members are trained in the operation, use, and methods of escape from elevators

The elevator i equipped with ANSI phase I and II.

226
Q

After removing the elevator service keys from the knox box, the company officer should transmit the ____ number being used, the ___ using the elevator, and the ___ of destination to the IC.

A

elevator car
companies
floor

227
Q

the __ or ___ may deem elevator use appropriate during a working fire.

A

IC
operations

228
Q

Avoid taking an elevator to the top floor served by any bank of elevators or to a floor where a partial ___ terminates. These are point where____ can be expected.

A

stairwell
high accumulation of smoke

229
Q

Where smoke is reported on several floors, get off the elevator a minimum of ___ floors below the ___ floor where smoke is reported.

A

two
lowest

230
Q

Before entering elevators, firefighters are to note the___ of the stariway and the ___ to it.

A

direction
distance

231
Q

____ is to record the destination, car, and crew designation of each group that enters an elevator.

A

lobby control

232
Q

All elevator cars manufactured after 1991 must have a ___ button on the car’s control panel.

A

call cancel

233
Q

Rather than ascending directly to the floor two floors below the fire, the trip should consist of a series of precautionary stops, every __ floors.

A

five

234
Q

airbags remain activated and charged via a ___.

A

capacitor

235
Q

between the hours of ___ and ___ the fire danger is normally the greatest when considering the ease of ignition and speed of flame fronts,

A

1200
1600

236
Q

companies with considerable brush fire potential should survey their area with regard to __, __ and___ .

A

fuel
topography
extent of exposure to structures

237
Q

Class A foam is very effective for both suppression and exposure protection and should be used when available, when conducting a direct/mobile attack __ % is an effective mixture.

A

1

238
Q

Compartment fires are ____. The container is basically a large compacted dumpster, and often the ____ is to detach the container and have it pulled to a safe location.

A

laborious
best approach

239
Q

In addition to extinguishing the fire in the compactor, _____ must be considered. Often these fires start from a plugged ___.

A

chute

240
Q

When it is determined that relay pumping is to be used, the TFD will use the _____ (150 psi and 1000’ of 5” hose per engine)

A

constant pressure method

241
Q

at 1000 gpm, 5” hose has a friction loss of __ to __ psi per 100 feet.

A

five
six

242
Q

MVC W/ extrication.
If one has not been dispatched, the IC will call for a second company. Once the second company arrives, the IC will appoint ___ on scene as a ____.

A

one member
safety officer

243
Q

MVC w/extrication.
The IC will establish an ___, an ____ and a ___ (tarp)

A

inner work circle
outer crowd control circle
tool staging area

244
Q

When a fire company sends one or more firefighters to assist EMSA on the way to the hospital, the company officer will determine the best method of retrieving the firefighters based on the ability of the company to______.

A

return to service

245
Q

When to notify the AC.
The AC can contact the PSO supervisor. Certain situations necessitate an IC calling the AC to request a high priority/expedited response from PSO:
*
*
*
*
*

A
  • after being on scene for one hour and still waiting for PSO to arrive
    *When a person is in contact with energized lines or objects
    *fire attack or property conservation activities are being halted due to electrical dangers
    *an MVC where energized lines are down on the vehicle with people inside.
    *When a line is down on a major arterial street or is hanging low enough to interfere with traffic.
246
Q

When a leak from a line or cylinder is on the exterior of a structure, ____ may be used to disperse vapors.

A

fog streams

247
Q

The best ways that TFD has to judge the amount of product left in the cylinder are ___ and ____ on the cylinder.

A

TICs
visible cold lines

248
Q

__ is the airport name, the tower is named ______.

A

jones
riverside ground

249
Q

Jones unit 98 is equipped with ___ and can be used in combination with foam or water.

A

Purple K

250
Q

Purple K works best on fuel fires (three dimensional or running fires) but should not be used in __ ___ spaces.

A

confined occupied

251
Q

821 or ARFF company officer will determine which airport trucks will respond to alert 3s ____.

A

off airport

252
Q

Control 90% of the fire within ___.

A

One minute

253
Q

turret operations are primarily for the __ ___ knockdown.

A

fuel spill

254
Q

Purple L power can be used in combination with ___

A

AFFF

255
Q

___ and ___ are appropriate where a non residue applicationis desired, however, they should not be used on aircraft wheel fires or in confined occupied spaces.

A

Halon
CO2

256
Q

Keep all flammable liquids covered with a foam blanket. To prevent ignition reapply approximately every ___.

A

30 minutes

257
Q

To cut into the fuselage of an aircraft, typically, the best place to cut is around the ___, ___, and roof area.

A

windows
doors

258
Q

If a determination of the chemical cannot be made, treat the chemical as highly ___, violently ___, or ___.

A

toxic
reactive
explosive

259
Q

If the product name is highlighted in the __ or __ bordered pages of ERG it means the product is an ____ hazard and TFD will have to protect people downwind by evacuating or protecting in place.

A

yellow
blue
inhalation

260
Q

If the product name is highlighted in the ___ or __ bordered pages of ERG, refer to special note about fire on ___ page before yellow or blue bordered pages (guide pages for fire, green pages for no fire).

A

yellow
blue
white

261
Q

located on the car doors, they prevent the opening of the car doors between floors.

A

door restrictors

262
Q

For TFD purposes there are two types of elevators:

A

traction, or cabled elevators
hydraulic elevators

263
Q

a car top emergency exist rescue can be done with either a ___ or ____ elevator.

A

hydraulic
traction (cabled)

264
Q

the option of bringing trapped passengers through the door openings can be used on ____ or _____ elevators.

A

hydraulic
traction

265
Q

____ (polling) is an extra step that becomes necessary when there is limited hoistway access.

A

leap frogging

266
Q

A manual lowering rescue can be done on ____ elevator only.

A

hydraulic

267
Q

responding to a structure for ___ or more false alarms or inadvertent activations the ___ days will be considered a repeat alarm.

A

three
three

268
Q

It is the policy of the TFD to respond without lights and sirens, obeying all traffic laws, whenever it has been determined that a ____ does not exist.

A

true emergency

269
Q

The IC will assign a landing zone LZ coodinator and the LZ coordinator will be responsible for the following:
*
*

*
*
*

A

selection of the area for the LZ

Establish and maintain radio comm with helo

ensure that adequate personnel are on the scene to control the LZ

ensure all precautions and procedures are observed

when the situation requires a helo, check to see if thee is an area large enough to safely land a helo

270
Q

The LZ should be level, firm and fre from loose debris which could possibly blow up into the rotor system. After choosing a spot that is clear, be sure it meets these reqs:
*
*
*

A

70X70

No more than 2% slope

the approach and take off from this perimeter should be free of obstructions at a 45 degree angle from grade level.

271
Q

When working around the helo, always approach and depart toward the ___, never from the ___.

A

front

rear

272
Q

If the helo has landed on a slope, approach and depart from the ___ slope only.

A

down

273
Q

While the helo is on the ground, keep all ground vehicles at least __ feet away from the aircraft. Bystanders should remain at least __ feet away.

A

70
200