Enterobacteriacae Flashcards

1
Q

What is MacConkey agar?

A
  • contains bile salts to suppress the growth of most gram (+) organisms
  • suppresses growth of Neisseria & Haemophilus
  • also contains lactose & a pH indicator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of agar plates do we use to test lactose fermentation in Gm (-) organisms?

A

MacConkey agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which surface antigen on Gm (-) organisms confers motility?

A

Flagella

(H Antigen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do fibriae do for Gm (-) bacteria?

A
  • allows attachment to host cell
  • exhibit phase variation

(used for UTI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does it mean if bacteria can form a biofilm?

A

-they have a capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why can’t organisms that have lipooligosaccharide grow in the gut?

A

-sensitive to bile salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What infection is caused by bacteria with P-fimbriae?

A

Pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does LPS do to the host?

A

Activates the sepsis cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are siderophores?

A
  • allow Gm (-) bacteria to scavenge Fe from environment
  • Gm (-) bacteria need iron to live
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the K antigen a part of?

A

-the gram (-) capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What diseases are caused by Klebsiella?

A
  • UTI
  • Pneumonia
  • multiple nosocomia infections (biliary infection, peritonitis, wound infxn)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When are Morganella and Providencia infections seen?

A

-individuals with long-term catheters

*very close cousins of Proteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What diseases are caused by Proteus mirabilis?

A
  • UTI
  • Staghorn calculus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What diseases are caused by Citrobacter?

A
  • Catheter associated UTI
  • Brain abscess in neonates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What mediates adhesion of E. Coli to intestinal mucosa?

A

Fimbriae (Pili)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In what organism do we see Hemolytic uremia syndrome (HUS)?

A
  • Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
  • Shigella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the three components of Hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A
  • Renal failure
  • Hemolytic anemia
  • Thrombocytopenia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pt has renal failure, hemolytic anemia, and thrombocytopenia. What organism are we thinking?

A
  • Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
  • Shigella

* these are the components of Hemolytic uremic syndrome, seen in EHEC infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What diseases are caused by Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)?

A

-acute diarrhea in infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What diseases does Enteroaggregative E. Coli (EAEC) cause?

A
  • chronic diarrhea & malnutrition in developing countries
  • # 2 travelers diarrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do we identify Enteroaggregative E. Coli (EAEC)?

A

stacked brick adherence to tissue culture cells in Hep-2 cell assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What diseases are caused by Enteroinvasive E. Coli?

A

diarrhea

23
Q

E. coli only causes neonatal meningitis if it has ________.

A

K antigen

24
Q

E. coli’s heat Labile toxin increases c_MP.

A

cAMP

25
Q

E. coli’s heat Stable toxin increases c_MP levels.

A

cGMP

26
Q

Lactose fermenters turn _________ on mackonkey agar.

A

Pink

27
Q

What infections are caused by klebsiella?

A
  • lobar pneumonia
  • UTI
28
Q

To treat klebsiella you need to use _________ because all klebsiella are ampicillin resistant.

A

B lactamase inhibitors

29
Q

Is serratia a normal part of the human fecal flora?

A

no

30
Q

A disk approximation test is used to see if there is ________ in __________ (bacteria).

A
  • induced resistance
  • Enterobacter
31
Q

Some subtypes of Enterobacter express a _______ in response to certain antibiotics.

A

B-lactamase

32
Q

“swarming on blood agar”

A

Proteus

33
Q

What is the treatment for proteus?

A

Sulfonamides

34
Q

Biggest worry about citrobacter?

A

Brain abscesses

35
Q

What are the 2 bugs that cause enteric fever?

A
  • salmonella
  • yersinia
36
Q

Which strain of E. coli is the most common cause of outbreaks of bloody diarrhea?

A

O157:H7 EHEC

37
Q

“LEE pathogenecity island”

A

STEC & EHEC

38
Q

Antibiotics are contraindicated in diarrhea caused by _______, becuase it will cause a massive release in toxins, resulting in HUS.

A

EHEC

39
Q

Shiga toxin binds to the ________ portion of ribosomes, and inhibits translation.

A

60s

40
Q

How do people get infected with Shigella?

A

Ass-to-mouth

41
Q

Why is the infectious dose of Shigella super low? (10-100 organisms)

A

It is acid-stable

42
Q

What are the virulence factors of Shigella?

A
  • Invasive (more important) uses actin to propel itself
  • Shiga toxin
43
Q

Shigella causes HUS more commonly in _________.

A

young children

44
Q

How are shigella and Listeria similar?

A
  • Both invade M cells
  • Both use Host’s actin to propel themselves
45
Q

Salmonella is (motile/non-motile), while Shigella is (motile/non-motile).

A

Salmonella = motile

Shigella = non-motile

46
Q

_________ is the #1 cause of osteomyelitis in patients with sickle cell.

A

Salmonella typhi

47
Q

This diarrhea causing bug is carried by reptiles and amphibians.

A

Salmonella

48
Q

“Rose colored macules”

A

Salmonella typhi

49
Q

Salmonells _______ likes to live in the gallbladder.

A

Salmonella typhi

50
Q

Recurrent salmonella is an _____-defining illness.

A

AIDS

51
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica is commonly transfered via _______.

A

Puppy poop

52
Q

Yersinia doesn’t make _________. Thus, iron overload is a risk factor for infection.

A

Siderophores

53
Q

Disease caused by Yersinia is exacerbated by _________.

A

abscence of a spleen, or sickle cell

54
Q

Infection with this bug causes RLQ pain, and is often indistinguishable from acute appendicitis.

A

Yersinia enterocolitica