ENT/Opthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

How do head and neck cancers typically present?

A

dysphagia
dysarthria
dysphonia
odynophagia
referred otalgia
globus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for rhinosinusitis?

A

At least two sx + at least one sign

sx = blockage/congestion, anterior/posterior discharge, facial pain/pressure, hyposmia

signs = endoscopic signs, CT imaging confirming sinusitis, pus/obstruction in the middle meatus, mucosal changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What reaction results in allergic rhinitis?

A

type 1 IgE mediated hypersentivity reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the complications of acute rhinosinusitis?

A

ophthalmologic = periorbital cellulitis

neurologic = meningitis, epidural abscess, brain abscess, cavernous sinus thrombosis

bone = OM

nasal = mucocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define periorbital cellulitis

A

infection of skin + soft tissue around the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Detail the presentation of periorbital cellulitis

A

emergent presentation
divided into:
pre-septal (infection anterior to orbital septum)
post septal (infection w/in orbital compartment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When is periorbital cellulitis suspected?

A

reduced visual acuity, diplopia, proptosis (exophthalmos), lateral displacement of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define orbital cellulitis

A

infection behind the orbital septum

usually caused by sinusitisW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the signs/sx of orbital cellulitis?

A

systemically unwell
high CRP + WCC
signs of optic nerve dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is orbital compartment syndrome + signs?

A

caused by orbital floor (blowout) fracture

proptosis (exophthalmos), RAPD, reduced visual acuity, high intraocular pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is otitis externa associated with?

A

SPELD
- swimming
- pseudomonas
- ear pain
- loss of hearing
- discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What can develop from otitis media?

A

osteomyelitis of the mastoid process of the temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the key differences b/w conductive and sensorineural hearing loss?

A

conductive - decreased transmission of background noise
sensorineural - decreased transmission of all sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the key differences b/w open angle and closed angle glaucoma?

A

OA = anterior chambre angle is open, associated w/ resistance to aqueous humor drainage through trabecular meshwork

CA = anterior chamber angle is closed, associated w/ anatomic abnormalities between anterior + posterior chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the red flag sx of acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

Hurts in a Hurry with Halos, Headache and a Half-dilated pupil
- pain
- acute presentation
- conuuctival erythema, halos around lights
- headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the most common types of cancer in parotid glands?

A

adenocarcinoma (malignant)
pleiomorphic adenoma (benign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List the differential diagnosis for ear pain

A

otitis media (acute, suppurative, chronic)
otitis interna
otitis externa
acute mastoiditis (complication from acute otitis media)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the differential dx involved in a sore throat?

A

pharyngitis (commonly viral in etiology)
epiglottitis
tonsillitis
retropharyngeal abscess
thyroiditis
Lemierre syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the presentation of a facial nerve palsy with a new onset parotid lump indicate the possibility of?

A

Red Flag – the presentation of facial nerve palsy with a new onset parotid lump
should alert the clinician to the possibility of a tumour – direct ENT referral is
indicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a drug iatrogenic cause of glaucoma?

A

Use of systemic corticosteroids such as prednisone is a risk factor for glaucoma.

21
Q

_____ tumors typically occur in the apex and may compress the stellate ganglion.

22
Q

_____ is a direct muscarinic receptor agonist used in the treatment of glaucoma. It decreases IOP by facilitating drainage of aqueous humor.

A

Pilocarpine

23
Q

What are the pathological changes associated w/ hyperopia?

A

farsightedness
eye too short for refractive power of the lens –> light is focused behind the retina

24
Q

What are the pathological changes associated w/ myopia?

A

nearsightedness
eye too long for refractive power of cornea = lens –> light is focused in the front of the retina

25
Q

____ is age related impaired accommodation of the lens

A

presbyopia

26
Q

What causes a thyroglossal duct cyst?

A

incomplete obliteration of the thyroglossal duct

27
Q

What nerve impairment causes internuclear ophthalmoplegia?

A

damage to the medial longitudinal fasciculus

28
Q

What structure of the eye produces aqueous humor?

A

epithelial cells of the ciliary body

29
Q

Ptosis is…

A

the drooping of the upper eyelid

30
Q

Anisocoria refers to…

A

uneven pupillary size

31
Q

RAPD is caused by lesions in the ____ limb of the pupillary reflex pathwayt

32
Q

What are the causes of RAPD?

A

OPTIC DISEASE
Optic neuritis
Advanced glaucoma
Ischaemic optic neuropathy (arteritic or non-arteritic)
Traumatic optic neuropathy
Tumour of the optic nerve (meningioma/glioma)
RETINAL DISEASE
Ischaemic retinal disease (CRAO, ischaemic CRVO)
Large retinal detachment
Severe macular degeneration

33
Q

What are some systemic conditions which can affect the eye?

A

connective tissue: ankylosing spondylitis, GCA, Marfans, rheumatoid

Genetics: NF, Down’s

Autoimmune: Thyroid eye disease, MG, Sjogrens, MS + optic neuritis

Vascular: HTN, DM, IIH

Neoplastic: choroidal melanoma

34
Q

What are the differences in ocular manifestations of NF1 and NF2?

A

NF1: lisch nodules in the iris

NF2: juvenile cataracts + meningioma

35
Q

What are the effects of Marfans on the eye?

A

cataract
lens dislocation
retinal detachment
glaucoma
myopia
astigmatism

36
Q

What are the classic sx of Meniere’s disease?

A

vertigo
tinnitus
unilateral sensorineural hearing loss

37
Q

What is juvenile angiofibroma and what are its associated signs/sx?

A

benign growth of nasopharynx

recurrent epistaxis, nasal obstruction, hearing loss (ET obstruction), tinnitus
bulging palate, buccal mass

38
Q

What are the most common causes of pharyngitis (sore throat)?

A

viral origin more commonly
GAS if bacterial (but will not have cough or rhinorrhea)

39
Q

What is a Quinsy?

A

peritonsillar abscess that can result from acute tonsillitis

40
Q

What are the differences b/w Rinne and Weber test?

A

Rinne tests for air conduction > bone conduction (conductive hearing loss)

Weber tests for sensorineural hearing loss

41
Q

What are some iatrogenic causes of tinnitus?

A

loop diuretics
aminoglycosides
salicylates

42
Q

What is benign paroxysmal position vertigo (BPPV)?

A

dislodging of otoconia and migrating into SCC, which disrupts endolymph dynamics and leads to vertigo on sudden head movement

43
Q

What is Wegeners?

A

GPA

necrotising granulomas of respiratory tract w/ vasculitis + GLN

ANCA+

44
Q

What are the most common causes of sialedenitis?

A

bacterial infection
obstruction of the gland by a stone
autoimmune (sjogrens)

45
Q

What are the groups of head + neck tumours?

A

mucosal
thyroid
parathyroid
skin
salivary gland
vascular
neurogenic

46
Q

Detail the features of oropharyngeal cancer?

A

HPV induced tumors
Occurs due to previous lack of HPV vax for males
younger mean age than squamous oro cancer

60% reduction in death risk when compared to squamous oropharyngeal cancers (smoking induced)

presents w/ painless mass + odynophagia

47
Q

What is a tracheostomy and what are its indications?

A

surgical formation of an opening into thetrachea through anterior neck
- indicated if a laryngectomy is performed

48
Q

What are some sx of parathyroid cancers?

A

neuropsychiatric –> depression, anxiety, headache, etc.
MSK –> bone pain, muscle weakness + osteoporosis due to increased osteoclasts
GI -
Renal –> stones due to increased Ca++
cardiac –> HTN + arrhythmias due to increased Ca++