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T-45 Ground School Gouge > Engineering > Flashcards

Engineering Flashcards

1
Q

Identify the overtemp situation presuming the engine is at military power

A

> (Greater Than) 610 degrees

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2
Q

Maximum Continuous EGT

A

550 degrees Celcius

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3
Q

Pops or bangs accompanied by an EGT increase and RPM decrease are indicative of what?

A

A compressor stall

-most susceptible during low airspeed high AOA regimes of flight (landing attitude stall)

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4
Q

Actuation of the centralized warning tone and EGT/RPM warning light is an indication of engine overtemp and/or what?

A

an N1 overspeed 112.4 +/- 1

can only find N1 indication on Engine Page

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5
Q

Indications of an ECA dual lane failure in the no trim setting can be recognized by?

A

Illumination of the ECA advisory light and an ECA2 caution light

and

an increase in FF, EGT, RPM (above 90% DNTK)

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6
Q

The oil pressure warning light illuminates when?

A

The pressure differential between the oil on the pressure side and the oil on the scavenge side gets too low (<10psi) for greater than 10 seconds.

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7
Q

Indications of an ECA dual lane failure in the full trim fail setting can be recognized by?

A

Illumination of the ECA advisory light and an ECA2 caution light

and

a decrease in RPM/EGT/FF

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8
Q

The internal gear shaft extracts mechanical energy from the N2 shaft which provides power to the external gear box to power what?

A

Generator
Hyd 1&2 Pumps
low & high pressure fuel pumps
engine oil pumps

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9
Q

The approach idle stop is automatically retracted when?

A

The GTS button is depressed in-flight with the wheels down

With weight on wheels and anti-skid on

After a two second delay with weight on wheels and the anti-skid set to off

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10
Q

With a total loss of 28v DC power what happens to the Approach Idle Stop?

A

it is automatically extended (requires power to retract - on 28vDC essential services bus)

-Remember, on landing roll-out you will not be able to select ground idle and the jet will stay at flight idle (72%)

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11
Q

When an excessive temperature is detected in the tail pipe section of the T-45, what happens?

A

TP HOT caution @ 150 degrees C

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12
Q

During the normal start sequence the ready advisory light reflects what?

A

N1 is rotating in the correct direction & 100 RPM minimum

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13
Q

N2 5th stage compressor supplies bleed air to what?

A

OBOGS
Fuel Tank Pressurization
ECS
Anti-Icing

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14
Q

What step in the start sequence comes before moving the throttle to idle?

A

Ready light illuminates

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15
Q

What advisory lights will illuminate in the event of a dual lane ECA failure?

A

Both ECA Advisory and ECA2 Caution

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16
Q

What switch provides essential bus power to the Starter Control Unit?

A

Engine Switch

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17
Q

(T/F) The ignition switch is located in both cockpits on the left console behind the throttle quadrant.

A

FALSE. The ignition switch is front cockpit only.

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18
Q

The T-45’s GTS accelerates to 100% when?

A

The engine switch is moved to START

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19
Q

Under what two conditions will the EGT/RPM light illuminate?

A

EGT 650 +/- 8

N1 RPM 112.4 +/- 1

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20
Q

MAX EGT on a ground start

A

550 continuous

570 for a 10 second overshoot

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21
Q

MAX EGT during an Airstart

A

600

650 for 10 second overshoot

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22
Q

Maximum continuous RPM/EGT

A

100% at 550 degrees C

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23
Q

Maximum allowable RPM for MRT

A

104%, 106% transient

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24
Q

A loss of thrust accompanied by a generator warning light indicates what?

A

Flameout

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25
Q

Engine light off must occur within how many seconds of moving the throttle to idle?

A

15 seconds

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26
Q

(T/F) Sustained engine operations at below 70% N2 above 30,000’ may result in a sub-idle condition leading to engine flameout.

A

True

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27
Q

(T/F) The fire detection self-test is activated by placing and holding the test/tone test switch in the light test position. Fire and GTS fire warning lights illuminate to indicate a properly functioning circuit.

A

True

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28
Q

Slats/Flaps extension requires what type of electrical power?

A

28v DC essential services

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29
Q

What is the airspeed limit for flap/slat extension?

A

200 KIAS

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30
Q

What happens at 217 KIAS if the flaps/slats are out?

A

SLATS caution light

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31
Q

Rapid right or left rolling during flap transition is most likely caused by what?

A

A split flap condition

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32
Q

Indications of a split SLAT condition

A

Uncommanded roll and a SLAT caution light

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33
Q

(T/F) The function of the SBI is to reduce positive pitch transients between 0.2 and 0.7 mach, and reduce negative pitch transients above 0.7 (controlled through augmentation)

A

True

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34
Q

What does the SBI do in relation to the controls?

A

Moves the stabilator but not the control stick as the speed brake is extended or retracted.

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35
Q

Explain how yaw trim is actuated.

A

The trim yaw damper actuator moves the rudder trim tab upon input from the rudder trim switch, and automatically through yaw damper computer input.

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36
Q

(T/F) The rudder centering unit always keeps the rudder pedals centered even if the rudder trim light occurs.

A

FALSE

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37
Q

What happens to the ratio of aileron deflection when the landing gear is lowered?

A

Variable ratio inputs increase rate of deflection for the same motion of the control stick.

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38
Q

Under what 4 conditions will the SLATS caution light illuminate?

A

When the slats are not in the selected position.
If Slat extension is attempted above 217 KIAS.
If Slats are extended and the aircraft accelerates above 217 KIAS.
A split Slat condition occurs.

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39
Q

If the C AUG indication illuminates while airborne what functions will be lost?

A

SBI
ARI
Rudder Trim
Yaw Dampening

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40
Q

(T/F) If both engine driven hydraulic pumps fail the mechanically operated rudder is the only functioning flight control surface and ejection should be initiated.

A

False, your emergency system can still operate the flight controls using pressure from the RAT.

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41
Q

Fuel system status can be monitored by what indicators?

A

Fuel Quantity Gauge
FF Gauge
MFD Engine Page

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42
Q

Which control blocks the flow of fuel to the GTS and engine fuel system and isolates the fuel system?

A

The fuel shutoff T-handle

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43
Q

If the fuel boost pumps fail what light will illuminate?

A

F PRESS caution (one or both) (avoid negative G’s)

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44
Q

F PRESS light can also indicate?

A

Fuel tank pressurization drops below 3 psi.

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45
Q

(T/F) The fuel caution light, quantity float switch, and the fuel quantity indicator operate off the same circuit for maximum efficiency?

A

False

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46
Q

The dual datum relief valve provides overpressurization relief at what PSI?

A

9.5

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47
Q

The FUEL caution light illuminates when?

A

When fuel level is at or below 350 lbs.

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48
Q

The electrical fuel boost pumps are located where?

A

In the Negative G compartment.

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49
Q

The fuel flow sensor switch which illuminates the fuel caution light is located where?

A

In the Negative G compartment.

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50
Q

(T/F) When pressure refueling, 28v DC ground service bus power is required to operate the high level float switch and secure fuel flow when the aircraft fuel tanks are full.

A

True

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51
Q

(T/F) The dual datum relief valve provides over pressure relief should the fuel tank pressure control valve fail to maintain normal fuel tank pressure and lower fuel tank pressurization with hook extended.

A

True

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52
Q

How long after it starts should the centralized caution tone stop?

A

One Second

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53
Q

When executing the tone tests during pre-start check, what tones do you hear?

A

Caution
Warning
Wheels Warning
Weapons Release

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54
Q

The lights test causes what?

A

All warning lights to illuminate
All caution lights to illuminate
Master alert lights to illuminate
Wheels warning light to illuminate

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55
Q

Correct emergency brake/flap accumulator preload pressure is?

A

1300 +/- 50 psi minimum (would like to see 3000)

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56
Q

Illumination of the SKID advisory light indicates.

A

Anti-skid is selected in both cockpits and gear is down and locked.

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57
Q

Anti-skid should be selected off when?

A

SKID caution light remains illuminated after attempted reset
On all carrier landings
Prior to setting parking brake on engine shutdown
Following a HYD1 failure prior to landing.

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58
Q

The arresting hook is extended by what?

A

Gravity and assisted by snubber unit pressure.

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59
Q

HYD1 and HYD2 engine driven pumps are powered by what?

A

The accessory gear box

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60
Q

HYD1 operates what essential services?

A 
Speed Brakes
Slats
Flaps
Landing Gear
Nose Wheel Steering
Arresting Hook Retraction
Launch Bar extension
Wheel Brakes
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61
Q

What are the normal hydraulic pressures following engine start?

A

HYD1: 3000 HYD2: 0 Brake Pressure: 3000

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62
Q

Prior to engine start when the battery switch is on, what does the brake pressure gauge indicate?

A

The nitrogen pressure inside the brake flap accumulator.

1300 +/- 50psi

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63
Q

“Illumination of the NWS Caution light can occur under all of the following except?”

A

Answer: Loss of HYD1 pressure below 1500 psi

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64
Q

Failure of the RAT to extend following a HYD2 EDP failure is indicated by:

A

HYD2 pressure not fluctuating between 2500 and 3000 psi

No RAT caution light

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65
Q

“The slow loss of HYD2 pressure at 1500 psi can result in all of the following except?”

A

Answer: Securing general services via the PSP valve

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66
Q

Upon engine shutdown on deck or if flameout occurs, the HYD2 EDP output pressure will be directed into bypass mode when?

A

When N2 RPM drops below 42%

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67
Q

HYD Fail warning light will illuminate when:

A

HYD1 and HYD2 caution drop below 1660 +/- 110psi
and
HYD2 Emergency system pressure drops below 600 +/- 50psi

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68
Q

If both HYD EDPs fail is the aircraft uncontrollable?

A

No, you still have the emergency system, however if a slow leak drains EHYDS then yes.

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69
Q

Normal pressure for the Hydraulic systems

A

3000 psi

70
Q

A slow HYD1 pressure loss will result in the loss of general services below what pressure?

A

1500psi

71
Q

Which components continue to receive hydraulic pressure from the HYD1 EDP when HYD1 pressure drops below 1500psi

A

Only the ailerons and the stabilator

72
Q

HYD2 pressure loss triggers a HYD caution light at?

A

1660 +/- 110 psi

73
Q

How is the HYD2 system brought up to operating pressure?

A

Pressing the HYD2 reset after engine start either airborne or on the ground.

74
Q

(T/F) When landing gear is emergency extended, hydraulic pressure will continue to be supplied to the NWS system and the NWS will be operative.

A

FALSE

75
Q

(T/F) Emergency gear handle is located in the front cockpit only.

A

FALSE

76
Q

(T/F) Failure of the weight off wheels circuit prevents anti-skid activation on touchdown with no indication to pilot and subsequent loss of brakes. Placing the anti-skid switch to off disables anti-skid and returns brake operation to normal.

A

TRUE

77
Q

MDC failure upon ejection results in what?

A

The ejection seat breaks the canopy. Timing and Ejection are otherwise unaffected.

78
Q

Ejection loads 1-5 are determined by what?

A

The electronic sequencer based on data from the ejection seat pitot heads at the time of ejection (airspeed and altitude)

79
Q

FLAMEOUT

below 1500’ AGL and 180 KIAS

A

EJECT

80
Q

Canopy caution light and tone occur when?

A

Anytime the canopy is unlocked the light is on.

Tone occurs when canopy is unlocked and the engine spins up past 95% RPM.

81
Q

Purpose of the emergency restraint release handle on the seat?

A

Quickly release the survival kit from the ejection seat
Release leg restraints
Prevent activation of the ejection handle in the event of an emergency egress required on deck.

82
Q

Pulling the MDC handle activates the det. cord in which canopies?

A

Both

83
Q

The VCR records what?

A

HUD or MFD, ICS, CWS, Radios

84
Q

With the loss of the generator what CNI equipment will still be operable?

A

Tacan

85
Q

A DEU fail will result in the loss of?

A

All MFDs and the HUD

86
Q

Altitude Squawking is which mode?

A

3C

87
Q

The GINA is composed of what?

A

The INS assembly and embedded GPS

88
Q

A DEU fail will limit you to what types of approaches?

A

GCA only

89
Q

If amp switch is in ALT what settings are changed?

A

All volumes become fixed

Cockpit that set ALT goes to hot mic

90
Q

(T/F) The pitot static system provides static and ram air pressure for the standby altimiter, VSI, mach number and through SADS for the DEU.

A

TRUE

91
Q

Rudder pedal shaker kicks in at what AOA?

A

21.5 units AOA in the left rudder pedal.

92
Q

Radar Alt. is inop when?

A

Above 5k AGL
Over 40 degrees AOB
GEN Fail

93
Q

GPS Fail is indicated by what?

A

GPS and HYBD options are removed from the HSI

94
Q

During post-start checks you notice the velocity vector replaced the waterline symbol, what does this mean?

A

Alignment is complete.

95
Q

Gouge states:

“Long Ass Question about GINA and MUX bus answer is TRUE”

A

Gouge states:

“Long Ass Question about GINA and MUX bus answer is TRUE”

96
Q

The ADR begins recording when?

A

The engine reaches a predetermined RPM ~30%

97
Q

(T/F) In the event of an INS failure in the GINA the GPS will display attitude and heading information from data stores.

A

FALSE

98
Q

(T/F) BIT display has two formats Weight on Wheels and Weight off Wheels.

A

TRUE

99
Q

Full needle deflection in CDI mode for the TACAN and VOR is?

A

10 radials

100
Q

Full deflection for waypoint steering with the landing gear up is?

A

4nm

101
Q

Full deflection for waypoint steering with the landing gear down is?

A

.3nm

102
Q

(T/F) Loss of both AC inverters will result in the loss of the RadAlt

A

TRUE

103
Q

OPGO in the BIT menu means what?

A

Single channel working on the MUX bus

104
Q

(T/F) To view ILS needles you must deselect the planimetric mode and select CDI mode.

A

TRUE

105
Q

What functions are lost following a prox switch failure?

A

NWS, anti-skid, and the approach idle stop stays up (loss of ground idle)

106
Q

At what Brake/Flap accumulator pressure do you lose the ability to use flaps/slats?

A

@ or below 2200 psi the brake flap accumulator will only provide for 10 brake applications

107
Q

What instrument approaches can still be performed with a loss of essential services?

A

TACAN only.

VOR/ILS are on the 28v AC non-essential buses and will be shed along with the DEU, RALT, and yaw dampener.

108
Q

What lights are lost if you’re down to a single inverter?

A

Formation lights, Console lights, MIP cockpit lights

109
Q

What some indications of an ADR failure?

A

AoA indications start blinking in the HUD.
May energize HYD 2 bypass valve thereby reducing output pressure.
Fuel boost pumps are lost and F PRES illuminates.

110
Q

What are the only 4 switches on during the interior check?

A

Engine
Anti-Skid
GEN
Cockpit Aircon (Air Flow - NORM)

111
Q

(T/F) In the event of an INS failure in the GINA the GPS will continue to display attitude and heading information from data stores.

A

FALSE

112
Q

The BIT display has how many different displays and what are they?

A

Two: Weight on Wheels and Weight off Wheels

113
Q

Full needle deflection in CDI mode for the TACAN and VOR is?

A

10 radials

114
Q

(T/F) Loss of both AC inverters will result in the loss of the RADALT

A

TRUE

115
Q

(T/F) To view ILS needles you must deselect planimetric or any other modes on the HSI and select CDI?

A

TRUE, all modes other than CDI & ILS boxed will take priority and will not allow correct approach information to be displayed.

116
Q

Which Comm/NAV/IFF system has two antennae?

A

IFF

117
Q

(T/F) An attitude advisory on the ADI display accompanied by the loss of almost all flight data signifies an INS failure.

A

TRUE

118
Q

What is the default MFD page on power up?

A

MENU

119
Q

What are the 4 data entry buttons on the DEP that replicate data from the MFDs?

A

RALT, Heading, Course, Bingo

120
Q

IFF degrade on the BIT page is an indication of?

A

Either:
A BIT fail
The power is off
IFF in standby

121
Q

(T/F) The CDI may suddenly jump when the gear goes down due to a change in scale.

A

TRUE

122
Q

In the ECS system the engine supplies bleed air to which two solenoid operated pressure regulator valves?

A

MPRSOV - Main pressure regulating and shutoff valve

IPRSOV - Inducer pressure regulating and shutoff valve

123
Q

The IPRSOV valve opens when?

A

Gear is down and the ECS is in any position but OFF

124
Q

RAM air ventilation occurs when?

A

Weight ON Wheels and flow selector is OFF

125
Q

Cabin Alt Warning light means?

A

Cabin alt exceeds 24,500 +/- 500’
Overpressurization of the CAU compressor by the AC
CAU compressor outlet temp above 500 F
CAU turbine temp above 250 F

126
Q

(T/F) If low O2 is detected in the OBOGS system the light will come on but the system will also continue to produce O2.

A

TRUE

127
Q

In the event of a generator failure how can you keep your left MFD’s functioning?

A

Override switch

128
Q

With a total electrical failure will the HOOK function?

A

YES

129
Q

With a total electrical failure will the EMERGENCY FLAPS function?

A

NO (electrical switch)

130
Q

With a total electrical failure will the BRAKES function?

A

YES

131
Q

Electrical power is controlled by what 4 devices?

A

Overvoltage Unit
Undervoltage Unit
Voltage Regulator
300 amp fuse

132
Q

What happens if the electrical system exceeds 30.2v DC?

A

The overvoltage unit takes the GEN offline

133
Q

What bus are the ignitors and ECA on?

A

28v DC Essential

134
Q

To extend battery life when the GEN has failed what can you do?

A

Turn off pitot heat

135
Q

MASTER WARNING + tone
Your HUD has disappeared
You only have your left MFD

What has happened to your jet?

A

GEN FAIL

136
Q

What are two very significant things that are lost with a single AC inverter fail?

A

RALT

VOR/ILS Control

137
Q

In flight your GEN has failed, what trim systems remain?

A

Primary STAB trim only

138
Q

What effect will a total electrical failure have on your primary and secondary flight controls?

A

ARI and SBI go offline
Flaps/Slats are unusable
Speed brakes stuck in position
Landing gear will be lowered manually

139
Q

Below what battery voltage is considered unacceptable for a ground start?

A

24v DC

140
Q

What controls the output of the 28v DC generator?

A

The voltage regulator

141
Q

(T/F) During an airstart the generator is automatically taken offline. Upon the completion of a successful airstart the generator will come back online when the engine reaches a suitable RPM.

A

FALSE, it must be reset

142
Q

If you land and the AOA indicators are still illuminated what failure do you have?

A

weight on wheels switch failure

143
Q

(T/F) Two ground power switches in the front cockpit are sused to provide ground power to the electrical systems during maintenance work.

A

TRUE

144
Q

(T/F) The GTS directly powers the ATS for engine start.

A

TRUE

145
Q

(T/F) Raising the fingerlift will allow the throttle to be lowered past the approach idle stop, will allow it to pass the idle stop to off, and prevents reduction of the throttle lever to idle or sub idle when moved from the midrange position.

A

TRUE

146
Q

During the start sequence the Engine switch energizes what?

A

The Start Control Unit

147
Q

MAX EGT during a ground start is?

A

570 for 10 seconds

148
Q

If EGT exceeds ____ the CWS will illuminate the EGT/RPM warning light.

A

650 +/- 8

149
Q

(T/F) The most likely indication of a fire on take off is a fire light accompanied by a CWS tone and Master Warning light.

A

TRUE

150
Q

Failure of the engine bleed valve to close will result in what?

A

Power loss of approximately 25%

151
Q

If the fire warning light illuminates temporarily:

A

The temp around the engine bay may have fallen back below 300 degrees
The fire element may have been destroyed
Test the continuity of the fire detection circuit

152
Q

Engine overtemp at MRT

A

Greater than 610 degrees.

153
Q

How low can fuel tank air pressure drop before it triggers a F PRESS caution light?

A

3 PSI

154
Q

The pressure at which the dual datum relief valve opens to relieve an over pressure condition

A

9.5 PSI

155
Q

What is the approximate RPM at which the bleed valve opens during shutdown?

A

45%

156
Q

RPM at which the GTS and ignition system automatically shuts off during the start sequence.

A

45%

157
Q

Engine RPM at idle with bleed valve open

A

52%

158
Q

Engine RPM at idle with bleed valve closed (standard day)

A

55 +/- 2%

159
Q

RPM at which the bleed valve closes during initial engine run up.

A

61 +/- 4%

160
Q

(T/F) The FUEL LOW caution light is triggered by a float switch in the negative G compartment, and is not linked to the fuel quantity indicator.

A

TRUE

161
Q

(T/F) The ignition switch is in both cockpits

A

FALSE (front only)

162
Q

(T/F) the fuel shutoff T-handle is front cockpit only

A

TRUE

163
Q

Conditions in which the inverters and fuel boost pumps automatically turn on

A
  1. During GTS operation
  2. when the engine speed is greater than 42%, the generator is on and engine switches are on.

A time delay relay keeps the fuel boost pumps operating for 30 seconds after loss of any signals.

164
Q

LP PMP Caution Light

A

LP pump output pressure is too low or the fuel filter is clogged.

165
Q

What is LLBN FSH

A

The Hydraulic System General Services

Landing Gear
Launch Bar
Brakes
Nose Wheel Steering

Flaps/Slats
Speed Brake
Hook

166
Q

What happens when HYD 2 drops below 1500 psi

A

RAT extension

167
Q

The ADRS tells HYD 2 to go into bypass at what RPM?

A

42%

168
Q

What accumulator pressures should you find if you were to preflight the jet for its first flight of the day.

A

1100 +/- 50 for flight control accumulators

1300 +/- 50 for the brake flap accumulator

169
Q

At what speeds does the anti-skid system turn on during acceleration and deceleration?

A

“The system is actuated when the landing gear is down, aircraft is weight on wheels and wheel speed is ABOVE 30 knots during acceleration and ABOVE 10 to 13 knots during deceleration.”

170
Q

What 4 failures will cause an Oxygen warning light?

A

Temp exceeds 250F
Low Concentration
BIT Test Fail
OBOGS OFF

171
Q

What 3 things will cause your chute to deploy post-ejection?

A

Seat Sequencer
Barostatic Sensor
Pulling the MOR handle

T-45 Ground School Gouge (4 decks)

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