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T2 - Phase 2 - Systems Modules (III) > Endo/Repro - Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Endo/Repro - Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

In what way can the abnormal glycosylation seen in diabetes cause increased susceptibility to infection?

A

Phagocyte dysfunction

(due to glycosylation and inactivation of involved proteins)

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2
Q

Diabetic immunosuppression is mostly a defect in _________ (cellular/humoral) adaptive immunity.

A

Diabetic immunosuppression is mostly a defect in cellular adaptive immunity (humoral immunity mostly preserved).

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3
Q

An imbalance of what two factors in diabetes can lead to decreased tissue perfusion?

A

NO and ROS

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4
Q

True/False.

Diabetic neuropathy often makes patients hyperaware of their sores and lesions.

A

False.

Diabetic neuropathy creates a local anesthesia and a decreased awareness of one’s injury.

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5
Q

The compromised neurovascular supply to the foot seen in diabetic patients can lead to a swollen, deformed foot called a _______ foot.

A

The compromised neurovascular supply to the foot seen in diabetic patients can lead to a swollen, deformed foot called a Charcot foot.

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6
Q

In a diabetic patient who has not received many antibiotics, what would you expect is the cause of their foot abcesses?

A

Staphylococci spp.;

Streptococci spp.

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7
Q

In a hospitalized diabetic patient (who has received several antibiotics) who develops foot abcesses, what would you expect to be some of the potential etiologies?

A

Polymicrobial infections,

facultative gram-positive,

gram-negatives (e.g. Pseudomonas aeruginosa)

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8
Q

How is diabetic osteomyelitis with ulceration treated?

A

Surgical debridement

+

antibiotics as needed

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9
Q

A diabetic patient presents with an extremely painful and erythematous pinna and external auditory meatus.

What diagnosis do you suspect, and what is the etiology?

A

Malignant otitis externa;

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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10
Q

Name four etiologies of rhinocerebral mucormycosis.

A

Rhizopus, Rhizomucor, Absidia, Mucor

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11
Q

A diabetic patient presents with polymicrobial necrotizing infection of the genitalia and perineum.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Fournier’s gangrene

(rapid surgical involvement for debridement + plastics required)

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12
Q

A diabetic patient presents with gas-producing organisms in her gallbladder.

What is the name of her condition, and what is the etiology?

A

Emphysematous cholecystitis;

Clostridium spp.

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13
Q

True/False.

Diabetics have a predilection for infection with group A strep (S. pyogenes) (which could cause UTIs, systemic infection, bacteremia, and sepsis).

A

False.

Diabetics have a predilection for infection with group B strep (S. agalactiae) (which could cause UTIs, systemic infection, bacteremia, and sepsis).

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14
Q

The earlier in gestation the infection with T. gondii occurs, the _____ likely there will be transmission to the fetus, but the _____ severe the disease will be if transmission occurs.

A

The earlier in gestation the infection with T. gondii​ occurs, the less likely there will be transmission to the fetus, but the more severe the disease will be if transmission occurs.

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15
Q

What is the treatment for congenital toxoplasmosis?

A

Pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine

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16
Q

How is congenital toxoplasmosis avoided?

A

Instruct pregnant women to avoid cat litter

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17
Q

The transmission rate of syphilis to the fetus is _____% for primary or secondary syphilis in the mother.

A

The transmission rate of syphilis to the fetus is 100% for primary or secondary syphilis in the mother.

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18
Q

Congenital syphilis is relatively ________ and has a ________ infant mortality rate.

A

Congenital syphilis is relatively common and has a high infant mortality rate.

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19
Q

A neonate presents with a rash that is prominent on the palms and soles. You identify osteochondritis and neural lesions. The patient is snuffling.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Early congenital syphilis

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20
Q

What test is used to diagnose syphilis in neonates and/or mothers while the fetus is in-utero?

A

RPR

(nontreponemal serology)

21
Q

If infant RPR is ____x higher than mother’s RPR, evaluate and treat for congenital syphilis.

A

If infant RPR is 4x higher than mother’s RPR, evaluate and treat for congenital syphilis.

22
Q

What TORCH infection is associated with hydrops fetalis?

A

Parvovirus B19

23
Q

2 - 3% of cases of congenital herpes zoster will have what presentation?

A

Skin lesions / scarring;

atrophied limbs

24
Q

True/False.

Only 2.5% of infected, pregnant mothers will pass VZV to their fetuses, and only 25% of those fetuses will develop congenital Zoster.

A

False.

Only 25% of infected, pregnant mothers will pass VZV to their fetuses, and only 2.5% of those fetuses will develop congenital Zoster.

25
Q

True/False.

A primary maternal infection with VZV within a few days after birth can lead to neonatal Zoster in her child, leading to a neonatal mortality of up to 30%.

A

True.

26
Q

How is congenital Zoster treated?

A

VZIG (if not immune)

+

Acyclovir

27
Q

How is neonatal Zoster treated?

A

VZIG for the mother

+

Acyclovir for the infant

28
Q

Rubella is the opposite of toxoplasmosis, in the sense that transmission from mother to fetus is much _______ likely with early (first trimester) infection of the mother.

A

Rubella is the opposite of toxoplasmosis, in the sense that transmission from mother to fetus is much more likely with early (first trimester) infection of the mother.

29
Q

What is the most common congenital infection in the U.S.?

A

Congenital CMV

30
Q

True/False.

90% of cases of congenital CMV are asymptomatic at birth, but 10% of that 90% show symptoms later.

A

True.

31
Q

Congenital _____ is the leading cause of deafness and the second leading cause of intellectual disability in the U.S.

A

Congenital CMV is the leading cause of deafness and the second leading cause of intellectual disability in the U.S.

32
Q

Is CMV screening routinely done?

A

No.

33
Q

What treatment is used for congenital CMV (but only in severe cases)?

A

Gancyclovir

34
Q

When does congenital infection with herpes occur?

A

At the time of delivery

35
Q

True/False.

Most infants with neonatal HSV are born to women with no history, clinical findings, or lesions.

A

True.

36
Q

A neonate presents with localized cutaneous, ocular, and mouth lesions.

The mother is asymptomatic.

What treatment do you initiate?

A

Acyclovir

(for congenital herpes)

37
Q

If a neonate presents with congenital herpes CNS disease or disseminated disease, there is a ______ rate of serious neurological sequelae or death.

A

If a neonate presents with congenital herpes CNS disease or disseminated disease, there is a high rate of serious neurological sequelae or death.

38
Q

How can vertical transmission of HIV be prevented?

A

AZT peripartum prophylaxis;

instruct not to breastfeed

39
Q

Gonococcal neonatal infection presents as severe purulent conjunctivitis ____-____ days after birth.

Chlamydial neonatal infection presents as purulent conjunctivitis ____-____ days after birth.

A

Gonococcal neonatal infection presents as severe purulent conjunctivitis 2 - 5 days after birth.

Chlamydial neonatal infection presents as purulent conjunctivitis 5 - 30 days after birth.

40
Q

Name an STI that causes painful, contagious ulcers (chancroids) and tends to be more of a tropical disease.

A

H. ducreyi

41
Q

Klebsiella can cause what STI S/Sy?

A

Donovanosis/Granuloma inguinale with Donovan bodies

42
Q

Which serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis cause an STI?

A

D - K

43
Q

A sexually-active woman presents with strawberry cervix with discharge.

What is the likely etiology?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

44
Q

Normal flora can cause bacterial vaginosis due to dysbiosis of normal flora.

Name some of the flora.

A
  • Gardnerella;*
  • Mobiluncus;*
  • Prevotella*
45
Q

A diabetic patient on antibiotics presents with a ‘cottage cheese’ vaginal discharge. What do you suspect?

A

Candida albicans

(part of normal flora)

46
Q

What are the names given to infection with pubic lice (crabs)?

A

Pediculosis;

phthirus pubis

47
Q

What is the latin name for scabies?

A

Sarcoptes scabei

48
Q

_______ (lice/scabies) sit on the skin and hair follicles and lay eggs.

_______ (lice/scabies) burrow into the skin.

A

Lice sit on the skin and hair follicles and lay eggs.

Scabies burrow into the skin.

49
Q

True/False.

The incubation time for a person infected with pubic lice to show symptoms is up to 30 days (egg incubation time), and the ncubation time for a person infected with scabies to show symptoms and for the scabies to resolve with treatment is several weeks.

A

True.

T2 - Phase 2 - Systems Modules (III) (14 decks)

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