Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Bio 1 > EMT Exam 3 > Flashcards

EMT Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Perfusion

A

The supply of oxygen to and removal of wastes from the body’s cells and tissues as a result of the flow of blood through the capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hypoperfusion

A

The body’s inability to adequately circulate blood to the body’s cells to supply them with oxygen and nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Shock

A

The body’s inability to adequately circulate blood to the body’s cells to supply them with oxygen and nutrients, which is a life-threatening condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is shock a state of

A

Hypoperfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

True or false: respiration and perfusion is the same

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What can be the cause of shock/hypoperfusion

A

The malfunctioning of:
- The heart (pump)
- The vessels (pipes)
- Blood (fluid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Types of shock

A
  • Hypovolemic
  • Cardiogenic
  • Neurogenic
  • Anaphylactic
  • Septic
  • Obstructive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hypovolemic Shock

A
  • One of the 6 types of shock
  • “Fluid” problem
  • Results from a decreased volume of circulating blood and plasma
  • Often called hemorrhagic shock if caused by uncontrolled bleeding (internal or external)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cardiogenic Shock

A
  • One of the 6 types of shock
  • Results from inadequate perfusion to heart, decreasing strength of contractions
  • Heart’s electrical system may malfunction, causing heartbeat that is too slow, too fast, or irregular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Who do you often see cardiogenic shock in

A

MI patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Neurogenic Shock

A
  • One of the 6 types of shock
  • “Pipe” problem
  • Results from inability to control dilation of blood vessels because of nerve paralysis from spinal cord injuries
  • No blood loss, but vessels dilated so much that blood volume can’t fill them
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Anaphylactic Shock

A
  • One of the 6 types of shock
  • “Pipe” problem
  • Results from histamine release by severe allergic reaction
  • No blood loss, but vessles dilated so much that blood volume can’t fill them
  • Bronchioles constrict, reducing the amount of air entering lungs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What can hypovolemic shock be caused by

A

Can be caused by burns or crush injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Septic Shock

A
  • One of the 6 types of shock
  • “Pipe” problem
  • Results from systemic infection
  • Immune and inflammatory response in addition to actual infection release a multitude of toxins, proteins, hormones, etc; these cause vasodilation and impaired ability for cells to absorb oxygen
  • Requires aggressive fluid and antibiotic treatments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Obstructive Shock

A
  • One of the 6 types of shock
  • Blood flow is blocked
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Severity of Shock

A
  • Compensated: Body shunts blood where needed
  • Decompensated: Blood pressure falls as body can’t handle loos of volume
  • Irreversible: Cell damage occurring; causes rapid death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What can obstructive shock be caused by

A

Caused by conditions such as pulmonary embolism, cardiac tamponade (trauma to chest causing bleeding), tension pneumothorax (collapsed lung leads to build up leading to pushed organs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Signs and symptoms of shock

A
  • AMS
  • Pale, cool, clammy skin
  • N/V
  • Vital signs changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Infants/children have efficient compensating mechanisms that maintain their blood pressure until

A

Half of their volume is depleted (children are good at compensating); potential for shock must be recognized and treated before tell-tale signs appear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Care for shock

A
  • Aggressive airway maintenance (administer high-concentration oxygen)
  • Keep the patient warm with blankets and move to ambulance
  • Place supine
  • Rapid transport to trauma center within “golden hour”
  • Attempt to stop cause of shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Deadly triad of trauma

A
  • Acidosis
  • Hypothermia
  • Coagulopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Types of bleeding

A
  • Hemorrhage is severe bleeding; major cause of shock in trauma
  • External
  • Internal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

External bleeding- arteries

A
  • Spurting blood
  • Pulsating flow
  • Bright red color
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

External bleeding- veins

A
  • Steady, slow flow
  • Dark red color
  • Use occlusive dressing because prevents air from getting in (and therefore embolism)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

External bleeding- capillaries

A
  • Slow, even flow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

External bleeding

A
  • Occurs outside of body after force penetrates skin and lacerates or destroys underlying blood vessels
  • Typically visible on surface of the skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is how much a person bleeds determined ny

A
  • Size and severity of wound
  • Size and pressure of ruptured vessel
  • Individual’s ability to clot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How fast can someone who is bleeding from an artery die

A

They can die in 3 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the most frequent cause of preventable death from injury

A

Serious bleeding from an extremity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Methods of controlling external bleeding

A
  • Direct pressure
  • Hemostatic agents
  • Wound packing
  • Tourniquet use on extremities
  • Specialized compression devices for junctional bleeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How to apply direct pressure to bleeding

A
  • Apply firm pressure to would with gloved hand and/or gauze
  • Hold pressure until bleeding is controlled
  • If necessary, add dressing when lower ones are saturated
  • Never remove bandages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hemostatic agents

A
  • Dressing containing substance that absorbs and traps RBCs
  • Can be wadded up and inserted into wound
  • May be a power poured directly into the wound
  • Manual pressure is always necessary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How to do a wound packing

A
  • Open clothing around the wound
  • Locate the source of the most active bleeding
  • Pack hemostatic dressing or gauze roll tightly into wound and directly onto the source of bleeding
  • Compress firmly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What to do if wound packing is reassessed and it fails

A

Pack a second gauze on top of the first and reapply pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Tourniquet

A
  • Use if bleeding is uncontrollable via direct pressure
  • If applied correctly, a tourniquet stops arterial blood flow into the extremity and from the wound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where do you place tourniquets

A

Above the bleeding site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What to do if bleeding is not controlled by applying initial tourniquet

A

Apply a second one jut about the first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Other ways to stop bleeding

A
  • Splinting: Helps realign bones; decrease bleeding
  • Cold application
  • Elevation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Bleeding from ears

A
  • Usually from head injury
  • From increased intracranial pressure not direct trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What to do with a nosebleed patient

A
  • Have patient sit and lean forward
  • Apply direct pressure to fleshy portion of nostrils
  • Keep patient calm and quiet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Epistaxis

A

Nosebleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Internal bleeding

A
  • Damage to internal organs and large blood vessels can result in loss of a large quantity of blood in short time
  • Blood loss commonly cannot be seen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Signs of internal bleeding

A
  • Injuries to surface of body
  • Bruising, swelling, or pain over vital organs
  • Painful, swollen, or deformed extremities
  • Bleeding from mouth, rectum, or vagina
  • Tender, rigid, or distended abdomen
  • Vomiting coffee-round or bright-red material
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Blood loss of single rib fracture

A

125 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Blood loss of radius or ulna fracture

A

250-500 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Blood loss of humerus fracture

A

750 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Blood loss of tibia or fibula fracture

A

500-1000 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Blood loss of femur fracture

A

1000-2000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Blood loss of pelvis fracture

A

Massive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Blunt force trauma

A

Leading cause of internal bleeding; can be caused by falls, MVCs, automobile-pedestrians collisions, blast injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Common penetrating traumas

A
  • GSWs
  • Stab wounds
  • Impaled objects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What do soft tissues include

A
  • Skin
  • Fatty tissues
  • Muscles
  • Blood vessels
  • Fibrous tissues
  • Membranes
  • Glands
  • Nerves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Functions of skin

A
  • Protection
  • Water balance
  • Temp regulation
  • Excretion
  • Shock absorption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

True or false: soft tissue injuries often appear worse than they are

A

True; after cleaning up blood looks much better

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Types of closed wounds

A
  • Contusion
  • Hematoma
  • Closed crush injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Contusion

A
  • Type of closed wound
  • A bruise
  • Pain, swelling, discoloration at site
  • May be immediate or delayed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Hematoma

A
  • Type of closed wound
  • Similar to contusion but with more tissue damage and involves larger blood vessels
  • “Pocket” of blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Closed crush injury

A
  • Type of closed wound
  • Excessive force transmitted from the body’s exterior to it’s internal structures
  • Often crushes or ruptures internal organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Assessment for closed wounds

A
  • Bruising may be internal injury or bleeding
  • Consider MOI
  • Crush injuries are difficult to identify
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Treatment for closed wounds

A
  • Manage ABC’s
  • Always manage shock
  • Splint extremities that are painful, swollen, or deformed
  • Stay alert for vomiting
  • Continuously monitor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Types of open wounds

A
  • Abrasion
  • Laceration
  • Puncture
  • Avulsion (peeled skin)
  • Amputation
  • Crush injury
  • Blast injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

General treatment strategy for open wounds

A
  • Expose wound
  • Clean surface of wound
  • Control bleeding
  • Provide care for shock
  • Prevent further contamination
  • Bandage dressing in place after bleeding is controlled
  • Keep patient still
  • Reassure patient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Dressing

A

Any material applied to wound to control bleeding and preventing contamination (eg MIDDLE of bandage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Bandage

A

Any material used to hold dressing in place (adhesive part of bandage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How to care for abrasions and lacerations

A
  • Reduce wound contamination
  • Hold direct pressure
  • Always check pulse, motor, and sensory function distal to injury to assure function
  • Never open edges of laceration to see inside or further clean wound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Penetrating and puncture wounds

A

An open wound that tears through the skin and destroys underlying tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Concerns for puncture wounds

A
  • Objects may be embedded deeper than they appear
  • Check for exit wounds; may require immediate care
  • Bullets can fracture bones as they enter
  • Stab wounds are considered serious if in a vital area of body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Treatment for puncture wounds

A
  • Search for exit wound
  • Assess need for shock care
  • Follow spinal immobilization protocols
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Avulsion

A

Flaps of skin or tissue are torn loose or pulled completely off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Degloving

A

The skin is removed like a glove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Treatment for avulsions

A
  • Clean the wound surface
  • Fold the skin back, if possible; will help the flap continue to profuse and not die
  • Control bleeding and dress with bulky dressings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are skin tears considered

A

Avulsions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Amputation

A

The traumatic severing of a body part, usually an extremity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Treatment of amputations

A
  • Control bleeding (apply pressure dressing over stump/apply tourniquet)
  • DON’T COMPLETE AMPUTATION
  • Wrap amputated part in sterile wet dressing and place in plastic bag; put bag in pan with water and cold packs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Open crush injury

A
  • Crush injuries can also be open if bones are fractured as a result of the heavy force and those bone ends break the skin
  • Treat any open injuries with basic strategies and expect massive internal injuries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Blast injury

A

Several waves:
- Pressure wave/primary injuries
- Blast wave (things flying at you)/secondary injury
- Patient displacement/tertiary injury
- Hazmat or structural collapse/quaternary injury
- May have a combination of all open and closed injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is at risk during blast injuries

A

Hollow organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Evisceration

A

Abdominal organs protruding through an open wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How to treat evisceration

A
  • Don’t touch or try to replace the exposed organ
  • Cover exposed organs and wound with a sterile WET dressing, moistened with sterile water/saline, and secure in place
  • Flex the patient’s hips and knees if uninjured to relieve pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Treatment for impaled objects

A
  • Don’t remove object; may cause severe bleeding
  • Expose wound area
  • Control profuse bleeding by direct pressure
  • Apply several layers of bulky dressing to “splint” object in place
  • Treat for shock
  • Provide rapid transport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Impaled object in cheek

A
  • Take care that object does not enter oral cavity, causing airway obstruction
  • If cheek wall is perforated, profuse bleeding into mouth and throat can cause N/V
  • External wound care will not stop flow of blood into the mouth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Treatment for impaled object in cheek

A
  • Examine wound site, both inside and outside mouth
  • If you find the perforation and can see both ends, remove the object (only if its impaling only the cheek)
  • If object is impaled into another structure, stabilize in place
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Treatment for impaled object in eye

A
  • Stabilize the object in place
  • Cover the other eye
  • Secure both in place
  • Reassure patient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Treatment for genital injuries

A
  • Control bleeding
  • Preserve avulsed parts
  • Consider if injury suggest a more serious injury
  • Maintain patient’s dignity
  • Dress and bandage wound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Burns

A
  • May involve more than just skin-level structures
  • If respiratory structures are affected, swelling (of airway) may occur, causing life-threatening obstruction
  • Don’t let burn distract from spinal damage or fractures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Assessment of burns

A
  • Agent and source
  • Depth
  • Severity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Depth of burns: 1st degree

A
  • AKA superficial burn
  • Involves only epidermis
  • Reddening with minor swelling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Depth of burns: 2nd degree

A
  • AKA partial thickness burn
  • Epidermis burned through, dermis damaged
  • Deep, intense pain
  • Blisters and mottling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Depth of burns: 3rd degree

A
  • AKA full thickness burn
  • All layers of skin burned
  • Blackened areas surrounded by dry and white patches
  • Often doesn’t feel pain because lack of functioning nerves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How to measure the percent of skin burned

A
  • Rule of 9’s
  • Palmar method (hand is 1% of skin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

True or false: a minor burn area in a young adult can be fatal to a geriatric adult

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

True or false: infants and children have a much greater relationship of body surface area to total body size, resulting in greater body fluid and heat loss from burned skin

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are thermal burns caused by

A

Flame, radiation, excessive heat from fire, steam, hot liquids, and hot objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

How to treat (and not treat) thermal burns

A
  • Use dry, sterile dressings
  • Never apply ointments, sprays, or butters
  • Don’t break blisters (the blister keeps fluid away from healing skin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are chemical burns caused by

A

Various acids, bases, and caustic substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Treatment for chemical burns

A
  • Wash with lots of flowing water
  • If dry chemical, brush away, then flush with water
  • Remove contaminated clothing
  • Apply sterile dressings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Electrical Injuries

A

Severe damage through body by disrupting nerve pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What can be caused by electrical injuries

A
  • Entry and exit burns
  • Respiratory/cardiac arrest
  • Bones may fracture from violent muscle contractions
  • Cardiac rhythm changes (be ready to defibrillate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

How to treat electrical injuries

A
  • Cool burning areas and apply sterile dressings
  • Treat for shock and provide oxygen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Blunt Trauma

A

A mechanism of chest injury; can fracture ribs, sternum, and costal (rib) cartilages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Compression

A

A mechanism of chest injury; occurs when severe blunt trauma causes the chest to rapidly compress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Penetrating Objects

A

A mechanism of chest injuries; bullets, knives, pieces of metal or glass, steel rods, pipes, etc; can damage internal organs and impair respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Flail Chest

A
  • A fracture or two or more consecutive ribs in two or more places
  • Paradoxical motion occurs when a flail segment moves in the opposite direction of the chest during respiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Assessment for flail chest

A
  • MOI
  • Difficulty breathing/hypoxia
  • Chest wall muscle contraction/paradoxical movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Treatment for flail chest

A
  • Administer oxygen
  • Use bulky dressing to stabilize flail segment
  • Monitor patient for respiratory rate and depth; assist ventilations if too shallow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Open chest injuries

A
  • Difficult to tell what is injured from entrance wound
  • Assume all wounds are life-threatening
  • Open wounds allow air into chest which sets pressure imbalance and causes lung to collapse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Assessment for open chest wound

A
  • Sucking chest wound
  • Direct entrance wound to chest
  • May or may not be sucking sound
  • May be gasping for air
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Treatment for open chest wounds

A
  • Maintain open airway
  • Seal wound
  • OCCLUSIVE DRESSING
  • Administer oxygen
  • Treat for shock
  • Immediate transport
  • Consider ALS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

In how many places do you tape an occlusive wound for a one sided open chest wound

A

Three; allows air to escape but still keeps air out (flutter valve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What to do if there is an entrance and exit open chest wound

A

Tape occlusive dressing on four sides to the back exit wound, tape on three sides to chest open wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Air in pleural cavity of lung which causes excessive pressure on lungs; can cause lung to collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Tension pneumothorax

A

Pneumothorax causes the heart to be pushed to one side; causes drop in blood pressure and tracheal deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Hemothorax

A

Blood in pleural cavity of lung which causes excessive pressure on lungs; can cause lung to collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Hemopneumothorax

A

Blood and air in pleural cavity of lung which causes excessive pressure on lungs; can cause lung to collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Traumatic Asphyxia

A
  • Sudden compression of chest
  • Sternum and ribs exert pressure on hearts and lungs
  • Blood forced out of right atrium and up into jugular veins
  • Causes ruptured blood vessels and extensive neck/facial bruising
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What can cause traumatic asphyxia

A

People get stuck between heavy objects/machinery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Cardiac Tamponade

A
  • Direct injury to heart causing blood to flow into the pericardial sac around the heart
  • Pericardium is a tough sac that rarely leaks
  • Increased pressure on heart so chambers cannot fill causing blood to back up into veins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What causes cardiac tamponade

A

Usually a result of penetrating trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Beck’s Traid for cardiac tamponade

A
  • JVD
  • Muffled heart sounds
  • Narrowing pulse pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is the largest blood vessel in the body

A

The aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What can be caused by damage from the aorta

A

High-pressure bleeding that is often fatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Types of trauma to the aorta

A
  • Penetrating trauma can cause direct damage
  • Blunt trauma can sever or tear the aorta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Signs and symptoms of aortic injury

A
  • Patient complains of pain in chest, abdomen, or back
  • Signs of shock
  • Differences in blood pressure between right and left arms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Commotio Cordis

A
  • Trauma to chest when heart is vulnerable
  • Causes ventricular fibrillation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Treatment for commotio cordis

A

CPR, defibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Abdominal injuries

A
  • Can be open or closed
  • Internal bleeding if organs or blood vessels are lacerated or ruptured
  • Serious, painful reactions if hollow organs rupture
  • Evisceration may occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Assessment for abdominal injuries

A
  • Pain
  • Nausea
  • Weakness
  • Thirst
  • Indications of blunt trauma to chest, abdomen, or pelvis
  • Coughing up or vomiting blood
  • Rigid and/or distended abdomen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Treatment for abdominal injuries

A
  • Carefully monitor airway in presence of vomiting
  • Position of comfort
  • Place patient on back with knees flexed
  • Treat for shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Treatment for evisceration

A
  • Don’t touch or replace organs
  • Apply sterile dressing moistened with sterile saline over wound site
  • For large evisceration, maintain warmth by placing laters of bulky dressing over occlusive dressing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

How many ribs are in the thoracic cavity

A

12 pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

How many ribs are floating in the thoracic cavity

A

2 pairs; they are not attached to the sternum or anterior ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Striated Muscle

A

AKA voluntary muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Smooth Muscle

A

AKA Involuntary muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Bones physiology

A

Framework

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Joints physiology

A

Bending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Muscles physiology

A

Movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Cartilage physiology

A

Flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Ligaments physiology

A

Connect bone to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Tendons physiology

A

Connects muscles to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What are bones made of

A

Formed of dense connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Why are bones susceptible to bleeding on injury

A

They are vascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Self-healing nature of bone

A
  • Break causes soft tissue swelling and a blood blot in the fracture area
  • Interruption of blood supply causes the bone section to die
  • Cells further from fracture divide rapidly forming tissue that heals the fracture and develops into new bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Mechanisms of musculoskeletal injruy

A
  • Direct force
  • Indirect force
  • Twisting (rotational) force
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Fracture

A

Any break in a bone (open or closed); can be comminuted, greenstick, angulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Comminuted Fracture

A

Broken in several places

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Greenstick Fracture

A

Incomplete break

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Angulated Fracture

A

Bent at an angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Dislocation

A

“Coming apart” of a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Sprain

A

Stretching and tearing of ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Strain

A

Overstretching of muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Splinting of fractured extremity

A

Splinting of an extremity with a suspected fracture helps prevent blood loss from bone tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Assessment for musculoskeletal injuries

A
  • Treat life-threatening conditions
  • Be alert for injuries besides grotesque wound
  • Pain and tenderness
  • Deformity and angulation
  • Grating (crepitus)
  • Swelling
  • Brusing
  • Exposed bone ends
  • Nerve/blood vessel compromise (decreased CMS)
  • Compartment syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Compartment Syndrome

A

Painful conditions that occurs when pressure within the muscles builds to dangerous levels; this pressure can decrease blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Six P’s of musculoskeletal assessment

A
  • Pain or tenderness
  • Pallor (pale skin)
  • Parasthesia (pins and needles)
  • Pulses diminished or absent
  • Paralysis
  • Pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Advantages of splinting

A
  • Minimizes movement of disrupted joints and broken bone ends
  • Prevents additional injury to soft tissues (nerves, arteries, veins, muscles)
  • Decreases pain
  • Minimizes blood loss
  • Can prevent a closed fracture from becoming an open fracture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Principles of splinting

A
  • Expose injury site
  • Assess distal CSM
  • Align long-bone injuries to anatomical position
  • Don’t push protruding bones back into place
  • Immobilize both injury site and adjacent joints/bones
  • Apply splint before moving patient to stretcher
  • Pad voids (prevents hunchback)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Realigning deformed extremity

A
  • Assists in restoring effective circulation to extremity and to fit it to splint
  • If not realigned, splint may be ineffective, causing increased pain and possible further injury
  • ONE TRY TO REALIGN, then just splint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Hazards of splinting

A
  • “Splinting patient to death”- splinting patient before life-threatening conditions are addressed
  • Not ensuring ABC’s
  • Too tight- compresses soft tissues
  • Too loose- allows too much movement
  • Splinting in deformed position
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Assessment for shoulder girdle injuries

A
  • Pain in shoulder
  • Dropped shoulder
  • Severe blow to back over scapula
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Treatment for shoulder girdle injuries/Humerus, Elbow, Radius

A
  • Assess distal CSM
  • Use sling and swathe
  • Don’t attempt to straighten or reduce
  • Reassess distal CSM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Assessment for pelvic injuries

A
  • Pain in pelvis, hips or groin
  • Pain when pressure applied
  • Can’t life legs
  • Lateral rotation of foot
  • Unexplained pressure in bladder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Treatment for pelvic injuries

A
  • Minimize movement
  • Check distal CSM
  • Anatomical position
  • Stabilize lower limbs
  • Treat for shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Assessment for hip dislocation/fracture

A
  • Anterior hip dislocation
  • Posterior hip dislocation (rotation of leg and foot; shortening)
  • Pain and unable to stand
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Treatment for hip dislocation or fracture

A
  • Assess distal CSM
  • Move patient onto spine board
  • Immobilize limb with pillows and blankets
  • Secure patient to spine board
  • Reassess distal CSM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Assessment for femoral shaft fracture

A
  • Intense pain
  • Possibly open fracture
  • Injured limb may be shortened
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Treatment for shaft fracture

A
  • Control bleeding
  • Assess distal CSM
  • Apply traction splint
  • Reassess distal CSM
  • Treat for shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Assessment for knee injury

A
  • Pain and tenderness
  • Swelling
  • Deformity with swelling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Treatment for knee injury

A
  • Assess distal CSM
  • Immobilize in current position
  • Reassess distal CSM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Assessment for Tib/Fib injury

A
  • Pain and tenderness
  • Swelling
  • Possible deformity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Treatment for Tib/Fib Injury

A
  • Air inflated splint
  • Two-splint method
  • Single splint with ankle hitch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Treatment for ankle/foot injury

A
  • Assess distal CSM
  • Stabilize limb
  • Lift limb
  • Place cravats under ankle
  • Lower limb into pillow
  • Tie pillow around ankle
  • Apply ice pack as needed
172
Q

Disability

A

Condition interfering with the ability to engage in ADLs

173
Q

Terminal Illness

A
  • May depend on tech to sustain life or relieve pain
  • Advance directives
  • Special emoitonal needs
174
Q

Obesity

A
  • Increases risk of multiple diseases
  • Special measures to care for obese patient
  • Allow patient to assume comfortable position for breathing
  • Have enough assistance when lifting/moving patient
175
Q

Serious health problems related to homeless and poverty

A
  • Mental health issues
  • Malnutrition
  • Substance abuse problems
  • HIV/AIDS
  • Tuberculosis
  • Pneumonia
176
Q

How many children does autism effect

A

1 in 91 children

177
Q

What does autism effect

A

Ability to communicate; may need to modify assessment techniques and treatment protocols

178
Q

ABCS of dealing with autistic patients

A
  • Awareness
  • Basic
  • Calm
  • Safe
179
Q

(A)wareness of ABCS of dealing with autistic patients

A
  • EMT must adapt
  • Disruption of routine not well tolerated by patient
  • May have meltdown
180
Q

(B)asic of ABCS of dealing with autistic patients

A
  • Keep instructions simple
  • Keep questions short and close-ended
  • Keep equipment at a minimum as to not overstimulate patient
  • Defer interventions that are not precautions vs necessary
181
Q

(C)alm of ABCS of dealing with autistic patients

A
  • Calm creates calm
  • Start with one-to-one contact
  • Clear, controlled voice
  • Empathy and compassion
  • Take extra time to follow patient’s timeline unless emergency
182
Q

(S)afe of ABCS of dealing with autistic patients

A
  • Begin treatment where patient is found
  • Remove things that may aggravate child
  • Do toe-to-head survey, one step at a time
  • Consider taking breaks during exam
  • Let patient tell you when they are ready for next step
183
Q

Congenital Disease

A
  • Type of disease
  • Birth defect
  • Congenital heart disease, cleft palate, congenital deafness
184
Q

Acquired Disease

A
  • Type of disease
  • COPD, AIDS, traumatic spinal cord injury, deafness
185
Q

Respiratory Devices

A
  • CPAP
  • Tracheostomy tubes
  • Home ventilators
186
Q

EMT Assessment and Transport for home CPAP device

A
  • The problems are not usually related to the machine
  • If patient wishes to bring it to hospital, alert ER staff of use in radio report
187
Q

Tracheostomy Tubes

A

Respiratory device; surgical opening through neck into trachea in which breathing tube is placed

188
Q

What fits on the end of a tracheostomy tube

A

BVM

189
Q

Assessment for tracheostomy tube

A
  • If tube is clogged with mucus, clear using whistle tip catheter
  • Patient may buck during suction (gag and lurch forward)
  • May need to ventilate with BVM
190
Q

Transport for tracheostomy tube

A
  • During transport, elevate patient’s head to allow drainage
191
Q

EMT Assessment and transport for home ventilators

A
  • Make sure vent tube has no mucus
  • Assure that BVM is attached to oxygen
  • Secure ventilator if transporting
192
Q

Cardiac Devices

A
  • Implanted pacemaker
  • Automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD)
  • Left ventricular assist device (LVAD)
193
Q

AICD

A
  • Detects life-threatening cardiac rhythms
  • Delivers shock to correct dysrhythmia
  • Shock is very painful to patient but can’t be felt by caregivers
194
Q

Where is the AICD implanted

A

Upper left chest or upper left abdominal quadrant

195
Q

Assessment for AICD

A
  • Treat as high-risk cardiac patient
  • If cardiac arrest, use CPR and AED
196
Q

Left Ventricular Assist Device

A

Surgically implanted pump used for end-stage heart failure pump; helps heart pump blood effectively through continuous flow of blood SO NO PULSE

197
Q

Assessment for LVAD

A
  • Battery failure: plug into AC source
  • Pump failure: use hand or foot pump
  • Battery should be secured as not to pull tubing
198
Q

Gastrourinary Devices

A
  • Feeding tubes
  • Urinary catheters
  • Ostomy bag
199
Q

Assessment and Transport for feeding tube

A
  • Secure tubes to patient with tape before transport
  • Keep nutrients higher than tube
  • Put protective cap in place to prevent leakage
200
Q

Assessment and transport for urinary catheters

A
  • During transport, keep catheter bag lower than patient but not on floor
  • Empty bag if one-third to one-half full
201
Q

What to document during assessment/transport of urinary catheter patients

A

Urine discoloration, odor, amount emptied

202
Q

Ostomy Bags

A

Connected to site of colostomy or ileostomy to collect feces

203
Q

Are ostomy bags visible through clothing

A

No

204
Q

Common problems with ostomy bags

A
  • Infection at stoma site
  • Blockage
  • Dislodgement
205
Q

Hemodialysis

A
  • Usually at dialysis center
  • Performed by attaching patient to dialyzer
  • Large needles and tubing removes and returns blood to filter
206
Q

Complication with hemodialysis

A
  • Bleeding from A-V fistula
  • Infection
207
Q

Peritoneal Dialysis

A
  • Permanent catheter implanted through abdominal wall into peritoneal cavity
  • Dialysis solution runs into abdominal cavity and its absorbed by intestines
208
Q

Complications from peritoneal dialysis

A
  • Dislodging of catheter
  • Infection (peritonitis)
209
Q

Assessment for dialysis

A
  • Don’t take blood pressure on any arm with shunt, fistula, or graft
  • Rupture of shunt, fistula, or graft causes fast, significant blood loss
  • Direct pressure to control bleeding
210
Q

Central IV Catheters

A
  • Surgically inserted for long-term delivery of meds or fluids
  • May have infection
211
Q

Vulnerable Population

A
  • Patients dependent on others
  • More vulnerable to physical/sexual abuse, exploitation, neglect
212
Q

What to look for when dealing with vulnerable population

A
  • Stories that are inconsistent with injuries
  • Multiple injuries in various stages of healing
  • Repeated injuries
  • Caregiver’s indifference to patient
213
Q

What to do when dealing with vulnerable populations

A
  • Don’t make accusations
  • Do best to get patient out of environment
  • Report suspicions according to requirements of jurisdiction
214
Q

Central nervous system parts

A
  • Brain
  • Spinal Cord
215
Q

Peripheral nervous system

A
  • Vertebral nerves
  • Cranial nerves
  • Body’s motor and sensory nerves
216
Q

How many facial bones are there

A

14

217
Q

Injuries to scalp

A

Lots of blood vessels; profuse bleeding

218
Q

Skull injuries

A
  • Open head injury
  • Closed head injury (SKULL is in tact)
218
Q

True or false: until proven otherwise, breakages are considered open

A

True

219
Q

Traumatic Brain Injuries (TBI)

A
  • Concussion
  • Contusion (coup, contrecoup)
220
Q

Subdural Hematoma

A

Hematoma between dura mater and brain

221
Q

Epidural Hematoma

A

Hematoma between skull and dura mater

222
Q

Intracerebral Hematoma

A
  • Hematoma in the brain
  • Patient experiences severe headache
223
Q

Intracranial Pressure

A

As pressure inside the skull increases the brain is compressed against the skull and this pressure reduces perfusion to vial brain structures

224
Q

Is ICP a closed or open head injury

A

Closed

225
Q

Cushing’s Triad

A
  • For ICP
  • Increase in blood pressure
  • Decrease in pulse
  • Irregular breathing rate
226
Q

Ataxic Respirations (slide 14 of brain)

A
227
Q

Central Neurogenic Hyperventilation

A
228
Q

Cheynes-Stokes Breathing

A

Fast shallow breathing followed by slow heavier breathing

229
Q

Racoon Eyes

A
230
Q

Battle Signs

A
231
Q

Signs and symptoms of brain injuries

A
  • AMS
  • Laceration, contusion, hematoma to head
  • Depressions or deformities in the skill
  • Battle signs/raccoon eyes
  • One eye appears sunken
  • Bleeding/clear fluid from ears or nose
  • Change from irritable to irrational behavior
  • Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations
232
Q

What to do with cranial injuries with impaled objects

A

Stabilize object in place

233
Q

What is the primary concern for injuries to the face and jaw

A

Airway; when possible, position to allow for drainage

234
Q

Signs and symptoms for nontraumatic brain injuries

A

Signs are the same as for traumatic injury, except no evidence of trauma and no MOI

235
Q

What is Glasgow Coma Scale Used (GCS) for

A

May use GCS in addition to AVPU for ongoing neurological assessment

236
Q

Considerations for use of GCS

A
  • Eye opening
  • Verbal response
  • Motor response
237
Q

Should you spend extra time at the scene calculating GCS?

A

No

238
Q

KNOW GCS CHART

A
239
Q

Is the pressure in the large vein in neck higher or lower than atmosphere

A

Lower

240
Q

Why do wounds to the neck create potential for serious bleeding

A

Large, major vessels close to surface

241
Q

What is there a great possibility of with wounds to the neck besides bleeding

A

Air embolus being sucked through

242
Q

Treatment for neck injury

A
  • Stop bleeding (direct pressure)
  • Prevent air embolism with 4- side taped occlusive dressing
243
Q

Treatment for open neck wound

A
  • Ensure open airway
  • Placed glove hand over wound
  • Apply occlusive dressing
  • Apply pressure
  • Bandage dressing in place
  • Immobilize spine if MOI suggest c-spine injury
244
Q

Neurogenic shock

A

Form of shock resulting from nerve paralysis; causes uncontrolled dilation of blood vessels

245
Q

Assessment for spinal injuries

A
  • Paralysis of extremities
  • Pain with or without movement
  • Tenderness anywhere along spine
  • Impaired breathing
  • Deformity
  • Priapism
  • Loss of bowel or bladder control
246
Q

Treatment for spinal injury

A
  • Provide manual in-line stabilization
  • Assess ABC’s
  • Rapidly assess for sensory and motor function (mark with pen)
  • Apply appropriate c-spine
  • Reassess sensory and motor function
247
Q

How many spinal cord injuries to males account for

A

80%

248
Q

How many people are living with SCI in the US

A

200,000

249
Q

How many new SCI cases a year

A

12,000 to 20,000 (15 to 40 new cases per million people a year)

250
Q

True or false: C-spine collar used in conjunction with long backboard

A

True

251
Q

Stabilizing a seated patient: low priority

A

Use a short board or vest-immobilization device

252
Q

Stabilizing a seated patient: high priority

A

Maintain manual stabilization while moving patient

253
Q

Applying a long backboard

A
  • Log roll patient
  • Pad voids between board and head/torso
  • Secure head last
  • If pregnant, tilt board to left after immobilizing
254
Q

When to leave helmet in place

A
  • Fits snugly, allowing no movement
  • Absolutely no impending airway or breathing issues
  • Removal would cause further injury
  • Proper spinal immobilization can be done with helmet in place
255
Q

When to remove helmet

A
  • Interferes with access to manage airway
  • Improperly fitted
  • Interferes with immobilization
  • Cardiac arrest
256
Q

Multiple trauma patient

A

More than one serious injury

257
Q

Multisystem trauma patient

A

Patient with one or more injuries serious enough to affect more than one body system

258
Q

Determining patient severity

A
  • Physiologic criteria = function
  • Anatomic criteria = structure/location
  • MOI (unreliable by itself)
259
Q

Physiologic Criteria for determining patient severity

A
  • AMS (GCS<14): head injury
  • Hypotension (systolic <90mmHg): shock, internal bleeding
  • Abnormally slow respiratory rate: head injury, later stages of shock
  • Abnormally high respiratory rate: shock
260
Q

Anatomic Criteria for determining patient severity

A
  • Injury to specific body part/area requiring immediate surgical intervention
  • Injuries to head and chest
  • Multiple musculoskeletal injuries
  • Amputations
  • Severely mangled extremities
  • Pelvic injuries
261
Q

MOI for determining patient severity

A
  • In absence of anatomic or physiological signs, MOI is considered if severe
  • Fall
  • High risk auto crash
  • Automobile-pedestrian crash
  • Motorcycle crash
262
Q

How to prepare for multisystem trauma patients

A

Determine crew roles

263
Q

Treating multisystem trauma

A
  • Follow priorities determined by primary assessment
  • Attend to life threats
  • Reassess what to treat on scene and what needs definitive care
  • Call hospital so they can prepare
  • POSTPONE VITALS; SURGERY IMPORTANT
264
Q

Trauma scoring

A
  • Numerical rating system for trauma
  • Assigns number to certain patient characteristics to create a score
  • Objectively describes severity
  • Helps determine transport to trauma vs local hospital
  • Helps trauma centers
265
Q

Revised Trauma Score (RTS)

A
  • Components are GCS, systolic blood pressure, respiratory rate
  • Follow local protocol for use of scoring system
  • Don’t let it interfere with patient care/transport
266
Q

How the body loses heat

A
  • Conduction
  • Convection
  • Radiation
  • Evaporation
  • Respiration
267
Q

Generalized hypothermia

A

The body is unable to maintain proper core temperature

268
Q

Predisposing factors of hypothermia

A
  • Injury
  • Chronic illness
  • Geriatric/pediatric
269
Q

Why are geriatrics at risk for hypothermia

A

Older citizens live in unheated rooms; the environment, slowing body systems, and lack of activity can lead to hypothermia

270
Q

Why are pediatrics at risk for hypothermia

A

They have larger skin surface areas in relation to their total body mass, little body fat, and smaller muscle mass which makes them unable to shiver

271
Q

Assessment for hypothermia

A
  • Shivering, in early stages
  • Numbness
  • Stiff/rigid posture
  • Drowsiness
  • Rapid breathing/pulse
  • Loss of motor coordination
  • Joint/muscle stiffness
  • Unconsciousness
  • Cool abdominal skin temperature
272
Q

Passive vs active rewarming

A
  • Passive: Cover patient, remove wet clothing
  • Active: Apply external heat source
273
Q

True or false: The more severe the hypothermia, the less aggressive rewarming

A

TRUE

274
Q

When is a patient considered to have extreme hypothermira

A
  • Patient is unconscious, with no discernible vital signs
  • Heart rate can slow to 10 bpm
  • Very cold
275
Q

What are the most commonly affected areas for localized cold injuries

A
  • Ears
  • Nose
  • Face
  • Feet
276
Q

What happens with localized cold injuries

A
  • Blood flow limited by constriction of blood vessels
  • Tissues freeze, may form ice crystals
277
Q

What to do with patient in early/superficial phase of cold injury (frostnip)

A

Remove from cold and cover

278
Q

What to do with patient in late/deep phase of cold injury (frostbite)

A

Cover and immobilize gently (immobilize because affected areas can snap off)

279
Q

Dos for frostbite

A
  • Transport, keeping patient warm
  • Perform ongoing assessment
280
Q

Do not do for frostbite

A
  • Rub affect areas
  • Break blisters
  • Expose affected area to dry heat
  • Immerse affected area in snow or hot water
  • Allow affected part to thaw if it may refreeze before transport is complete
281
Q

How is hyperthermia caused

A

When heat that isn’t needed for temperature maintenance and isn’t lost creates hyperthermia

282
Q

True or false: unchecked hyperthermia can lead to death

A

True

283
Q

Predisposing factors of hyperthermia

A
  • Peds/geri
  • Chronic illness
  • Obesity
  • Exercise for health individuals
284
Q

Signs and symptoms for heat exhaustion

A
  • Muscular cramps
  • Weakness or exhaustion
  • Rapid, shallow breathing
  • Weak pulse
  • Heavy perspiration
  • Loss of consciousness
285
Q

Treatment for heat exhaustion

A
  • Remove from hot environment
  • Administer oxygen
  • Loosen/remove clothing
  • Position supine
  • Small sips of water
  • Transport
286
Q

Signs and symptoms of heat stroke

A
  • Rapid, shallow breathing
  • Full, rapid pulse
  • Generalized weakness
  • Little or no perspiration
  • AMS
  • Dilated pupils
  • Seizures
287
Q

Treatment for heat stroke

A
  • Remove from hot environment
  • Remove clothing
  • Apply cool packs to neck, groin, and armpits
  • Administer oxygen
  • Transport immediately
288
Q

PA state protocols for heat cramps

A

Moist, pale, normal to cool skin

289
Q

PA state protocols for heat exhaustion

A

Moist, pale, normal to cool skin (do passive cooling)

290
Q

PA state protocols for heat stroke

A

Hot, dry, or possibly moist skin (active cooling)

291
Q

Heat cramps (according to pa state protocols)

A

Painful muscle spasms of the skeletal muscles that occur following heavy work or strenuous exercise in hot environments; thought to be caused by rapid changes in extracellular fluid osmolarity resulting from fluid and sodium loss

292
Q

Signs and symptoms of heat cramps (pa state protocols)

A
  • Alert
  • Muscle cramps (normally in most recently exercised muscle)
  • Hot, diaphoretic skin
  • Tachycardia
  • Normotensive
293
Q

Heat exhaustion (according to PA state protocols)

A

Patient presents with dizziness, nausea, headache, tachycardia, and possibly syncope. Usually from exposure to high ambient temperatures accompanied by
dehydration due to poor fluid intake. Temperature is less than
103° F. Rapid recovery generally follows saline administration.

294
Q

When should patient be treated as if they have heat stroke (according to pa state protocols)

A
  • Exposure to hot environment
  • Hot skin
  • AMS
    (all three)
295
Q

Treatment for drowning

A
  • Begin rescue breathing without delay
  • ABC vs CAB
  • May encounter airway resistance
  • Don’t delay transport
296
Q

Arterial gas embolism

A
  • Common in scuba diving accidents
  • Gas bubbles in bloodstream (diver holding breath)
  • May be due to inadequate training, equipment failure, underwater emergency, or trying to conserve air
297
Q

Decompression sickness

A
  • Common in scuba diving accidents
  • Diver surfacing too quickly from deep, prolonged dive
  • Takes 1-48 hours to appear
298
Q

Water Rescue

A
  • Reach: Hold object for patient to grab
  • Throw: Throw object that will float
  • Row: Row boat to patient
  • Go: Swim to patient (last resort)
299
Q

Ice Rescue

A
  • Throw flotation device to patient
  • Toss rope with loop
  • Push out flat bottomed aluminum boat
  • Lay ladder flat on ice to distribute weight of rescuer
  • Treat patient for hypothermia
  • Always transport
300
Q

Differences at higher altitudes

A
  • Less air to breathe
  • Decreased air pressure
301
Q

True or false: Normal, healthy people who have adjusted to high altitudes have a lower oxygen saturation than do those at sea level because there is less oxygen to breathe

A

True

302
Q

Acute Mountain Sickness

A
  • Type of high-altitude sickness
  • Less serious case of a person experiencing problems adjusting to thinner air
  • In mild cases, all that may be needed to overcome acute mountain sickness is rest and rehydration at altitude
  • In more severe cases, supplemental oxygen and immediate descent should lead to improvement
303
Q

High-altitude cerebral edema (HACE)

A
  • The worst form of acute mountain sickness
304
Q

Signs and symptoms for HACE

A
  • Headache that gets worse
  • Loss of coordination
  • Severe fatigue
  • Seizure
  • AMS
  • LOC
305
Q

Patient care for HACE

A
  • Arrange for immediate descent (always first)
  • Oxygen
  • Provide supportive treatment
306
Q

Which is more serious: HAPE or HACE

A

HACE

307
Q

Signs and symptoms of High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE)

A
  • Shortness of breath
  • Dry cough that progresses to coughing up blood
  • Tachypnea and tachycardia
  • Mild fever up to 100.4 DF
  • Ox sat lower
  • Respiratory failure and arrest
308
Q

Patient care for HAPE

A
  • Arrange for immediate descent
  • Administer high-concentration oxygen
  • Minimize physical activity
  • Provide supportive treatment
309
Q

True or false: insect stings and bites are rarely dangerous

A

True

310
Q

What can be a concern with spider/insect bites/stings

A

Anaphylactic shock

311
Q

True or false: you must remove stingers quickly

A

True

312
Q

Snakebites

A
  • Requires special care but are not usually life-threatening
  • Death is not sudden unless anaphylactic shock develops
  • Stay calm, keep patient calm and at rest
313
Q

True or false: you should not suck on bites

A

True

314
Q

How can marine life poisoning happen

A
  • Eating improperly prepared seafood or poisonous organisms
  • Stings and punctures
315
Q

What can activate toxins on skin, increasing pain related to marine life poisoning

A

Fresh water

316
Q

How to treat marine life poisoning

A

Use salt water to rinse affected area (vinegar also works)

317
Q

Poisonous vs venomous

A

Poisonous: You ingest something
Venomous: Something bites/stings you

318
Q

What is menstruation stimulated by

A

Estrogen and progestrone

319
Q

What happens during menstruation

A
  • Ovaries release ovum
  • Uterus walls thicken
  • Fallopian tubes moves eggs (peristalsis)
  • Uterus walls expel; bleeding 3-5 days
320
Q

What happens during fertilization

A
  • Sperm reaches ovum
  • Ovum becomes embryo
  • Embryo implants in uterus
  • Fetal stage begins
321
Q

Supine hypotensive syndrome

A
  • Placenta, infant, and amniotic fluid totals 20-24 lbs; when mother is supine, that mass compresses inferior vena cava
  • Cardiac output decreases
  • Dizziness and drop in blood pressure
322
Q

Physiological changes to respiratory system during pregnancy

A
  • Maternal oxygen demand increases
  • Changing diaphragm shape
323
Q

Physiological changes to cardiovascular system during pregnancy

A
  • Cardiac output increases
  • Maternal blood volume increases
  • HR, BP changes (faster pulse)
324
Q

Physiological changes to GI system during pregnancy

A
  • Morning sickness
  • Slowed peristalsis
325
Q

Physiological changes to urinary system during pregnancy

A
  • Changes in urinary frequency
326
Q

Physiological changes to musculoskeletal system during pregnancy

A
  • Shuffled gait
  • Center of gravity changes
327
Q

GPA Shorthand

A

Obstetric history

328
Q

History to ask for OB emergency

A
  • When is your EDD (Expected Due Date)
  • How far along are you? (Weeks)
  • How many are you expecting?
  • Contractions, Period and Frequency
  • Water broken or any vaginal discharge?
  • Have you been receiving pre-natal care?
  • If so, when was the last time?
  • Are you a “high risk” pregnancy, what for?
  • OB History (GPA)
  • Any complications or issues with previous pregnancies/deliveries?
  • Have you had now, or in any previous pregnancy had Gestational DM, Pre-Eclampisa,
    Eclampsia, c-section
  • Social Hx (Smoker, drinker, Drugs
329
Q

When does the first stage of childbirth start/end

A
  • Begins: Regular contractions
  • Ends: When the cervix is fully dilated
330
Q

Braxton-Hicks Contractions

A

Irregular, not sustained, and not indicative of impending delivery

331
Q

Lightening in childbirth

A

Fetus’s movement from high in the abdomen down toward birth canal

332
Q

Breach

A

Baby’s rear end comes out first during child birth (usually head first)

333
Q

When does the second stage of childbirth begin/end

A
  • Begins: When the cervix is fully dilated
  • Ends: When the baby is born
334
Q

Second stage of childbirth

A
  • Full dilated of cervix
  • Contractions increasingly frequent
  • Labor pain is severe
  • Mother feels urge to push or move bowels
  • EMT will have to decide whether to transport the patient, or keep her where she is and prepare to assist with delivery
335
Q

When does the third stage of pregnancy begin/end

A
  • Begins: After the baby is born
  • Ends: After the placenta is delivered
336
Q

Imminent Delivery

A
  • Control scene
  • Proper PPE
  • Place mother on bed, floor, or ambulance stretcher
  • Remove clothing obstructing vagina
  • Position assistant and OB kit
337
Q

Off-Duty Delivery Supplies

A
  • Clean sheets and towels
  • Heavy, flat twine or new shoelaces
  • Towel or plastic bag for placenta
  • Clean, unused rubber gloves and eye protection
338
Q

How to deal with fluid in newborns airways

A

Suctioning mouth right after its born

339
Q

Neonate

A

Birth to one month old

340
Q

APGAR Score

A
  • Activity (muscle tone), Pulse, Grimace, Appearance (skin color), Respiration
  • 0-10 points, 10 is best
  • Should be done at 1 and 5 minute
  • By 5 minute mark, should be 7-10
341
Q

Severely depressed AGPAR score

A

0-3

342
Q

Moderately depressed AGPAR Score

A

4-6

343
Q

Excellent condition AGPAR score

A

7-10

344
Q

How to keep new born warm

A
  • Heat retention is high priority
  • Dry baby
  • Discard wet blankets
  • Wrap baby in dry blanket
  • Cover head
345
Q

Basic neonatal resucitation

A
  • Drying, warming, positioning, suction, tactile, simulation
  • Oxygen
  • Bag-Mask
  • Chest compressions
346
Q

Advanced neonatal resucitation

A
  • Intubation
  • Medications
347
Q

Placenta previa

A

Placenta is in way of baby coming out; tell mother to stop pushing; c-section needed

348
Q

Neonatal resuscitation rules

A
  • Pulse greater than 100: Reassess and warm (this is normal)
  • Pulse lower than 100 but greater than 60: Ventilate 40-60
  • Pulse lower than 60: Ventilate and chest compressions 3:1
349
Q

How to control vaginal bleeding

A
  • Pad vagina (not pack)
  • Vaginal massage (painful)
350
Q

What does placenta delivery start with

A

Labor pains

351
Q

How long does it take for placenta to come out

A

30 minutes or longer

352
Q

When to begin transport after birth

A

10 minute after birth (do not wait to deliver placenta)

353
Q

Providing comfort to mother after childbirth

A
  • Take vitals signs frequently
  • Acts of kindness
  • Wipe face and hands with damp washcloth
  • Replace blood-soaked sheets and blankets
354
Q

What to do when delivery baby i breeched position

A
  • Try to tell mother to not push
  • If not, insert fingers near baby’s mouth to protect airway
355
Q

Limb presentation during childbirth

A

Limb comes out first

356
Q

What to do during limb presentation birth

A

Put mother in head down position, give oxygen, tell mother not to push, rapid transportation

357
Q

Prolapsed Umbilical Cord

A

Cord sticks out before baby

358
Q

What to do during prolapsed umbilical cord

A

Push fingers into vagina, lift upwards to relive pressure, rapid transport

359
Q

What to do for multiple birth

A
  • Have appropriate resources (multiple ambulances)
  • Clamp or tie cord of first baby
  • Assist with second delivery
  • Still only one placenta and cord per birth
  • Keep babies and mother warm
360
Q

What to do for premature birth

A
  • Keep baby warm
  • Keep airway clear
  • Provide ventilations and chest compressions
  • Watch umbilical cord for bleeding
  • Oxygen (blow by)
  • Call ahead to emergency department
361
Q

Meconium

A
  • Newborn’s first bowel movement
  • Don’t stimulate infant before suctioning
  • Suction MOUTH FIRST, then nose
  • Maintain open airway
  • Provide ventilations and/or chest compressions
362
Q

Emergencies in pregnancy

A
  • Excessive prebirth bleeding
  • Ectopic pregnancy (embryo in fallopian tube)
  • Pre-eclampsia and eclampsia (sign is seizure)
  • Miscarriage and abortion
  • Trauma in pregnancy
  • Still births
  • Accidental death of pregnant woman
363
Q

Signs of excessive prebirth bleeding

A
  • Main sign is usually profuse bleeding
  • Abdominal pain may or may not be felt
364
Q

What to do for excessive prebirth bleeding

A
  • Assess for signs of shock
  • High-concentration oxygen and transport
  • Pace sanitary napkin over vagina
365
Q

Sign of ectopic pregnancy

A
  • Pain on one side of mother
366
Q

Pre-eclampsia and eclampsia signs and symptoms

A
  • Elevated blood pressure
  • Excessive weight gain
  • Excessive swelling to face, ankles, hands, and feet
  • AMS or headache
  • Eclampsia is most severe form, when seizures occur
367
Q

Miscarriage signs snd symptoms

A
  • Cramping, abdominal pains
  • Bleeding: moderate to severe
  • Discharge of tissue and blood from vagina
368
Q

Trauma in pregnancy

A
  • Pulse 10-15 beats faster than non-pregnant women
  • Blood loss may be 30% to 35% before symptoms appear
  • Ask patient is she received blows to abdomen
369
Q

What to do for stillbirth

A
  • Do not resuscitate if it is obvious that the baby died some time before birth
  • Resuscitate if baby is born in cardiac/respiratory arrest
  • Prepare to provide life support
  • Age of viability
370
Q

What to do during accidental death of pregnant woman

A
  • Chance to save unborn baby
  • Being CPR on mother immediately
  • Continue CPR until emergency c-section can be performed or until we are relieved
371
Q

What to do for vaginal bleeding

A
  • Treat as potential life threat
  • Check for associated abdominal pain
  • Monitor for hypovolemic shock
372
Q

What to do for trauma to external genitalia

A
  • Observe MOI
  • Look for signs of severe blood loss and shock
  • Consider additional internal injuries
373
Q

What to do in cases of sexual assault

A
  • Treat immediate life threats
  • Do not disturb potential evidence
  • Examine genitals only if severe bleeding is present
  • Discourage bathing, voiding, or cleansing
  • Fulfill mandated reporting
374
Q

The Bradley Method

A
  • An alternate birthing method
  • All natural, no epidural
375
Q

Hypnobirth

A
  • An alternate birthing method
  • Relaxed state
376
Q

Lamaze

A
  • An alternate birthing method
  • Breathing exercises
377
Q

Home Birth

A
  • An alternate birthing method
  • Not recommended for high risk
378
Q

Water Delivery

A
  • An alternate birthing method
  • Not recommended for high risk
379
Q

Name of normal headfirst birth

A

Cephalic

380
Q

What is the average weight of an infant at birth

A

6.6-7.7lbs or 3.0-3.5 kg

381
Q

Weight gain of average infant

A

Weight doubles by six months and triples by twelve months

382
Q

What percent of an infant’s total body weight is made up by their head

A

25%

383
Q

Airway/breathing for infants

A
  • Airway is narrow, short, and easily obstructed
  • Nose and diaphragm are used for breathing vs adults who mainly use their nose/mouth
384
Q

How are antibodies passed to infants

A

They are passed from the mother to the child during pregnancy and also passed through breastfeeding

385
Q

Moro reflex (startle)

A
  • An infant reflex
  • Throws arms out, spreads fingers, and then grabs with fingers and arms
386
Q

Palmar Reflex

A
  • An infant reflex
  • Grasps objects placed in palm
387
Q

Rooting Reflex

A
  • An infant reflex, usually indicating hunger
  • Turns head to the side when cheek is touched
388
Q

Sucking Reflex

A
  • An infant reflex
  • Sucks when lips are stroked
389
Q

Sleep patterns for infants

A
  • Initially sleeps 16-8 hours throughout the day and night
  • Soon changes to 4-6 hours during the day and 9-10 hours at night
  • By 2-4 months, will sleep through the night
390
Q

Fontanelles

A

“Soft spot” of newborn’s skull

391
Q

When do fontanelles close

A
  • Posterior fontanelle closes in 2-3 months
  • Anterior fontanelle closes in 9-18 months
392
Q

What do sunken fontanelles indicate

A

Dehydration

393
Q

What do bulging fontanelles indictae

A

Without crying, they indicate increased pressure inside the skull

394
Q

Psychosocial aspects of infancy

A
  • Bonding: The sense that needs will be met
  • Desire for an orderly predictable environment
  • Scaffolding: Learning by building on what is already known
  • Temperament: Reaction to environment
395
Q

Body temperature range for toddler phase

A

98.6-99.6 deg F or 36-37.5 deg C

396
Q

About how weight does a toddler gain per year

A

4.4 lb or 2.0 kg

397
Q

True or false: body systems improve in efficiency during the toddler phase

A

True

398
Q

Pulmonary system during toddler phase

A
  • Terminal airways branch and grow
  • Alveoli increase in number
399
Q

Nervous system during toddler phase

A
  • Brain is 90% of adult brain weight
  • Fine-motor skills develop
400
Q

Musculoskeletal system during toddler phase

A
  • Muscle mass and bone density increase
401
Q

Immune system during toddler phase

A
  • More susceptible to illness
  • Immunity develops through exposure and vaccination
402
Q

When do all primary teeth come in by

A

36 months

403
Q

When is toilet training physically possible vs psychologically possible

A
  • Physically: 12-15 months
  • Psychologically: 18-30 months
404
Q

Psychosocial aspects of toddler phase

A
  • Begins to understand that words have meaning
  • Begins to understand cause and effect
  • Develops separation anxiety
  • Begins to develop “magic thinking” and engages in play-acting
  • Masters language basics that are refined through childhood
405
Q

What are considered preschool years

A

3-5 years old

406
Q

Physiologic aspect of preschool years

A

Body systems continue to develop

407
Q

Psychosocial aspects of preschool years

A
  • Interactive and social skills develop
  • Peer groups provide information about other families and the outside world
  • Peer interaction offers opportunity for learning, making comparisons and being part of a group
408
Q

What is considered school age

A

6-12 years old

409
Q

About how weight is gained each year during the school age phase

A

6.6 lbs or 3.0 kg

410
Q

Much much do school age children grow a year

A

2.4 inches or 6 cm

411
Q

Teeth during school age years

A

Primary teeth will be shed and replaced with permanent teeth

412
Q

Psychosocial aspects of school age years

A
  • Parents spend less time with child and provide general supervision
  • Decision-making skills develop
  • Self-esteem develop and is affected by popularity, support, etc
  • Moral development begins based on rewards and punishments for behaviors
  • Moral reasoning appears and control of behavior shifts to internal sources
413
Q

What are considered adolescence years

A

13-18 years

414
Q

Physiological aspects of adolescence

A
  • A rapid 2-3 year growth spurt begins with growth of feet and hands, then arms and legs
  • Sexual maturity is reached and secondary sexual development occurs
415
Q

Psychosocial aspects of adolescence

A
  • Strives for independence and individual identity
  • Interest in sex develops
  • Body image becomes a concern
  • May be prone to self-destructive behaviors
  • Personal code of ethics develops
416
Q

What is considered early adulthood

A

19-40 years old

417
Q

Physiological aspects of early adulthood

A
  • Lifelong habits and formed
  • Peak physical condition occurs between 19 and 26 years of age
418
Q

Psychosocial aspects of early adulthood

A
  • Job and family stress levels are high
  • Marriage, childbirth, and child rearing often occur
  • Accidents are the leading cause of death
419
Q

What is considered middle adulthood

A

41-60 years old

420
Q

Physiological aspects of middle adulthood

A
  • No significant changes occur in vital signs
  • Vision correction may be needed
  • Cancer, high cholesterol, and heart disease often develop
  • Weight control becomes more difficult
  • Menopause may begin for women
421
Q

Psychosocial aspects of middle adulthood

A
  • Task orientation increases
  • Problems are viewed as challenges rather than threats
  • Empty-nest syndrome can occur
  • Is concerned about both adult children and elderly parents
422
Q

What is considered late adulthood

A

61+ years

423
Q

Physiological aspects of late adulthood

A
  • Vital signs depend on health and physical condition
  • Cardiovascular system is less efficient and blood volume decreases
  • Respiratory system deteriorates and increases the likelihood of respiratory disorders
  • Endocrine changes decrease metabolism
  • Sleep-wake cycle is disrupted
  • Other body systems deteriorate
424
Q

Psychosocial aspects of late adulthood

A
  • Face challenges regarding living environment, self-worth, financial burden, and death
  • Motivation, personal interests, and activity level can enhance late adulthood
425
Q
A

Bio 1 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions