Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Bio 1 > EMT Exam 2 > Flashcards

EMT Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What to know when giving medication

A
  • Indications
  • Contraindications (when you should’t give it)
  • Side effects
  • Untoward/adverse effects (more harmful and unpredictable compared to side effects)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The six rights with medication

A

(1) Right patient
(2) Right medication
(3) Right dose
(4) Right time
(5) Right route
(6) Right documentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

TRAMP-ED

A
  • Time
  • Route
  • Amount
  • Medication
  • Patient
  • Expired
  • Documentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Routes of administration

A
  • Oral (PO)
  • Sublingual (SL)
  • Inhaled
  • Intramuscular (IM)
  • Intranasal (IN); Mucosal Atomization Device (MAD)
  • Subcutaneous (SubQ)
  • Endotracheal (ET)
  • Intravenous (IV)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pharmacodynamics (PD)

A

Study of effects of meds on the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pharmacokinetics (PK)

A

Study of absorption and elimination in the body; patient specific factors change how a medication is absorbed, works, and is eliminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ways fluids/meds can be administered into the vein

A
  • Saline lock (includes catheter and cap/lock that contains the port for administering meds)
  • Drip set (includes drip chamber, flow regulator, and drug/needle port)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Aspirin

A
  • Dose: 81mg to 324 mg baby (chewable); 325 mg adult
  • Route: Chewed/PO
  • MoA: Prevents further aggregation of platelets
  • Indications: Cardiac nature chest pain/discomfort
  • Contra indications: Asthma (can induce heart attack), recent trauma, GI bleeding, use in children
  • Side effects: GI upset, N/V, Heart burn
  • Medical command: Not required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Oral Glucose

A
  • Dose: 15 grams (1 single dose tube or 1/3 of tipple dose tube)
  • Route: Buccual
  • MoA: Increases blood sugar level
  • Indications: AMS with a history of DM, with suspected hypoglycemia
  • Contra indications: Unable to follow simple commands, Unable to protect airway
  • Side effects: Possible hyperglycemia
  • Medical command: Not required
  • Notes: Protect patient’s airway, may be possible to give to patient with severely AMS and lowered LOC; hypoglycemia is a stroke mimic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Oxygen

A
  • Dose: Nasal Cannula: 0-6lpm; Non-rebreather: 15lpm
  • Route: Inhalation
  • MoA: Provides increase % of O2 in inhaled air
  • Indications: Any patient in respiratory distress or suspected shock
  • Contra indications: None for emergency use
  • Side effects: Long term. non-humidified use can cause dehydration and nose bleeds
  • Medical command: Not required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Activated Charcoal

A
  • Dose: 12.5-25 grams for peds (1/2 to 1bottle); 25-50 grams for adults (1-2 bottles)
  • Route: Oral (PO)
  • MoA: Binds to ingested particulate
  • Indications: Ingestion of poison/toxin with medical command order
  • Contra indications: Unable to swallow/protect airway/follow simple commands, ingestion of caustic substance, exposure to toxin/poison via means other than ingestion
  • Side effects: Vomiting, black/tar stool a few days after
  • Medical command: Must contact prior to administration
  • Notes: If vomiting occurs, must repeat dose once
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Bronchodilator Inhaler and Albuterol Treatment

A
  • Dose: 1 Rx dose (usually 1 dose is 2 puffs) for inhaler; 2.5mg through handheld nebulizer for albuterol treatment
  • Route: Inhalation
  • MoA: Causes bronchodilation, allowing air to more easily pass through airway structures; B-2 agonist
  • Indications: Respiratory distress with signs of bronchoconstriction, wheezing
  • Contra indications: Broncho-constriction not the suspected cause of respiratory distress, patient not alert
  • Side effects: Increased HR, anxiety, shaking, nervousness
  • Medical Command: Must call after first administration for any subsequent administrations
  • Notes: You do not need full set of vitals sins or assessment; the albuterol treatment that is given in a nebulizer is an administered med
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nitroglycerin

A
  • Dose: 0.4 mg (1 spray ro tablet)
  • Route: Sublingual
  • MoA: Dilated coronary arteries, reducing workload of the heart, thereby reducing O2 command
  • Indications: Patients have chest pain as suspect to cardiac issues
  • Contraindications: Non-cardiac chest pain, ED drug use in last 24-48 hours, systolic BP <100, recent dosing
  • Side Effects: Light headedness, fainting, drop in BP, anxiety, increased HR
  • Medical Command: Must call after first administration for any subsequent administrations
  • Notes: Must ask all patients (including females) about ED use, must be careful handing drug bs it can be absorbed into skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Naloxone (Narcan)

A
  • Dose: 2mg
  • Route: Intranasal
  • MoA: Reverses the effects of narcotics, including depressed level of consciousness and respiratory depression
  • Indications: Suspected narcotic overdose, coma of unknown cause
  • Contraindications: Patient breathing adequately and able to maintain own airway
  • Side Effects: May precipitate withdrawal in patients dependent on narcotics
  • Medical Command: Not required
  • Notes: Only used to attain adequate respiratory effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Epinephrine Auto-Injectors

A

Dose: 0.3 mg for adults; 0.15 for peds
Route: Intramuscular
- MoA: Sympathetic activation, bronchodilation, vasoconstriction
- Indications: Severe allergic reactions with signs of AMS or respiratory compromise
- Contraindications: Mild allergic reaction, none in true emergency setting
- Side Effects: Increased HR, anxiety, shaking, nervousness, headache, numbness in extremities
- Medical Command: Must call after first administration for any subsequent administrations
- Notes: Don’t need full set of vitals/assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many meds interact poorly with grapefruit

A

85+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Saline lock

A

Catheter is placed into the vein and lock is place over it; lock contain port for administering meds through IV if needed later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

IV Drip Set

A

Clear plastic tubing connecting fluid bag; three important parts are drip chamber, flow regulator. drug/needle port

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Right atrium

A

Receives blood from veins; pumps to right ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Right ventricle

A

Pumps blood to lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Left Atrium

A

Receives blood from lungs; pumps to left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Left Ventricle

A

Pumps blood through the aorta to the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tricuspid

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mitral (Bicuspid)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pulmonary Valve

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Aortic Valve

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Circulation of blood in the heart

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the only ARTERY that carries deoxygenated blood

A

Pulmonary arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the only VEIN that brings oxygenated blood to the lungs

A

Pulmonary veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cardiac conduction system

A

A system of specialized muscle tissue that conducts electrical impulses that stimulate the heart to beat; automatic/involuntary; regulated by cardiac control centers in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Pulse

A

The outward expression of the heart beating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Blood Pressure

A
  • Heart at work = systole = systolic pressure
  • Heart at rest = diastole = diastolic pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

RBCs

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Plasma

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

WBCs

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Platelets

A

Help with clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)

A
  • AKA cardiac compromise
  • Blanket term for any time the heart may not be getting enough oxygen
  • Symptoms often mimic non-cardiac conditions
  • Treat all patients with ACS-like signs and symptoms as though they are having a heart problem
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Common ACS symptoms

A
  • Chest pain is best-known symptom
  • The chest pain can be described as crushing, dull, heavy, and squeezing or will be described as only pressure or discomfort; radiates to arms, upper abdomen, and jaw
  • Shortness of breath
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Associated signs and symptoms of ACS

A
  • Anxiety and feeling of impending doom
  • Nausea and pain/discomfort in upper abdomen
  • Sweating
  • Abnormal pulse
  • Abnormal blood pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the three patient populations that have atypical presentation in ACS

A
  • Women
  • Diabetics
  • Elderly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Secondary assessment AFTER doing normal primary assessment for cardiac

A
  • Use OPQRST-ASPN to get HPI
  • Obtain SAMPLE history
  • Take baseline vitals
  • ASPN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Focused physical assessment for cardiac

A
  • Look for perfusion (pulse in all extremities, capillary refill) in all extremities
  • Lung sounds
  • Inspection of chest
  • Palpation of chest (rule our pleuritic chest pain)
  • JVD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

12 Lead EKG

A
  • If trained and authorized to do so, obtain a 12-lead EKG for chest pain
  • An EKG is a paper print out that reflects the electrical activity of the heart
  • 12-lead tells us about STEMI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does STEMI (12-lead) stand for

A
  • ST: Segment
  • E: Elevation
  • M: Myocardial
  • I: Infarction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Treatment for true chest pain

A
  • Position of comfort
  • O2 if appropriate
  • Aspirin
  • Nitroglycerin
  • Transport to a cardiac center (emergency cath lab)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Coronary Artery Disease

A
  • Underlying condition for MI
  • Conditions that narrow or block arteries of heart
  • Often result from fatty deposit build-up on inner walls of arteries
  • Build-up narrows inner vessel diameter, restricts flow of blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Types of coronary artery disease

A
  • Thrombus: Blood clot on the inner surface of an artery
  • Embolus: Piece of blood clot breaks loose and flows to a smaller artery
  • Occlusion: Blockage of a blood vessel; reduced blood supply to myocardium causes emergency in majority of cardiac-related medical emergencies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Aneurysm

A

Weakened sections of blood vessels begin to dilate (balloon); bursting (rupture) can cause rapid, life-threatening internal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Electrical Malfunction of the Heart

A
  • Malfunction of heart’s electrical system generally results in dysrhythmia (abnormal rhythm)
  • Dysrhythmias include bradycardia, tachycardia, and rhythms that may present when there is no pulse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Mechanical malfunctions of the heart

A
  • Angina pectoris
  • Acute MI (AMI)
  • Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Angina Pectoris

A
  • Type of mechanical malfunction of the heart
  • Chest pain caused by insufficient blood flow to the myocardium
  • Typically due to narrowed arteries secondary to coronary artery disease
  • Pain usually during times of increased myocardial oxygen demand, such as exertion or stress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

AMI

A
  • Type of mechanical malfunction of the heart
  • Death of a portion of the myocardium due to lack of oxygen
  • Coronary artery disease is usually the underlying reason
  • Signs and symptoms: Typical ACS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

CHF

A
  • Type of mechanical malfunction of the heart
  • Inadequate pumping of the heart
  • Often leads to excessive fluid build-up in lungs and/or body
  • May be brought on by diseased heart valves, hypertension, obstructive pulmonary disease
  • Often a complication of AMI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Progression of CHF

A
  • Patient sustains AMI
  • Myocardium of left ventricle dies
  • Because of damage to left ventricle, blood backs up into pulmonary circulation and lungs
  • If untreated, left heart failure commonly causes right heart failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Signs/symptoms of CHF

A

Signs:
- Tachycardia
- Dyspnea and cyanosis
- Normal/elevated blood pressure
- Diaphoresis
- Pulmonary edema
Symptoms:
- Anxiety/confusion due to hypoxia
- Pedal edema
- Engorged, pulsating neck veins (late sign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Adequate Breathing

A

Breathing is sufficient to support life; signs include:
- No obvious distress
- Ability to speak in full sentences
- Normal color, mental status, and orientation
- Regular respirations/breathing sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Inadequate Breathing

A

Breathing is not sufficient to support life; signs include:
- Abnormal resp, diminished/absent lung sounds, poor tidal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What must happen for heart to function

A

Function of heart if to pump blood:
- Electrical function and mechanical functions must work together
- Electrical stimulation causes muscles to contract
- Pumping muscle requires oxygenated blood
- Without oxygenated blood, pumping fails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Mechanical Failure of the heart

A
  • Loss of normal heart muscle structure
  • MI
  • Chronic hypertension
  • Loss of normal heart valve function
  • Direct trauma
  • Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) indicates mechanical failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Asystole

A

No electrical functional of the heart (flat line); not shockable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Ventricular Tachycardia

A

Too often; shockable because there is still activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Ventricular Fibrillation

A

No pattern; shockable bc there is still activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Electrical dysfunction of the heart

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Sudden cardiac arrest

A
  • Abrupt onset of dysrhythmia
  • Acute blunt trauma to the chest causes commotio cordis (has to be very specific; low chance; Damar Hamlin)
  • Oxygen levels are relatively normal at beginning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Asphyxial cardiac arrest

A
  • Heart stops pumping due to systemic hypoxia
  • Result of low oxygen levels in blood
  • Appears with more warning than sudden cardiac arrest
  • Quality ventilations are important during CPR; no point in respirations without oxygen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Agonal Respirations

A
  • Occurs breathing occurs as a primal reflex during cardiac arrest
  • Small amount of oxygen allows medulla to send impulses to respiratory muscles
  • A downward spiral will end in death unless someone intervenes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Effects of cardiac arrest

A
  • Heart fails to pump
  • Blood stops moving
  • Cells are robbed of essential oxygen and nutrients
  • Organs are damaged and eventually fail
  • Patient will die if uncorrected
  • Goal is to intervene as early as possible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Pediatric cardiac arrest

A
  • Cardiac arrests in children are generally asphyxia in nature
  • Caused by choking, shock, or resp problem
  • Cardiac arrest in children is usually a predictable outcome after steady and rapid decompensation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Three commonly reported types of Sudden Unexpected Infant Death Syndrome (SUIDS)

A

Three commonly reported types of SUID:
- Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
- Unknown cause
- Accidental suffocation and strangulation in bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Typical SUIDS patient

A
  • Cardiac slowdown and sleep apnea
  • Eventually will stop breathing and not start again
  • Episode will be fatal if infant not reached in time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What to do with SUIDS patient

A
  • Unless there is rigor mortis, provide resuscitation
  • Provide emotional support to the parents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Chain of survival (adult/5 elements)

A

(1) Recognition and activation of the emergency response system
(2) Immediate high-quality CPR
(3) Rapid defibrillation
(4) Basic and advanced EMS
(5) Advanced life support and postarrest care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

BLS Assessment

A
  • Check responsiveness
  • Call for additional resources
  • Check breathing (agonal gasps)
  • Check pulse for 5-10 seconds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What to do if patient wakes up/moves after CPR

A
  • Manage airway; avoid hyperventilation
  • Keep defibrillator on patient during transport in case patient goes back into arrest
  • Reassess pulse every 30 seconds
  • Reassess all vitals frequently (at least every 5 minutes)
  • Transport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What to do if patient goes back into cardiac arrest

A
  • Stop vehicle and resume CPR
  • Analyze rhythm asap
  • Deliver shock if indicated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How to treat submersion injury patient in cardiac arrest

A
  • Treat them the same as any other cardiac arrest patient
  • Be aggressive with airway management and rescue breathing
  • Dry the patient
  • Take precautions to make very defibrillation safe for you and your team in water environment
  • May need to check pulse for longer for hypothermic patients (30 seconds)
  • Only defibrillate one time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When can you terminate resuscitation

A

Must continue resuscitation once you start until circulation occurs, another rescuer takes over, or until cease resuscitation order from physician/authority is received

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

How to notify family of unsuccessful resuscitation

A
  • Be straightforward
  • Allow family time with deceased patient
  • Don’t say you know how they feel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Common poisons

A
  • Meds (PORCH)
  • Pesticides
  • Plants
  • Foods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the severity of poison based on

A
  • Nature of poison
  • Concentration
  • Route of entry
  • Duration of exposure
  • Patient’s age and health
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Routes of entry for poison

A
  • Ingested
  • Inhaled
  • Absorbed
  • Injected
  • Radiation (which could be classified as absorbed)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

When do children vs adults ingest poison

A

A child may accidentally eat/drink toxin; an adult may purposefully and accidentally overdose from meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Assessment for ingested poison

A
  • What substance was involved (look for container; bring it with you)
  • When did the exposure occur
  • How much was ingested (estimate missing pills with dates)
  • Over how long a time (med taken for first time vs chronically)
  • What effects has patient experienced
  • What interventions have been taken
  • Patients weight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Symptoms of food poisoning

A

Nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Effects of acetaminophen poisoning

A
  • 4-12 hours: Loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting
  • 1-2 days: RUQ pain and jaundice
  • Antidote should be given within first 12 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Signs and symptoms of inhaled poison

A
  • Difficulty breathing
  • Chest pain
  • Coughing
  • Hoarseness
  • Headache, confusion, AMS
  • Seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Assessment for inhaled poisons

A
  • Substance involved
  • When did exposure occur
  • Over how long did exposure occur
  • What inventions taken
  • Was patient removed
  • Was the area ventilated
  • What effects is patient experiencing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Treatment for inhaled poison

A
  • Move patient from unsafe environment
  • Open the airway, provide high flow oxygen
  • History, physical exam, vital exams
  • Transport with all bottles
  • Ongoing assessment en route
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is CO, how is CO poisoning caused

A
  • CO is colorless, odorless, tasteless gas created by combustion
  • Can be caused by improper venting of fireplaces, portable heaters, generators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Signs and symptoms of CO poisoning

A
  • Headache (band around head)
  • Dizziness/nausea
  • Breathing difficulty
  • Cyanosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Treatment for CO poisoning

A
  • High flow oxygen is appropriate, but since CO bonds to rbcs more strongly than oxygen, can take several hours/days to “wash” CO from bloodstream
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Why is inhaling smoke dangerous

A
  • Smoke from burning materials can contains toxins like CO, ammonia, etc and the substances can irritate skin and eyes, damage lungs, and can progress to respiratory/cardiac arrest
  • Burned airway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Signs and symptoms of smoke inhalation

A
  • Difficulty breathing
  • Coughing
  • Smoky breath smell
  • Black (carbon) residue in mouth, nose, or sputum
  • Singed nasal or facial hair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Treatment for smoke inhalation

A
  • Move patient to safe area
  • Maintain airway; provide high flow oxygen
  • Monitor patient closely- airway burns may lead to swelling of airway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Treatment of absorbed poisons

A
  • Assess for immediate life threats
  • History, physical exam, vital signs
  • Brush off powder, then irrigate
  • Irrigate skin and eyes for at least 20 minutes and during transport
  • Transport with all containers
  • Ongoing assessment en route
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What does alcohol abuse affect

A

Central nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Assessment of alcohol abuse

A

All patients receive full assessment regardless of suspicion of intoxication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Signs and symptoms of alcohol abuse

A
  • Alcohol on breath
  • Unsteady on feet
  • Slurred speech
  • Flushed, warm
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Poor coordination
  • Blurred vision
  • Confusion/AMS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Delirium Tremens (DTs)

A
  • Abrupt cessation of drinking may cause DTs (alcohol withdrawal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Signs and symptoms of DTs

A
  • Confusion and restlessness
  • Unusual behavior (insanity)
  • Hallucinations, hand tremors, sweating
  • Seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Patient care for alcohol abuse

A
  • Keep suction ready for vomiting
  • Stay alert for airway problems
  • Monitor vitals signs
  • Gather history from patient, bystanders
  • Stay alert for seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is substance abuse

A
  • Any chemical substance taken for other than medical reasons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Uppers

A

Stimulants that affect the nervous system; may be snorted, smoked, or injected (examples are cocaine, amphetamines,etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Signs and symptoms of uppers

A
  • Excitement, restlessness
  • Increased pulse and respirations
  • Sweating
  • Hyperthermia
  • No sleep for a long time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Downers

A

Central nervous system depressants (examples are barbiturates, rohypnol (roofies), GHB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Signs and symptoms of downers

A
  • Sluggishness
  • Poor coordination
  • Decreased pulse and respirations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are narcotics

A
  • Used to relieve pain or help with sleep
  • Examples are opiates (heroin, codeine, morphine), oxycodone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Signs and symptoms of narcotics

A
  • Lethargy
  • Pinpoint pupils
  • Cool skin
  • Respiratory depression
  • Coma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are hallucinogens

A
  • Create intense state of excitement and distorted perception
  • Examples are LSD, PCP, ecstasy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Signs and symptoms for hallucinogens

A
  • Rapid pulse
  • Dilated pupils
  • Flushed face
  • Seeing/hearing things
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are volatile chemicals

A
  • Produce vapors that are inhaled
  • Initial “rush” then can act as central nervous system depressant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Signs and symptoms of volatile chemical inhalation

A
  • Dazed/disoriented
  • Swollen membranes in nose or mouth
  • Numbness/tingling sensation inside head
  • Changes in heart rhythm
  • May be residue of chemical on face or in bag
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Treatment for substance abuse

A
  • Be aware of possible airway problems and respiratory distress
  • Provide oxygen and assist respirations as needed
  • Treat for shock
  • Talk to patient to keep them calm and cooperative
  • Perform physical exam
  • Look for evidence of injection site (track marks)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

How do infectious diseases spread

A

Via bacteria, viruses, other microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

How do communicable diseases spread

A
  • Direct contact
  • Contact with secretions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Incubation period

A

The time from exposure to development of the first symptoms when an infection cases illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Communicable period

A

The interval when the patient is shedding/releasing infectious material; when the microbe can be potentially transmitted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Factors causing infection and illness after exposure

A
  • Virulence
  • Dose
  • Route
  • Body’s resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Sepsis

A

Life-threatening condition resulting from an abnormal and counterproductive response to infection by the body that causes damage to tissues and organs; the body overreacts and secretes substances that, instead of helping, hurts cells, tissues, and organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

When does septic shock occur

A

When changes from sepsis results in shock and hypotension that do not respond to intravenous fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Stages of sepsis

A

Infection (local), sepsis (systemic), septic shock (systemic with hypotension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Infection (local) stage of sepsis

A

Microbes multiply; the body mounts a normal immune response, usually including increase in wbcs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Sepsis (systemic) stage of sepsis

A

Body produces lactic acid and other chemicals; the ability to produce wbcs may be limited/exhausted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Septic shock (systemic with hypotension)

A

Lactic acid and other chemicals accumulate in the bloodstream, causing vasodilation and increased capillary permeability; leads to hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Common causes of sepsis (by location)

A
  • Lungs: pneumonia
  • GI Tract: Abdominal surgery, pancreatitis
  • Genitourinary Tract: Kidney/prostate infections, urinary catheter
  • Skin: Long-term intravenous catheter, tracheostomy, gastrostomy tube, pressure sores
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Systemic Inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) criteria

A
  • Temp: <96.8 deg F, >101 def F
  • Heart rate over 90
  • Respiratory rate over 20
  • Systolic BP lower than 90
  • New-onset AMS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Quick sepsis-related organ failure assessment (qSOFA)

A
  • Resembles SIRS criteria
  • Doesn’t predict whether someone is septic
  • Predicts whether septic patient will have longer to stay in ICU or be more likely to die
  • Factors: AMS, resp rate >22, systolic blood pressure <100mmhg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is chicken pox caused by

A

Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Signs and symptoms of chickenpox

A
  • Starts with vague symptoms resembling cold
  • Followed by fever and itchy rash that looks like blisters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

How does chickenpox spread

A
  • Direct person-to-person contact
  • Airborne from rash on skin or mucous membranes
  • Dried scabs don’t spread disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Treatment and prevention of chickenpox

A
  • Isolation of patients until lesions dry
  • Antiviral meds to shorten course of disease and prevent complications
  • Vaccination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Measles

A

Aka rubeola, a highly infectious viral disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Signs and symptoms of measles

A
  • Starts with fever, cough, eye irritation
  • Small white spots on inside of cheek (koplik spots)
  • Red-blotchy rash
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

How is measles spread

A

It is easily spread via inhaled droplets in air, contact with nose and throat secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Treatment for measles

A

No specific treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Measles prevention

A

Vaccination, quarantine, and hand hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is mumps caused by

A

Paramyxovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Signs and symptoms of mumps

A
  • Starts with vague symptoms such as muscle aches, loss of appetite, headache
  • Progresses to swelling and inflammation of one or both parotids
  • Parotitis lasts 7 to 10 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Transmission of mumps

A
  • Droplets
  • Direct contact with saliva
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Prevention of mumps

A
  • Vaccination
  • Quarantine of patients for 5 days after swelling appears
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Hepatitis

A

General term that means inflammation of liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Signs and symptoms of hepatitis

A
  • Fever
  • Nausea
  • Loss of appetite
  • Malaise
  • Abdominal pain
  • Jaundice a few days later
  • General worse in older patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

How is hepatitis A spread

A
  • By fecal-oral route
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Treatment for hepatitis A

A

No specific treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Prevention of hepatitis A

A
  • Hand hygiene
  • Proper food prep
  • Vaccination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Treatment for Hepatitis B

A

No specific treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Prevention for hepatitis B

A
  • Vaccination
  • Proper decontamination of equipment after a call
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Postexposure actions for hepatitis B

A
  • Wash exposure site with soap and water
  • See health care provider right away
  • Vaccination
  • Possible immune globulin injection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Signs and symptoms of hepatitis B

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Loss of appetite
  • Vague abdominal pain
  • Progresses to jaundice
  • Younger patients have fewer or no symptoms, but much more likely to develop chronic infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Transmission of hepatitis B

A
  • Blood and any fluid that contains blood
  • Semen
  • Cerebrospinal fluid
  • Amniotic fluid
  • Vaginal secretions
  • A few other fluids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Signs and symptoms of hepatitis C

A
  • Similar to hepatitis B in many ways
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Loss of appetite
  • Vague abdominal pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Transmission of hepatitis C

A
  • Bloodborne through shared needles
  • Less commonly through sex or childbirth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Is there a hepatitis C vaccine

A

Several safe med regimens but no vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Prevention of hepatitis C

A
  • Standard precautions
  • Proper use and disposal of sharps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Signs and symptoms of HIV/AIDS

A
  • For some, flu-like symptoms within a few weeks of HIV infection
  • Fever
  • Sore throat
  • Fatigue
155
Q

What is AIDS characterized by

A

Opportunistic infections:
- Pneumocystis carinii
- Kaposi’s sarcoma
- Tuberculosis

156
Q

Routes of transmission for HIV/AIDS

A
  • Shared needles
  • Unprotected sex between men
  • Any penetrative activity involving blood and semen
  • During delivery or breastfeeding from mother to newborn
157
Q

Treatment for HIV/AIDS

A

Antiviral medications reduce and suppress HIV viral load

158
Q

Prevention of HIV/AIDS

A
  • Standard precautions
  • Public measures to reduce shared needle use and promote condom use
159
Q

What to do after exposure to HIV/AIDS

A
  • Wash area
  • Consult health care provider
160
Q

Influenza

A

Common contagious respiratory illness caused by influenza virus

161
Q

Signs and symptoms of influenza

A
  • Fever
  • Nonproductive cough
  • Severe muscle aches
  • Sore throat
  • Headache
  • Severe weakness
162
Q

How is influenza spread

A

By droplets or direct contact

163
Q

Treatment for influenza

A

Antiviral meds lessen severity but must be taken within 48 hours of symptoms onset

164
Q

Prevention of influenza

A
  • Hand hygiene
  • Surgical masks
  • Vaccination
165
Q

What is croup caused by

A

AKA laryngotracheobronchitis; caused by human parainfluenza virus (HPIV)

166
Q

Signs and symptoms of croup

A
  • Mild fever and soreness
  • LOUD SEAL BARK COUGH
  • Dyspnea especially when upright
  • Restlessness
  • Paleness with cyanosis
167
Q

Who is most susceptible to croup, how do they present

A

Children between 6 months and 3 years are most susceptible
- They present with history of upper respiratory infection that later produces characteristic seal bark cough
- Symptoms often worse at night

168
Q

How does croup spread

A

Transmission by droplets from cough or sneezes that survive on objects

169
Q

Prevention for croup

A
  • Hand hygiene
  • Refrain from touching nose, eyes, and mouth
170
Q

What is whooping cough caused by

A
  • Aka pertussis
  • Respiratory infection caused by bordetella pertussis bacteria
171
Q

Signs and symptoms of whooping cough

A
  • Begins like typical upper respiratory infection
  • Worsens into fits of uninterrupted coughing followed by “whooping” sounds on inspiration
172
Q

How is whooping cough spread

A

By large droplets in air

173
Q

How is whooping cough treated

A

Treatment with antibiotics

174
Q

Prevention for whooping cough

A
  • Vaccine
  • Hand hygiene
  • Refrain from coughing nose, eyes, and mouth
175
Q

Pneumonia

A

Infection that affects one or both lungs; causes alveoli to fill up with fluid and bacteria, viruses, or fungi may cause pneumonia

176
Q

Signs and symptoms of pneumonia

A
  • Fever
  • Chills
  • Shortness of breath
  • Tachypnea
  • Pleuritic pain
  • Productive cough
  • Inflammation consolidated in part of lung on x-ray
  • Potential febrile seizures in young children and infants
  • AMS common in elderly patients
177
Q

How is pneumonia spread

A

By droplets but requires close contact of several days

178
Q

How is pneumonia treated

A

Antibiotics

179
Q

Prevention of pneumonia

A
  • Vaccination
  • Hand hygiene
  • Cough etiquette
180
Q

Tuberculosis

A

Infection disease that affects lungs and it caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis

181
Q

Signs and symptoms of tuberculosis

A
  • Cough (initially dry, later productive)
  • Fever
  • Night sweats
  • Weight loss
182
Q

How is tuberculosis spread

A

By coughing, singing, or sneezing

183
Q

How is tuberculosis treated

A

Treatment with antibiotics

184
Q

How is tuberculosis prevented

A
  • Vaccination
  • Airborne disease precautions including N-95 respirator
185
Q

Meningitis

A

Inflammation of meninges caused by bacteria neisseria meningitidis

186
Q

Signs and symptoms of meningitis

A
  • Abrupt onset of fever
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Severe headache
  • Nuchal rigidity
  • Photophobia
  • Possible petechiae
187
Q

How is meningitis treated

A

Treatment with antibiotics for meningococcal meningitis

187
Q

How is meningitis spread

A

By direct contact

188
Q

How is meningitis prevented

A

By vaccination

189
Q

Viral STIs

A
  • HIV
  • Hep A, B, C
  • Genital herpes
  • HPV
190
Q

Bacterial STIs

A
  • Chlamydia
  • Gonorrhea
  • Syphilis
191
Q

How is lyme disease transmitted

A

Tick bites

192
Q

What do patients with lyme disease display

A

Most patients display rash (erythema migrans) within a week that looks like a bull’s-eye

193
Q

How to treat lyme disease

A

Treatment with antibiotics

194
Q

Requirements to maintain mental status

A
  • Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue
  • Glucose to nourish brain tissue
  • Water to keep brain tissue hydrated
195
Q

Sensory vs Motor (somatic division of peripheral nervous system)

A
  • Sensory: Messages from body to brain; afferent
  • Motor: Messages from brain to body; efferent
196
Q

Causes of AMS 1

A

S: Stroke, seizure, sugar
N: Narcotics
O: Oxygen
T: Toxins, trauma, temperature

197
Q

Causes of AMS 2

A

A: Alcohol
E: Epilepsy
I: Insulin
O: Overdose
U: Underdose
T: Trauma
I: Infection
P: Pyschosis
S: Stroke

198
Q

What is one of the most common causes of AMS and how should it be treated

A

Hypoxia; consider oxygen administration and be alert for need of position and suctioning if required or if mental status worsens

199
Q

Insulin

A
  • Produce by pancreas
  • Allows large glucose molecule to pass into cells
  • Sugar intake-insulin production balance allows body to use glucose effectively as energy source
200
Q

Type 1 vs Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

A

Type 1: Underproduction of insulin by pancreas
Type 2: Inability of body’s cells to use insulin properly

201
Q

How is type 1 diabetes controlled

A

In type 1, there isn’t enough to transfer circulating glucose into cells and so synthetic insulin is prescribed to supplement inadequate natural insulin

202
Q

How is type 2 diabetes controlled

A

In type 2, pancreas is secreting insulin, but body is unable to use it to move glucose into cells; controlled through diet and/or oral antidiabetic meds

203
Q

What causes hypoglycemia

A

The diabetic:
- Takes too much insulin
- Does not eat
- Over-exercises/overexerts
- Vomits

204
Q

Signs of hypoglycemia

A
  • Rapid onset
  • Abnormal behavior
  • Pale, clammy skin
  • Tachycardia
  • Seizures
205
Q

Results of hypoglycemia

A
  • Starvation of cells
  • AMS
  • Unconsciousness
  • Permanent brain damage
206
Q

Causes of hyperglycemia

A
  • Decrease in insulin (may be doe to body’s inability or because insulin injections not good enough quality)
  • Infection
  • Stress
  • Increasing dietary intake
207
Q

Signs of hyperglycemia

A
  • Develops over days/weeks
  • Chronic thirst and hunger
  • Increased urination
  • Nausea
208
Q

Results of hyperglycemia

A
  • Profound dehydration
  • Excessive waste products released into system
  • Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
209
Q

Signs and symptoms of DKA

A
  • Profoundly AMS
  • Shock (caused by dehydration)
  • Rapid breathing
  • Acetone odor on breath
210
Q

What special things to look for in physical assessment for diabetic

A
  • Calloused fingertips from needles
  • Glucose monitor
  • Contusions from insulin injection
211
Q

Blood glucose measurements

A
  • Less than 60-80 mg/dL in symptomatic diabetic: hypoglycemia
  • Less than 50 mg/dL: significant alterations in mental status
  • Over 140 mg/dL: Hyperglycemia
  • Over 200-300 mg/dL for prolonged time: Dehydration, other more serious symptoms
212
Q

Patient care for hypoglycemia

A
  • Occasionally can treat person with mild hypoglycemia and minor AMS by giving something to eat; never give food/liquids at risk for aspiration
  • Oral glucose if worse
213
Q

Cerebral Vascular Accident

A

Aka stroke; death or injury of brain tissue from oxygen deprivation

214
Q

What causes stroke (types)

A

Blockage of artery supplying blood to part of the brain (Ishemic) or bleeding from a ruptured blood vessel in the brain causing blood to leak into brain tissue (hemorrhagic)

215
Q

Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS)

A

F: Facial droop (ask patient to smile)
A: Arms (Ask patient to close eyes and hold out arms for 10 seconds)
S: Slurred speech
T: Time

216
Q

Signs and symptoms of stroke 2

A
  • Confusion
  • Dizziness
  • Numbness, weakness, or paralysis (usually on one side of the body)
  • Loss of bowel or bladder control
  • Impaired vision
  • High blood pressure
  • Difficult/snoring respirations
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Seizures
  • Unequal pupils
  • Headache
  • Loss of vision in one eye
  • Unconsciousness (uncommon)
216
Q

Aphasia

A

Difficulty in communication

217
Q

Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)

A
  • Small clots temporarily block circulation to part of the brain, causing stroke-like symptoms
  • Symptoms resolve when clots break up, complete resolution of symptoms without treatment within 24 hours or sooner
218
Q

Patient care for stroke

A
  • Monitor airway
  • Calm/reassure patient
  • Consider oxygen
  • Transport patient in semi-sitting position to hospital with capabilities for stroke patient (CT scan at least)
219
Q

Seizure disorder

A

Sudden change in sensation, behavior, or movement; seizure is a sign of underlying defect, injury, or disease

220
Q

How are seizures brought on

A

If normal brain function is upset by injury, infection, or disease, the brain’s electrical activity can become irregular, bringing about a seizure

221
Q

Causes of seizure

A
  • Hypoxia
  • Stroke
  • Traumatic brain injury
  • Toxins
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Brain tumor
  • Congenital brain defects
  • Infection
  • Idiopathic
  • Epilepsy
222
Q

What is a major scene safety red flag when it comes to seizures

A

Multiple patients seizing at the same time

223
Q

Tonic-clonic seizure

A
  • Unconsciousness and major motor activity
  • Tonic phase: Body rigid up to 30 seconds
  • Clonic phase: Body jerks violently for 1-2 minutes
  • Postictal phase: After convulsions stop; often slow period of regaining consciousness
224
Q

Pre-seizure aura

A
  • Some seizures preceded by sensation patient has just before it happens (aura)
  • Patients may note smell, sound or just, a general feeling right before seizure
225
Q

Partial Seizure

A

Uncontrolled muscle spasm/convulsion while patient is fully alert (different from generalized tonic-clonic)

226
Q

Patient care for when seizure occurs

A
  • Place patient on floor/ground
  • Loosen restrictive clothing
  • Remove objects that may harm patient
  • Protect patient from injury, but don’t hold patient still during convulsions
227
Q

Patient care for after seizure convulsions end

A
  • Protect airway
  • If not possible spine injury, position patient on side
  • If patient is cyanotic, ensure open airway and provide artificial ventilations with oxygen
  • Treat injuries sustained during convulsions
  • Transport
228
Q

How long do seizures usually last

229
Q

Status Epilepticus

A

Two or more convulsive seizures lasting 5-10 mins or more without regaining full consciousness; high priority emergency requiring immediate transport and possible ALS intercept

230
Q

Signs and symptoms of sepsis

A
  • AMS
  • Tachycardia
  • Tachypnea
  • Hypotension
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Fever
231
Q

Treatment of sepsis

A
  • Recognition
  • Consider oxygen
  • Consider ALS
232
Q

Dizziness

A

Common term meaning different things

233
Q

Vertigo

A

Sensation of surroundings spinning around you

234
Q

Lightheadedness

A

Sensation you are about to pass out (pre-syncope)

235
Q

Syncope

A

Brief loss of consciousness with spontaneous recovery; typically a few seconds to a few minutes; patients often have warning before syncopal episode

236
Q

Causes of dizziness and syncope

A
  • Hypovolemic
  • Metabolic
  • Environmental/toxicological (alcohol/drugs)
  • Bradycardia/tachycardia
237
Q

Assessment questions for dizziness and syncope

A
  • On meds for this problems?
  • Any other signs/symptoms?
  • Experienced any unpleasant sight or experienced strong emotion before?
  • Anyone witness involuntary movements of the extremities (like seizures)?
238
Q

Patient care for dizziness and syncope

A
  • High concentration oxygen
  • Call for ALS
  • Loosen clothing around neck
  • Lay patient flat
  • Treat associated injuries from fall
239
Q

Allergic reaction

A

Immune system naturally responds to foreign substances in body; an allergic reaction is an exaggerated response to the foreign substance

240
Q

Allergen

A

Substance causing exaggerated effect

241
Q

Body’s reaction to first exposure to allergen

A
  • Immune system form antibodies
  • Antibodies identify and attack particular foreign substance
  • Antibodies combine only with allergen they were formed in response to
  • No allergic reaction
242
Q

Body’s reaction to second (and subsequent) exposures to allergen

A
  • Antibodies already exist
  • Antibody combines with allergen, leading to release of histamine and other chemicals into bloodstream
  • Chemicals cause harmful effects
243
Q

Effects of histamine and other chemicals in allergic reaction

A
  • Inflammation
  • Bronchoconstriction
  • Vasodilation
244
Q

Anaphylaxis

A

Severe, life-threatening allergic reaction

245
Q

What can anaphylaxis cause

A
  • Dilation of blood vessels (hypotension)
  • Airway swelling causing obstruction
  • Bronchoconstriction (respiratory failure)
246
Q

Signs and symptoms of allergic reaction: skin

A
  • Swelling
  • Flushing (red skin)
  • Warm, tingling feeling in face, mouth, chest, feet, hands
  • Urticaria (hives)
247
Q

Angioedema

A

Facial swelling; can be caused by allergic reaction

248
Q

Signs and symptoms of allergic reaction: respiratory

A
  • TIghtness in throat or chest
  • Cough
  • Rapid, labored, noisy breathing
  • Hoarseness, muffled, or lost voice
  • Stridor
  • Wheezing
249
Q

Signs and symptoms of allergic reaction: cardiac

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Decreased blood pressure
250
Q

General signs and symptoms

A
  • Itchy, water eyes, runny nose
  • Headache
  • Feeling of impending doom
251
Q

True or false: Info obtained in initial assessment may be enough to administer epinephrine

A

True; fix now; don’t wait for medical direction, don’t need full set of vitals, PE, Hx, etc

252
Q

Signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock

A
  • AMS
  • Flushed, dry skin or pale, cool, clammy skin
  • Nausea, vomiting
  • Changes in vital signs (increased pulse, increased respirations, decreased blood pressure)
253
Q

Anaphylaxis vs mild allergic reaction

A

In anaphylaxis, patient has either respiratory distress or signs and symptoms of shock

254
Q

Treatment for allergic reactions

A
  • Manage patient’s airway and breathing
  • Apply high-concentration oxygen
  • Provide artificial ventilations if patient not breathing adequately
  • Consider assisting patient with epipen
255
Q

When is use of epipen appropriate

A
  • If patient has come in contact with substance that caused allergic reaction in the past
  • If patient also has respiratory distress or exhibits signs and symptoms of shock (anaphylaxis)
256
Q

Additional doses of epinephrine

A
  • Additional doses may be needed if reassessment shows that condition is deteriorating
  • Requires on-line med control
  • Requires bringing patient’s additional epipens in ambulance
257
Q

What to do if no epipen available

A
  • Treat for shock
  • Request ALS intercept
257
Q

What does anaphylaxis cause

A

Bronchoconstriction and vasodilation

258
Q

Signs of inadequate breathing in infants and children

A
  • Nasals flaring
  • Grunting
  • Seesaw breathing
  • Retractions
259
Q

Patient care for inadequate breathing

A

Assisted ventilation with supplemental oxygen

260
Q

How to adequately artificially ventilation

A
  • Chest rise and fall should be visible with each breath
  • 12 breaths per minute for adults, 20 breaths per minute for infants and children
261
Q

What can indicate inadequate artificial ventilation in adults

A

Increasing pulse rates

262
Q

What can indicate inadequate artificial ventilation in peds

A

Decreasing pulse rates

263
Q

True or false: Difficulty breathing is patient’s subjective perception

A

True; amount of distress felt may or may not reflect actual severity of condition

264
Q

Assessment for respiratory distress: observation

A
  • AMS
  • Unusual anatomy: Barrel chest, clubbed fingers
  • Tripod position
  • Work of breathing/use of accessory muscles
  • Flared nostrils
  • Pursed lips
  • Numbers of words patients can be said without stopping
  • Pale, cyanotic, flushed skin
  • Pedal/sacral edema
  • Coughing
  • Noisy breathing
265
Q

Assessment for respiratory distress: auscultation

A

Lung sounds on both sides during inspiration and expiration

266
Q

Patient care options for respiratory distress

A
  • Place patient in position of comfort
  • Coach breathing
  • Administer oxygen
  • Artificial ventilation
  • Assist with prescribed inhaler
  • Administer continuous CPAP
267
Q

Continuous Positive Air Pressure (CPAP)

A
  • Blowing oxygen/air continuously at low pressure into airway
  • Prevents alveoli from collapsing at end of exhalation
  • Can prevent fluid shifting into alveoli from surrounding capillaries
  • Measured in cm H2O
268
Q

Common uses for CPAP

A
  • CHF
  • Pulmonary edema
  • Drowning
  • Asthma and COPD
  • Respiratory failure in general
269
Q

Indications for CPAP

A

AT LEAST TWO OF THE FOLLOWING:
- Pules oximetry of <90%
- Respiratory rate >25 bpm
- Use of accessory muscles during respiration

270
Q

Side effects of CPAP

A
  • Hypotension
  • Pneumothorax
  • Increased risk of aspiration
  • Drying of corneas
271
Q

Contraindications for CPAP

A
  • Severe AMS
  • Lack of normal, spontaneous respiratory rate
  • Hypotension/shock
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Penetrating chest trauma
  • Upper GI bleeding
  • Conditions preventing good mask seal
272
Q

What to do if patient deteriorates using CPAP

A

Remove CPAP and ventilate with bag-mask

273
Q

How to administer prescribed inhalor

A

Have patient exhale deeply, press inhaler to activate spray as patient inhales deeply, make sure patient holds breath as long as possible so medication can be absorbed

274
Q

The small-volume nebulizer

A
  • Meds in metered-dose inhalers can also be administered by small-volume nebulizer
  • Nebulizing is running oxygen or air through liquid medication
  • Patient breathes vapors created
  • Gives patient greater exposure to medication
275
Q

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

A
  • Broad classification of chronic lung diseases
  • Includes emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and black lung
276
Q

What are the majority of COPD cases caused by

A

Cigarette smoking

277
Q

Chronic Bronchitis

A
  • Disease classified under COPD
  • Bronchiole lining inflamed; excess mucus produced
  • Cells in bronchioles that normally clear away mucus accumulations are unable to do so
278
Q

Emphysema

A
  • Disease classified under COPD
  • Alveoli walls break down; surface area for respiratory exchange is greatly reduced
  • Lungs lose elasticity; results in air being trapped in lungs, reducing effectiveness of normal breathing
279
Q

Asthma

A
  • Chronic disease with episodic exacerbations
  • During attack, there is bronchoconstriction and mucus is overproduced
  • Results in small airway passages closing down, severely restricting air flow
280
Q

Treatment for COPD and Asthma

A
  • Assess for and treat inadequate breathing
  • Oxygen
  • Coach breathing
  • Sit patient up or in position of comfort
  • Assist inhaler
  • CPAP
281
Q

Pulmonary Edema

A
  • Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the alveoli
  • CHF patients may experience difficulty breathing because of this
282
Q

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

A
  • Pressure builds up in pulmonary capillaries causing fluid crossing the thin barrier to accumulate in and around the alveoli
  • Fluid occupying the lower airways makes it difficult for oxygen to reach blood; patient experiences dyspnea
283
Q

Signs and symptoms of CHF

A
  • Dyspnea
  • Anxiety
  • Pale/sweaty skin
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypertension
  • Low oxygen saturation
  • Crackles/wheezes when breathing
  • Patients may cough up frothy white/pink sputum
  • Pedal edema
284
Q

Treatment for CHF

A
  • Assess for and treat inadequate breathing
  • Oxygen
  • Coach breathing
  • Sitting up
  • CPAP
285
Q

Spontaneous Pneumothorax

A
  • Lung collapses without injury or other obvious cause
286
Q

Who are at higher risk for spontaneous pneumothorax

A
  • Tall, thin people
  • Smokers
  • Marfan syndrome
287
Q

What is being contraindicated with spontaneous pneumothorax

288
Q

Signs and symptoms of pneumothorax

A
  • Sharp, pleuritic chest pain
  • Decreased or absent lung sounds on side with injured lung
  • Shortness of breath/dyspnea on exertion
  • Low oxygen saturation, cyanosis
  • Tachycardia
289
Q

Pulmonary Embolism

A
  • Blockage in blood supply to lungs
  • Commonly caused by DVT
  • Increased risk from limb immobility, local trauma, abnormally fast blood clotting
290
Q

Signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolism

A
  • Chest pain
  • Shortness of breath
  • Low oxygen
  • Tachycardia
  • Wheezing
291
Q

Which groups of people are at high risk for pulmonary embolism

A

Women on birth control, smokers, stagnation, and people who have recently had recent surgery

292
Q

Epiglottitis

A

Infection causing swelling around glottic opening; in severe cases can cause airway obstruction through swelling

293
Q

Signs and symptoms of epiglottitis

A
  • Sore throat, DROOLING, difficulty swallowing
  • Tripod position/upright preferred
  • Sick appearance
  • Muffled voice
  • Fever
  • Stridor, possibly seal-bark cough
294
Q

Croup

A

Caused by croup of viral illnesses that result in inflammation of larynx, trachea, and bronchi
- Tissues in the airway (especially upper airway) become swollen and restrict the passage of air

295
Q

Bronchiolitis

A

Small airways become inflamed become of viral infection

296
Q

Most common cause of bronchiolitis

A

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

297
Q

Signs and symptoms of bronchiolitis

A
  • Cold-like symptoms
  • Symptoms progress over few days and worsen to include respiratory distress
  • Can progress from there to inadequate breathing
298
Q

Cystic Fibrosis

A
  • Genetic disease typically appearing in childhood
  • Causes thick, sticky mucus to accumulate in lungs and digestive system
  • The mucus can cause life-threatening lung infections and digestion problems
299
Q

Signs and symptoms of cystic fibrosis

A
  • Coughing with large amounts of mucus
  • Fatigue
  • Frequent pneumonia
  • Abdominal pain and distention
  • Coughing up blood
  • Nausea
  • Weight loss
300
Q

Abdomen

A

Region between the diaphragm and pelvis

301
Q

Peritoneum

A

Thin membrane lining the abdominal cavity and covering each organ; two types are parietal and visceral peritoneum

302
Q

Parietal vs Visceral Peritoneum

A

Parietal peritoneum lines the abdominal cavity, the visceral peritoneum covers each organ

303
Q

What is the retroperitoneal space, which organs lie there

A

The space behind the peritoneum; kidneys, pancreas, part of aorta whereas the other organs are enclosed within the parietal peritoneum

304
Q

What organs lie inferior to the peritoneum

A

The bladder and part of the rectum

305
Q

Visceral pain

A

Originates from visceral peritoneum; fewer nerve endings allow for only diffuse sensations of pain

306
Q

How is visceral pain described as

A

Dull or achy

307
Q

Colic pain

A

INTERMITTENT intestinal pain; may result from distention and/or contraction of hollow organs

308
Q

What does persistent or constant abdominal pain often originate from

A

Solid organs

309
Q

Parietal Pain

A

Originates from the parietal peritoneum; many nerve endings allow for specific, efficient sensations of pain

310
Q

How is parietal pain often described as

A

Sharp; the pain is often severe, constant, and localized to a specific area

311
Q

Referred Pain

A

Perception of pain in skin or muscles at distant locations even though cause of pain is abdominal; caused because abdomen has many nerves from different parts of the nervous system and the overlap of these pathways as they return to the spinal cord causes pain to be transmitted from one system to another

312
Q

Tearing pain

A

Originates in the aorta; separation of layers of the aorta caused by aneurysm causes referred pain to the back because of the retroperitoneal location of the aorta

313
Q

What is appendicitis and what is usually indicated

A

Infection of appendix; appendectomy is usually indicated

314
Q

Signs and symptoms of appendicitis

A
  • Persistent RLQ pain
  • Pain often initially referred to umbilical region
  • Rupture of appendix (sudden, severe increase in pain, contents released into abdomen causes severe peritonitis)
315
Q

Peritonitis

A
  • Irritation of peritoneum, usually caused by foreign material in peritoneal space
  • Parietal peritoneum is sensitive, especially to substances
  • The irritation causes involuntary contraction of abdominal muscles
316
Q

Signs and symptoms of peritonitis

A

Abdominal pain and rigidity

317
Q

Peritoneal Dialysis

A

Dialysis using the lining of the abdomen to filter blood

318
Q

Cholecystitis

A
  • Inflammation of the gallbladder
  • Often caused by blockage of its outlet by gall stones (cholecystolithiasis)
319
Q

When do symptoms for cholecystitis worsen

A

By ingestion of fatty foods

320
Q

Signs and symptoms of cholecystitis

A
  • Sharp RUQ or epigastric pain
  • Pain often referred to shoulder
321
Q

Pancreatitis

A
  • Inflammation of the pancreas
322
Q

What is pancreatitis often associated with

A

Chronic alcohol abuse

323
Q

Signs and symptoms of pancreatitis

A
  • Epigastric pain
  • Often referred to back or shoulder
324
Q

Gastrointestinal (GI) Bleeding

A
  • Hemorrhage within the lumen of the GI tract
  • Can be minor to severe
  • Blood eventually exits the mouth or rectum
  • Often painless
  • Gastric ulcers can cause severe pain and peritonitis
325
Q

Signs and symptoms of GI bleeding

A
  • Dark-colored stool (maroon to black, tarry)
  • Frank blood from rectum (hemorrhoid)
  • Vomiting coffee ground appearing blood
  • Pain: absent to severe
326
Q

Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)

A
  • Weakening of inner wall of the aorta
  • Tears and separates from outer layers (dissection)
  • Weakened vessel bulges, may continue to grow
  • May eventually rupture
327
Q

Hernia

A
  • Hole in the abdominal wall, allowing tissue or parts of organs (commonly intestines) to protrude under skin
  • May be precipitated by heavy lifting
  • May cause strangulation of tissue or bowel obstruction
  • May require surgical repair
328
Q

Renal colic

A

Severe pain caused by kidney stones traveling down the ureter

329
Q

Signs and symptoms of renal colic

A
  • Severe, cramping, intermittent pain in flank or back
  • Frequently referred to groin
  • Nausea vomiting
330
Q

Why should you consider the possibility of cardiac emergency as a cause of abdominal symptoms

A

Pain of MI can produce nausea or vomiting, epigastric pain, indigestion

331
Q

Assessment and care of abdominal pain/discomfort

A
  • Perform thorough history and physical exam
  • Identify serious or life-threatening conditions
332
Q

Behavioral emergency

A

Abnormal behavior (in a given situation) unacceptable or intolerable to patient, family, or community

333
Q

Acute psychosis

A

Involves a severe break in patient’s abilities to process information and interact with their environments

334
Q

Symptoms of acute psychosis

A
  • Hallucinations
  • Delusions
  • Catatonia
  • Though disorder
335
Q

Physical causes of behavioral emergencies

A
  • Hyperthermia/hypothermia
  • Substance abuse
  • Head trauma
  • Stroke
  • Hypoxia
  • Diabetic issues
  • Hyperthermia
336
Q

General rules for interactions with behavioral patients

A
  • ID yourself and role
  • Speak slowly and clearly
  • Eye contact
  • Don’t judge
  • Listen
  • Open, positive body language
  • Don’t enter patient’s space (3ft)
  • Alert for behavior changes
337
Q

Patient care for behavioral emergencies

A
  • Treat life-threatening problems
  • Consider medical/traumatic causes
  • Follow rules for positive interactions
  • Encourage patient to discuss feelings
  • Never play along with hallucinations
  • Consider involving friends/family
338
Q

Possibilities for factors to suicide

A
  • Depression
  • High stress
  • Recent emotional trauma
  • Age
  • Drug/alcohol abuse
  • Threats of suicide
  • Suicide plan
  • Previous attempts/threats
  • Sudden improvement
339
Q

Age for highest risk for suicide

A

15-25, 40+

340
Q

What to do with hostile patients

A
  • Consider clues like dispatch information, information from bystanders, patient’s stance
  • Ensure escape route
  • Don’t threaten patient
  • Stay alert for weapons
341
Q

Reasonable Force

A

Force necessary to keep patient from injuring self or others

342
Q

What is reasonable force determined by

A
  • Patient’s size and strength
  • Type of behavior
  • Mental status
  • Available methods of restraint
343
Q

Restraining a patient

A
  • Have adequate help: one person at each limb and one EMT talking to and calming patient
  • Plans actions
  • Stay beyond patient’s reach until prepared
  • Act quick
  • Restrain all limbs with approved leather restraints IN SUPINE POSITION ALWAYS
  • EMT is responsible for patient’s airway
  • Apply surgical mask to spitting patients
  • Reassess frequently, document thoroughly
344
Q

Excited delirium

A
  • Extremely agitated or psychotic behavior during struggle, followed by cessation of struggling, respiratory arrest, then death
  • Patient is often hyperthermic and shouting incoherently
345
Q

What is excited delirium usually preceded by

A

Cocaine use

346
Q

What is excited delirium often linked to

A

Improper restraint in a position where patient can’t expand chest to breath; positional asphyxia

347
Q

When are providers allowed to treat and transport patients against their will in terms of behavior

A

If they are a danger to selves/others; local protocol may require med control/police

348
Q

What are some ways to avoid false sexual misconduct accusations

A
  • Have same-sex provider if possible
  • Have third-party witness at all times
349
Q

What is the body’s most rapid and initial response to stopping bleeding

A

Aggregation of platelets

350
Q

Clotting factors

A

Group of proteins produced in liver and released into bloodstream; once activated, clotting factors form cloths through clotting cascades

351
Q

Coagulopathies

A

Abnormal clotting of blood; can occur when body forms clots too readily or patients clots too slowly

352
Q

What diseases makes patients more prone to poor clotting

A
  • Advanced liver disease
  • Hemophilia
  • Von Willebrand disease
353
Q

Which patients are more prone to having life-threatening bleeding when injured (bleeding)

A

Patients prescribed blood thinners

354
Q

Anemia

A

Lower-than-normal amount of RBCS

355
Q

Acute Anemia

A

Sudden blood loss

356
Q

What leads to chronic anemia

A
  • Excessive menstrual periods
  • Slow GI bleeding
  • Diseases affecting bone marrow
357
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia

A

Genetic disease causing RBCs to resemble a sickle shape; the RBCs have a short life span leading to anemia

358
Q

In which ethnicities is sickle cell anemia most prevelant

A
  • African Americans
  • Indian/middle easterns
359
Q

Complications of Sickle Cell Anemia

A
  • Destruction of spleen
  • Sickle pain crisis
  • Acute chest syndrome
  • Priapism
  • Stroke
360
Q

Treatment of Sickle Cell Anemia

A
  • High flow supplemental oxygen
  • Monitor for respiratory distress
  • Monitor for signs of hypoperfusion
  • Transport to stroke center if stroke is suspected
361
Q

Components of the renal system

A
  • Two kidneys
  • Two ureters
  • One urethra
362
Q

Kidneys function

A
  • Filters blood
  • Remove certain waste products, excessive salts, and excessive fluids
  • Maintains fluid balance
363
Q

Urinary Tract Infection

A
  • Most common disease that afflicts renal and urinary system
  • Caused by bacteria
  • Usually limited to bladder
  • Can cause pain and frequent urination
  • If left untreated, can result in pyelonephritis
364
Q

Pyelonephritis

A

Inflammation of the kidneys caused by UTI ascending up the ureter into the kidney

365
Q

Kidney stones

A
  • Usually made up of calcium and formed within the kidney
  • When in the kidney, they usually cause no symptoms but once dislodged, can cause severe unilateral flank pain
366
Q

What may patients with kidney stones report

367
Q

Why do patients need urinary catheters

A
  • Obstruction of bladder outflow; used to drain urine
  • Neurological disorder
368
Q

Where are urinary catheters inserted

A

Usually in urethra, but sometimes through skin

369
Q

What complications can arise at site of catheter insertion

A

UTIs and local trauma

370
Q

When does renal failure occur

A

When kidneys lose ability to adequately filter and remove toxins

371
Q

Acute vs chronic renal failure

A
  • Acute failure typically results from shock or toxic ingestions
  • Chronic may be inherited or secondary to damage from uncontrolled diabetes or hypertension
372
Q

End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD)

A

Irreversible renal failure that requires dialysis

373
Q

Hemodialysis

A

Patient is connected to a machine that pumps blood through specialized membranes

374
Q

How often are hemodialysis treatments, how long do they last

A

Most common is 3 days a week, 3 to 4 hours long

375
Q

What are the two types of access to blood circulation for hemodialysis

A
  • Two-port catheter
  • A-V fistula
376
Q

Peritoneal Dialysis

A

Uses the peritoneal cavity’s large surface area; a special fluid is infused into the abdominal cavity and left for several hours to absorb waste and excess fluid; that fluid is removed and discarded

377
Q

What are the two broad groups of complications of dialysis

A
  • Loss of kidney function
  • Complication of dialysis
378
Q

What are complication of ESRD usually associated with

A

Patient missing dialysis

379
Q

Signs and symptoms of ESRD complications

A

Similar to CHF symptoms
- Shortness of breath
- Edema
- Electrolyte disturbances

380
Q

Specific complications of dialysis

A
  • Bleeding from A-V fistula
  • Clotting and loss of A-V fistula function
  • Infection (peritonitis)
381
Q

Treatment of dialysis complications

A
  • Assess ABC’s
  • Control bleeding
  • Administer oxygen
  • Treat for shock (keep patient supine and warm)
  • If peritonitis is suspected, transport dialysis fluid for confirmation
382
Q

How many kidney transplants happen each year

A

21,000 (kidneys are the most transplanted organs)

383
Q

What do the specialized medicines that kidney transplant patients take do

A
  • Helps prevent organ rejection
  • Prevents infection

Bio 1 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions